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Ophthalmic Medical Assistant Practice Test

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Quiz on Ophthalmic Medical Assistant Practice Test, created by Dani Geiger on 03/03/2015.
Dani Geiger
Quiz by Dani Geiger, updated more than 1 year ago
Dani Geiger
Created by Dani Geiger about 9 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
The only eye care professional who is a medical doctor is the
Answer
  • Optometrist
  • Ocularist
  • Ophthalmologist
  • Orthoptist

Question 2

Question
A patient in need of a prosthetic eye would be referred to an
Answer
  • Ocularist
  • Optician
  • Orthoptist
  • Optometrist

Question 3

Question
Of the following, the eye care professional who routinely fills prescriptions for eyeglasses is the
Answer
  • Ocularist
  • Optician
  • Ophthalmic Medical Technician
  • Orthoptist

Question 4

Question
An ophthalmologist who concentrates on one area of the eye or focuses on a specific ocular disease is called
Answer
  • An optician
  • An ocularist
  • An optometrist
  • A subspecialist

Question 5

Question
The level directly above certified ophthalmic medical assistant on JCAHPO'S certification ladder is
Answer
  • Certified ophthalmic medical technologist
  • Certified ophthalmic registered nurse
  • Certified ophthalmic technician
  • Certified ophthalmic photographer

Question 6

Question
Of the following, the responsibility that routinely falls to the ophthalmic medical assistant is
Answer
  • Diagnosing certain conditions
  • Making prognostic estimates
  • Performing certain diagnostic tests
  • Prescribing treatment for certain problems

Question 7

Question
An ophthalmic medical assistant accidentally administers too many eyedrops to a patient's eye. The first action the assistant should take is to
Answer
  • Apologize to the patient and thoroughly wash with water
  • Explain to the patient that the effects will be intensified
  • Tell the ophthalmologist, who will then decide how to handle the situation
  • Suggest that the patient remain in the office for awhile after the examination

Question 8

Question
While waiting for the ophthalmologist, an anxious patient asks the Ophthalmic Medical Assistant for the results of a recent test. The assistant should
Answer
  • Explain that the ophthalmologist will discuss the results with the patient shortly
  • Discuss the results with the patient to reduce the level of anxiety
  • Reassure the patient that all is well and that the condition tested for is not serious
  • Politely tell the patient that another patient requires attention and leave the room

Question 9

Question
An ophthalmologist's office may disclose information regarding a patient's condition only when the individual seeking the information
Answer
  • Is the patients spouse
  • Has received permission from the patient
  • Is the patient's employer
  • Is a member of the patient's immediate family

Question 10

Question
Of the following, the structure that is part of the ocular adnexa is the
Answer
  • Cornea
  • Eyelid
  • Lens
  • Optic nerve

Question 11

Question
The medial rectus muscle rotates the eyes
Answer
  • Inward towards the nose
  • Outward towards the temple
  • Downward and outward toward the temple
  • Downward and inward toward the nose

Question 12

Question
The membrane that lines the inner eyelid is the
Answer
  • Bulbar conjuntiva
  • Epithelium
  • Palpebral conjunctiva
  • Tarsus

Question 13

Question
The tough, transparent membrane that provides about two thirds of the eye's focusing power is the
Answer
  • Retina
  • Conjunctiva
  • Sclera
  • Cornea

Question 14

Question
The white tissue surroundind the cornea and forming the main structural component of the globe is the
Answer
  • Cilisry body
  • Limbus
  • Sclera
  • Vitreous

Question 15

Question
The structures of the uveal tract, or uvea, are
Answer
  • Iris, ciliary body, choroid
  • Iris, posterior chamber, ciliary body
  • Choroid, sclera, retina
  • Iris, lens, choroid

Question 16

Question
The clear, transparent fluid that fills the anterior chamber is called the
Answer
  • Vitreous
  • Aqueous humor
  • Choroid
  • Tear film

Question 17

Question
The condition occurring most often in individuals over age 45 in which the lens can no longer change shape to focus at the near is
Answer
  • Accomodation
  • Presbyopia
  • Glaucoma
  • Cataract

Question 18

Question
The primary function of the sphincter and dilator muscles is to
Answer
  • Control the amount of light entering the inner part of the eye
  • Raise and lower the eyelid
  • Determine the direction and movement of the eyeball
  • Change the curvature of the lens

Question 19

Question
In this figure of the lacrimal system, the structures are correctly identified as
Image:
6a2e8606-466a-4938-a91d-dfd7769709f0 (image/jpg)
Answer
  • (1) lacrimal sac (2) punctum (3) lacrimal gland
  • (1) lacrimal sac (2) nasolacrimal duct (3) lacrimal gland
  • (1) lacrimal gland (2) punctum (3) lacrimal sac
  • (1) lacrimal gland (2) lacrimal sac (3) punctum

Question 20

Question
Under normal conditions, aqueous fluid leaves the eye in the sequence
Answer
  • Trabecular meshwork, through the canal of Schlemm, to the anterior chamber angle
  • Canal of Schlemm, through the trabecular meshwork, to the surface blood vessels
  • Anterior chamber angle, through trabecular meshwork, to canal Schlemm
  • Anterior chamber angle, through surface blood vessels, to trabecular meshwork

Question 21

Question
Injury or degeneration of the macula will most likely result in loss of
Answer
  • Night or dim-light visioj
  • Peripheral vision
  • Distance vision
  • Detailed central vision

Question 22

Question
In this figure of the visual pathway, the structures are correctly identified as
Image:
bc6adf90-e96e-46b3-b90e-6a5ce6c86a2c (image/jpg)
Answer
  • (1) visual cortex (2) optic tract (3) optic nerve
  • (1) optic nerve (2) optic chiasm (3) genticulate body
  • (1) optic chiasm (2) optic tract (3) genticulate body
  • (1) optic nerve (2) optic chiasm (3) visual cortex

Question 23

Question
The suffix -itis added to the name of a tissue or organ produces the medical term for
Answer
  • Infection
  • Inflammation
  • Ischemia
  • Degeneration

Question 24

Question
A body part deprived of its normal blood supply due to blockage or breakage of a vessel is said to be
Answer
  • Inflamed
  • Infected
  • Ischemic
  • Neoplastic

Question 25

Question
Diabetes Mellitus is an example of the type of disease process called
Answer
  • Metabolic
  • infectious
  • Neoplastic
  • Degenerative

Question 26

Question
An abnormal change observed by a physician while examining a patient is referred to as
Answer
  • An etiology
  • A symptom
  • A sign
  • A syndrome

Question 27

Question
When the orbital contents swell, pushing the eyeball forward, the resulting condition is termed
Answer
  • Blepharitis
  • Exophthalmos
  • Ectropion
  • Exotropia

Question 28

Question
The term diplopia is used to describe
Answer
  • Swelling from large amounts of fluid
  • Paralysis
  • Double vision
  • Deviation of one or both eyes

Question 29

Question
Treatment of congenital strabismus may include surgery of the
Answer
  • Cornea
  • Eyelid
  • Retina
  • Eye muscles

Question 30

Question
Inward deviation of an eye that occurs only when the eye is covered is called
Answer
  • Esophoria
  • Esotropia
  • Exophoria
  • Exotropia

Question 31

Question
Amblyopia referd to
Answer
  • The continual movement of the eyes from side to side and up and down
  • The suppression of visual images from a deviating eye
  • The abnormal drooping of an upper eyelid
  • Three-dimensional visual perception

Question 32

Question
The term chalazion describes
Answer
  • An inward turning of the eyelashes
  • A drooping upper eyelid
  • An inflammation of the lacrimal sac
  • A lump that develops after inflammation and infection of the meibomian glands

Question 33

Question
A condition of dry eyes is called
Answer
  • Dacrocystitis
  • Keratoconus
  • Blepharitis
  • Keratoconjuntivitis sicca

Question 34

Question
Primary open-angle glaucoma
Answer
  • Is not a threat to vision
  • Can cause permanent damage to the optic nerve
  • Develops rapidly and suddenly
  • Accounts for a small percentage of all glaucomas

Question 35

Question
A cataract is
Answer
  • A clouding of the vitreous gel
  • A benign growth on the conjunctiva
  • A branch-shaped corneal ulcet
  • An opacification of the crystalline lens

Question 36

Question
The apperance of flashes of light in the corner of the eye followed by a sensation of a curtain moving across the vision are symptoms of
Answer
  • Age-related macular edema
  • Retinal detatchment
  • Retinitis pigmentosa
  • Papilledema

Question 37

Question
Substances that permit the passage of light without significant disruption are termed
Answer
  • Opaque
  • Transparent
  • Translucent
  • Electromagnetic

Question 38

Question
A convex lens with a focal length of 0.50 meter has a power of
Answer
  • 0.20
  • 0.50
  • 2.00
  • 5.00

Question 39

Question
A toric cornea is characteristic of
Answer
  • Hyperopia
  • Myopia
  • Presbyopia
  • Astigmatism

Question 40

Question
The type of lens that best corrects myopia combined with astigmatism is a
Answer
  • Cylindrical lens
  • Spherical lens
  • Spherocylindrical lens
  • Multifocal lens

Question 41

Question
The difference between the power of the upper segment and the power of the lower segment in a bifocal lens is referred
Answer
  • Circle of least confusion
  • Refractive index
  • Principal meridian
  • Add

Question 42

Question
The correct transposition of the plus-cylinder prescription +1.00+2.00×90
Answer
  • +3.00-2.00×90
  • +1.00-2.00×180
  • +3.00-2.00×180
  • +2.00-1.00×90

Question 43

Question
The term neutralization in retinoscopy refers to
Answer
  • Administering cycloplegic eyedrops, which block accomodation
  • Finding the lens power that affects movement of the retinal reflex and fills thd pupil with light
  • Measuring the prescription of the patient's exisiting eyeglasses
  • Balancing the correction of both the patient's eyes

Question 44

Question
If the distance portion of an eyeglass lens is +2.00 and the bifocal add is +1.00, then the bifocal power is
Answer
  • +1.00
  • +2.00
  • +3.00
  • -1.00

Question 45

Question
The first step in performing manual lensometry or keratometry is to
Answer
  • Focus the eyepiece
  • Lubricate the instrument
  • Position the eyeglasses
  • Position the patient

Question 46

Question
If the lensmeter mires cannot be centered in the central portion of the lensmeter target, the lens probably contains a
Answer
  • Sphere
  • Cylinder
  • Spherocylinder
  • Prism

Question 47

Question
The part of the comprehensive medical eye examination during which the visible parts of the lacrimal apparatus are inspected is
Answer
  • Ophthalmoscopy
  • The external examination
  • The alignment and motility examination
  • The visual field examination

Question 48

Question
Healthy, asymptomatic individuals between the ages of 40 & 64 should have a comprehensive medical eye exam every
Answer
  • 6 months
  • Year
  • 2-4 years
  • 5 years

Question 49

Question
When recording the patient's chief complaint, the opbthalmic medical assistant should
Answer
  • Include an evaluation of the patient's words
  • Include only the facts as stated by the patient
  • Substitute technical terms for the patient's words
  • Include any diagnoses that seem likely

Question 50

Question
Close examination of the lids, lashes, cornea, and lens can be accomplished with the
Answer
  • Biomicroscope
  • Ophthalmoscope
  • Gonioscope
  • Exophthalmometer

Question 51

Question
In the snellen acuity recording 20/200, the number 100 represents
Answer
  • Size of the largest optotype seen by the patient
  • Distance in feet from the patient to the chart
  • Distance in meters from the patient to the chart
  • Distance in feet at which a normal eye can see the particular line on the chart

Question 52

Question
If a pinhole acuity test is found to significantly improve a patient's poor visual acuity, the patient probably has
Answer
  • Glaucoma
  • A cataract
  • Poor peripheral vision
  • A refractive error

Question 53

Question
Jaeger notations, snellen M units, and distance equivalents are various units of measuring
Answer
  • Near visual acuity
  • Ocular motility
  • Peripheral vision
  • Pupil width

Question 54

Question
Having a patient follow a finger in the six cardinal positions of gaze is a method of evaluating
Answer
  • Direct pupillary reaction
  • Peripheral vision
  • Extraocular muscle function
  • Distance acuity

Question 55

Question
The prism and alternate cover test is used to
Answer
  • Evaluate depth perception
  • Evaluate peripheral vision
  • Measure deviation in a misaligned eye
  • Measure near visual acuity

Question 56

Question
Of the following, the procedure that mistbe performed before pupillary dilation is
Answer
  • Cycloplegic refraction
  • Biomicroscope
  • Ophthalmoscopy
  • The swinging-light test

Question 57

Question
In a normal consensual reaction, when a light is directed into the pupil of one eye, the pupil of the other eye
Answer
  • Constricts
  • Dilates
  • Is unchanged
  • Pulsates

Question 58

Question
Of the following, the test that evaluates disturbances or defects in the visual field is the
Answer
  • Worth four-dot test
  • Titmus stereopsis test
  • Schirmer test
  • Amsler grid test

Question 59

Question
Intraocular pressure is measured by flattening a small area of the central cornea in
Answer
  • Keratometry
  • Applanation tonometry
  • Indentation tonometry
  • Schiøtz tonometry

Question 60

Question
A reading of 3 on the Goldmann tonometer dial indicates an intraocularpressure of
Answer
  • 0.3 mm Hg
  • 3 mm Hg
  • 15 mm Hg
  • 30 mm Hg

Question 61

Question
Gonioscopy is a procedure used to view the
Answer
  • External structures of the eye
  • Structures of the anterior chamber angle
  • Vitreous
  • Optic nerve head

Question 62

Question
Indirect ophthalmoscopy provides a
Answer
  • Nonmagnified view of the fundus
  • 15-fold magnified view of the fundus
  • Wider field of view of the fundus than does direct ophthalmoscopy
  • Narrower field of view of the fundus than does direct ophthalmoscopy

Question 63

Question
The three transparent structures that compose what is termed the ocular media are the
Answer
  • Cornea, lens, and retina
  • Conjunctiva, cornea, and lens
  • Cornea, lens, and vitreous
  • Lens, vitreous, and aqueous humor

Question 64

Question
The interferometer measures visual acuity potential by using a laser or special light beams to
Answer
  • Project parallel lines onto the macula
  • Photograph the cornea's endothelial cells
  • Project a lighted Snellen chart onto the retina
  • Deliver radiating sound waves throughout the cornea

Question 65

Question
Pachymetry is useful in determining the
Answer
  • Position and size of tumors in the eye
  • Macular function in a patient with a media opacity
  • Degree of a patient's sensitivity to glare
  • Ability of the cornea to withstand the stress of surgery

Question 66

Question
Of the following, the procedure used for counting endothelial cells of the cornea is
Answer
  • Fluorescein angiography
  • Specular microscopy/photography
  • Ultrasonography
  • Pachymetry

Question 67

Question
An acuity chart printed in faint gray instead of sharp black on white is useful for measuring
Answer
  • Near visual acuity
  • Glare sensitivity
  • Color vision
  • Contrast sensitivity

Question 68

Question
Fluoroscein angiography is a valuable method of detecting and documenting
Answer
  • Abnormalities in the structures of the outer eye
  • Corneal endothelial cells
  • Abnormalities in ocular blood vessels
  • Lens opacities

Question 69

Question
Of the following, the procedure most useful in calculating the power of an artificial lens to be implanted in a patient who has undergona cataract extraction is
Answer
  • A-scan ultrasonography
  • B-scan ultrasonography
  • Fluorescein angiography
  • Specular microscopy

Question 70

Question
The printed circles on a visual field chart refer to the
Answer
  • Radial meridians
  • Boundaries of a normal patient's island of vision
  • Eccentricity from fixation at 10° intervals
  • Holes within the contour of an otherwise normal visual field

Question 71

Question
On a visual field chart, a contour obtained with a single target of a particular size and brightness is
Answer
  • A shallow scotoma
  • An absolute scotoma
  • An isopter
  • A circle of eccentricity

Question 72

Question
Generally, the 0° point on visual field charts of both the right and the left eye is located at the
Answer
  • Extreme right on the horizontal meridian, and the other meridians are measured progressively in a clockwise direction
  • Extreme left on the horizontal meridian, and the other meridians are measured progressively in a clockwise direction
  • Extreme right on the horizontal meridian, and the other meridians are measured progressively in a counterclockwise direction
  • Top of the vertical meridian, and the other meridians are measured progressively in a counterclockwise motion

Question 73

Question
A defect in the inferior temporal retina will affect the
Answer
  • Inferior temporal field of vision
  • Inferior nasal field of vision
  • Superior temporal field of vision
  • Superior nasal field of vision

Question 74

Question
On visual field charts, the physiologic blind spot appears in the
Answer
  • Center of the visual field
  • Nasal visual field
  • Temporal visual field
  • Inferior visual field

Question 75

Question
Two examples of static perimetry are
Answer
  • The tangent screen test and the contrast sensitivity test
  • Suprathreshold perimetry and Autoplot perimetry
  • The tangent screen test and Goldmann perimetry
  • Threshold perimetry and suprathreshold perimetry

Question 76

Question
The technique of placing a target of a given size in the visual field and gradually increasing its brightness until the patient sees it is the basis for
Answer
  • Threshold perimetry
  • Suprathreshold perimetry
  • The tangent screen test
  • Goldmann perimetry

Question 77

Question
One disadvantage of Goldmann periimetry is that it
Answer
  • Covers only the central 30° of the visual field
  • Requires the examiner to move the target at the same speed in each direction
  • Provides no means of controlling the brightness of the test targets
  • Produces printed results that are difficult to plot and interpret

Question 78

Question
One advantage of computerized threshold perimetry is that it
Answer
  • Is quicker and easier to perform than kinetic perimetry
  • Is more sensitive in detecting shallow defects than kinetic perimetry
  • Eliminates the need for the technician to be in the room
  • Eliminates the need for patient response

Question 79

Question
This figure illustrates the
Image:
f17f743d-42c8-4413-9b9b-056c51d0926c (image/jpg)
Answer
  • Light divergent property of a convex lens
  • Light divergent property of a concave lens
  • Light convergent property of a convex lens
  • Light convergent property of a concave lens

Question 80

Question
This figure shows the focal point of light rays in an eye that is
Image:
21a891f2-d22b-406e-99f4-f89eb9923d93 (image/jpg)
Answer
  • Myopic
  • Presbyopic
  • Emmetropic
  • Hyperopic

Question 81

Question
In this visual field chat of the right eye, the arrow on the left points to an area of decreased visual sensitivity known as a
Image:
e1a7c792-4c58-4344-894a-0e444e22085c (image/jpg)
Answer
  • Physiologic blind spot
  • Scotoma
  • Depression
  • Hemianopia

Question 82

Question
In this visual field chart of both eyes, the condition depicted is most often due to
Image:
c9338152-2775-437d-9874-dcb1b1a01ec2 (image/jpg)
Answer
  • Glaucoma
  • Small pupil size
  • A lesion or tumor in the optic chiasm
  • Cataracts

Question 83

Question
For accurate perimetry, the patient's near correction must be in place if the patient
Answer
  • Has ptosis
  • Is presbyopic
  • Has a pupil size of 2mm or smaller
  • Is easily distracted

Question 84

Question
Correction for distance, near, and intermediate vision in one lens can be achieved with
Answer
  • An executive bifocal lens
  • A round-top segment bifocal lens
  • A single vision lens
  • A double-D segment trifocal lens

Question 85

Question
Transitional zones or areas of blending that create distorted or blurred vision are a particular drawback of
Answer
  • Round-top multifocal lenses
  • Conventional seamed multifocal lenses
  • Progressive-addition multifocal lenses
  • Polarized lenses

Question 86

Question
Because of its resistance to shattering , the material choice for safety glasses is
Answer
  • Heat-treated flint glass
  • Chemically treated flint glass
  • CR-39
  • Polycarbonate

Question 87

Question
Interpupillary distance is measured principally to determine
Answer
  • The base curve of a lens
  • The optical center of a lens
  • Thecpantoscopic angle of a lens frame
  • The segment height of a multifocal lens

Question 88

Question
Interpupillary distance is measured principally to determine
Answer
  • The base curve of a lens
  • The optical center of a lens
  • The pantoscopic angle of a lens frame
  • The segment height of a multifocal lens

Question 89

Question
The procedure for obtaining monocular interpupillary distance involves measuring the distance from
Answer
  • One pupil to the other in a single measurement
  • One pupil to the other in a single measurement and then dividing the results by 2
  • One pupil to the bridge of the nose and then multiplying the result by 2
  • Each pupil to the bridge of the nose separately and then adding the results

Question 90

Question
The accurate measurement of vertex distance during refractometry is required
Answer
  • For all refractive prescriptions
  • Only for multifocal prescriptions
  • Only for prescriptions with corrections greater than or equal to -5 to +5 diopters
  • Only for prescriptions with corrections less than or equal to -5 to +5 diopters

Question 91

Question
As a starting point, most opticians recommend fitting the top of a bifocal segment
Answer
  • Level with the upper lid margin
  • Level with the lower lid margin
  • Level with the lower rim of the pupil
  • Exactly at the middle of the eyeglass lens

Question 92

Question
The primary purpose of triage is to
Answer
  • Obtain the patient's complete ophthalmic history
  • Diagnose the patient's problem
  • Classify the patient's chief complaint according to its severity and urgency
  • Schedule office appointments acording to the availability of the physician

Question 93

Question
If the ophthalmic medical assistant notices a discrepancy between the patient's report of a traumatic injury and the injury itself, the assistant should
Answer
  • Confront the injured patient immediately
  • Inform the ophthalmologist in private, without the patient present
  • Inform the ophthalmologist in the presence of the patient
  • Disregard the discrepancy, as this matter is not the responsibility of the ophthalmic medical assistant

Question 94

Question
Of the following, the situation that should be treated as an emergency requiring immediate action is a
Answer
  • Recent onset of flashes of light
  • Loss of contact lenses needed for work
  • Mucous discharge from the eye
  • Sudden, painless, severe loss of vision

Question 95

Question
Generally, urgent situations are those requiring that the patient be seen within
Answer
  • 3 to 6 hours
  • 24 to 48 hours
  • 5 to 7 days
  • 1 to 2 weeks

Question 96

Question
A patient telephones the ophthalmologist's office reporting an alkali burn to the eye. The ophthalmic assistant should instruct the patient to
Answer
  • Patch the eye and proceed immediately to the office or emergency facility
  • Keep the eye closed and proced immediately to the office or emergency facility
  • Irrigate the eye with water for 20 minutes and then proceed to the office or emergency facility
  • Put a lubricating ointment on the eye and proceed immediately to the office or emergecy facility

Question 97

Question
When assisting a patient who feels faint in the office, the ophthalmic kedical assistant should first
Answer
  • Begin CPR
  • Get the emergency cart
  • Splash water on the patient's face
  • Get the patient's head below the heart

Question 98

Question
In encounters with irate or hostile patients, the best approach an ophthalmic medical assistant can take is to
Answer
  • Recommend that they see anothe physician
  • Try to convince them that they are being unreasonable
  • Listen calmly to their complaints and apologize for any misunderstanding
  • Ignore them until they calm down

Question 99

Question
When interacting with a visually impaired or blind patient, the ophthalmic medical assistant should
Answer
  • Approach quietly to avoid startling the patient
  • Speak through an accompanying companion
  • Speak loudly to ensure comprehension
  • Face the patient and say the patient's name

Question 100

Question
A papoose board is useful in
Answer
  • Propping up a toddler at the slit lamp
  • Immobilizing an infant during an ophthalmic evaluation
  • Transporting a toddler from one examining room to another
  • Testing visual acuity in a school-aged child who cannot identify letters

Question 101

Question
The "fix and follow" method of evaluating visual function is generally used with
Answer
  • Infants
  • School-aged children
  • Elderly patients
  • Patients with low vision

Question 102

Question
A patient with insulin dependent diabetes suddenly becomes sweaty, dizzy, and disoriented while waiting to see the ophthalmologist. The assistant, acting in compliance with the office's emergency procedures, should first
Answer
  • Reschedule the appointment and send the patient home
  • Have the patient lie down until the episode passes
  • Give the patient fruit juice or candy to stabilize the blood sugar level
  • Have the patient drink one or two glasses pf water

Question 103

Question
When testing visual acuity in elderly patients, the ophthalmic medical assistant should
Answer
  • Concentrate on distance acuity, as near acuity is not as important in this age group
  • Require that these patients respond quickly, so that an objective measurement can be obtained
  • Adjust the lighting to avoid glare, which often is a problem in this age group
  • Use the Allen chart rather than the Snellen chart when testing visual acuity

Question 104

Question
Approximately 95% of all individuals over the age of 65 havr some degree of
Answer
  • Glaucoma
  • Cataract
  • Diabetes
  • Diplopia

Question 105

Question
When the ophthalmic medical assistant schedules a lengthy appointment for a patient with IDDM, the most appropriate recommendation to make to the patient is to
Answer
  • Fast for several hours before the appointment
  • Come in right before lunch
  • Come in right after breakfast or lunch
  • Eat lightly on the day of the appointment

Question 106

Question
When the ophthalmic medical assistant asks a literate 8 year old patient to read the visual acuity chart, the child begins reciting the alphabet. The most effective action the assistant can take to get the results needed is to
Answer
  • Praise the child for trying hard to cooperate
  • Ask the parent to get the child started reading the chart
  • Ask the child to start at the beginning of the chart and read each letter separately
  • Move the child closer to the chart

Question 107

Question
One disadvantage of ophthalmic medicinal ointments is that they
Answer
  • May cause unwanted effects in other parts of the body
  • May blur vision when applied
  • Cannot be used in patients with excessive tearing
  • Do not remain in contact with the eye surface for very long

Question 108

Question
Of the following, the type of injection classified as a form of systemic drug delivery is the
Answer
  • Intravitreal
  • Subconjunctival
  • Subcutaneous
  • Retrobulbar

Question 109

Question
When instilling eyedrops, the ophthalmic medical assistant should
Answer
  • Administer the medication directly to the cornea
  • Make certain the dropper makes contact with the conjunctival sac
  • Administer the medication directly into the conjunctival sac
  • Apply direct pressure to the eyelids

Question 110

Question
Of the following, the drug that is most helpful when performing both a fundus examination and an objective refraction on a pediatric patient is
Answer
  • An anesthetic
  • A miotic
  • A mydriatic
  • A cycloplegic

Question 111

Question
The two types of drugs that could stimulate an attack of angle closure glaucoma in patients with narrow anterior chamber angles are
Answer
  • Mydriatics and cycoplegics
  • Mydriatics and antihistimines
  • Anesthetics and dyes
  • Antiallergic and anti inflammatory agents

Question 112

Question
In ophthalmology, topical anesthetics are most often used to
Answer
  • Perform major eye surgery
  • Treat corneal defects on a long-term basis
  • Relieve minor eye fatigue and redness
  • Prevent discomfort during diagnostic procedures

Question 113

Question
Miotics function to reduce the intraocular pressure by
Answer
  • Decreasing the production of aqueous humor
  • Contracting the ciliary body muscle and opening the outflow channels for aqueous humor
  • Paralyzing the ciliary body muscle and closing the anterior chamber angle
  • Dilatinf the pupil and opening the anterior chamber angle

Question 114

Question
All of the following are used to treat bacterial infections except
Answer
  • Neomycin
  • Sulfonamides
  • Nystatin
  • Bacitracin

Question 115

Question
The topical drug phenylephrine is classified as
Answer
  • A miotic
  • A mydriatic
  • An anesthetic
  • An antimicrobial

Question 116

Question
The ophthalmologist has written that includes the abbreviations "gtt" and "bid." These indicate that the prescribed drug is
Answer
  • An ointment to be administered every hour
  • An ointment to be administered at bed time
  • Topical drops to be administered 4 times a day
  • Topical drops to be administered twice a day

Question 117

Question
Topical corticosteroids function primarily as
Answer
  • Lubricants, which keep the external eye moist and maintain tear film balance
  • Antimicrobials, which inhibit the growth of bacteria, viruses, or fungi
  • Irrigating solutions, which flush out the eye during surgical procedures
  • Anti-inflammatory and anti-allergic agents, which reduce swelling and scarring of the lids and anterior segment

Question 118

Question
A common side effect of cycloplegics is
Answer
  • Eye redness
  • Blurred vision
  • High blood pressure
  • Corneal edema

Question 119

Question
The microbe most likely to cause recurrent fever blisters is
Answer
  • Adenovirus
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Epstein-Barr virus
  • Herpesvirus

Question 120

Question
A corneal abrasion caused by a tree twig is most likely to cause a
Answer
  • Fungal infection
  • Protozoal infection
  • Viral infection
  • Chlamydial infection

Question 121

Question
Of the following, the people most at risk for developing an ocular infection by the protozoan Acanthamoeba are those who
Answer
  • Eat undercooked or raw meat
  • Use homemade salt solutions to clean their contact lenses
  • Have had chickenpox during childhood
  • Use contaminated cosmetics

Question 122

Question
The primary purpose of standard precautions is to
Answer
  • Identify disease-causing microbes
  • Reduce the opportunity for harmful microbes to flourish and threaten patients and medical personnel
  • Protect the sterility of a sterilized article
  • Destroy all the microorganisms in the office environment

Question 123

Question
A tonometer tip is best disinfected by using
Answer
  • Boiling water
  • Moist heat
  • A germicide
  • Soap and water

Question 124

Question
Sterilization is best defined as
Answer
  • The transmission of infectious microbes from reservoir to host
  • The range of procedures used to prevent the spread of infectious microbes in the office
  • The process of inactivating or eliminating most disease-causing microorganisms
  • The destruction of all microorganisms

Question 125

Question
An autoclave is used to
Answer
  • Disinfect medical amterials that would be destroyed by dry or moist heat
  • Sterilize medical materials by means of pressurized moist heat
  • Sterilize medical materials by means of dry heat
  • Decontaminate reusable medical materials before they are sterilized

Question 126

Question
If the ophthalmic medical assistant accidentally touches the sterile functional surface of a disposable instrument
Answer
  • Resterilized in the office
  • Wiped with alcohol
  • Wiped with a sterile cloth
  • Discarded, no matter what it's cost

Question 127

Question
An infection caused when the eye has been penetrated by a contaminated metal fragment is an example of
Answer
  • Direct-contact transmission
  • Indirect-contact transmission
  • Common-vehicle transmission
  • Vector transmission

Question 128

Question
Ophthalmic medical assistants with open cuts on their hands
Answer
  • Should wear gloves to protect patients
  • Should wear gloves to protect themselves
  • Should wear gloves to protect patients and themselves
  • Do not need to wear gloves if they wash their hands before and after working with patients

Question 129

Question
Of the following, the task that is the responsibility of the ophthalmic assistant when caring for a patient undergoing minor surgery is
Answer
  • Initiating the discussion of informed consent
  • Prepping the patient for the procedure
  • Administering a local anesthetic by injection
  • Determining when the patient is steady enough to leave the office

Question 130

Question
The discussion involved in obtaining informed consent
Answer
  • Is necessary only before a major surgical procedure
  • Occurs between the patient and the ophthalmic medical assistant
  • Covers the benefits as well as the risks of the procedure
  • Is conducted mainly for the protection of the surgeon

Question 131

Question
Of the following, the suture material that is not broken down by the body but must be removed from the suture site is
Answer
  • Polypropylene
  • Collagen
  • Gut
  • Polyglactin 910

Question 132

Question
The rhumboid-shaped needle point used in procedures involving the cornea or sclera where the plane of penetration must be precise is
Answer
  • Cutting point
  • Reverse-cutting
  • Spatula point
  • Taper point

Question 133

Question
In this photograph, the surgical instruments are correctly identified from left to right as
Image:
c1c7947f-4235-40fd-bc00-afe73da5d945 (image/jpg)
Answer
  • Scissors, forceps, needle holder
  • Forceps, scissors, needle holder
  • Needle holder, forceps, scissors
  • Forceps, needle holder, scissors

Question 134

Question
To maintain hemostasis during a surgical procedure, the surgeon uses
Answer
  • Curettes
  • Cannulas
  • Clamps
  • Forceps

Question 135

Question
In lacrimal-system probing, a cannula is used to
Answer
  • Enlarge the small punctal opening
  • Scoop out the unwanted tissue
  • Hold the suture needle steady
  • Flush out a tear duct with an irrigating solution

Question 136

Question
All of the following are considered to be within the sterile operating field except
Answer
  • The instrument tray
  • Masks
  • Gloves
  • Drapes

Question 137

Question
Prepping the patient is usually done
Answer
  • After final scrubbing and without sterile gloves
  • Before final scrubbing and without sterile gloves
  • After final scrubbing and with non sterile gloves
  • Before final scrubbing and with sterile gloves

Question 138

Question
Of the following, the suture size least likely to be used for eye surgery is
Answer
  • 2-0
  • 5-0
  • 8-0
  • 10-0

Question 139

Question
The contact lens that allows oxygen to reach the cornea only through the tear pump are
Answer
  • Soft lenses
  • Rigid gas-permeable lenses
  • Polymethylmethacrylate lenses
  • Extended-wear lenses

Question 140

Question
A prescription for contact lenses
Answer
  • Is identical to that for eyeglasses
  • Requires only keratometry and refraction measurements
  • Includes both keratometry and base curve measurements
  • Includes vertex and interpupillary distance measurements

Question 141

Question
One significant advantage of soft lenses as compared to rigid gas-permeable lenses is that soft lenses
Answer
  • Generally are easier to handle, clean, and disinfect
  • Can correct large amounts of astigmatism or irregular corneas more effectively
  • Generally are easier to adapt to and initially more comfortable to wear
  • Can be modified after manufacture

Question 142

Question
An allergic reaction related to contact lens wear is most often due to individuals sensitivity to a
Answer
  • Soft contact lens material
  • Rigid contact lens material, such as silicon acrylate
  • Soap used to wash hands before insertion
  • Preservative or disinfectant chemical in a lens solution

Question 143

Question
Cosmetic restorative lenses are most appropriate for patients who
Answer
  • Want to enhance or change the color of their irises
  • Have disfigured eyes
  • Require relief from photophobia or glare sensitivity
  • Have large amounts of astigmatism that would otherwise require thick glasses

Question 144

Question
Disinfection of contact lenses serves primariky to
Answer
  • Remove surface protein deposits
  • Keep the lens surface hydrophilic
  • Prevent the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi
  • Lubricate the area between the cornea and the lens

Question 145

Question
Contact lenses are most likely to be contraindicated in individuals who
Answer
  • Have refractive errors resulting from keratoconus
  • Work in occupations requiring excellent peripheral vision
  • Participate heavily in sports activities
  • Are routinely exposed to excessive amounts of fumes or dust

Question 146

Question
Generally, when inserting a soft contact lens on a patient, the ophthalmic medical assistant should first place the lens on the
Answer
  • Sclera above the cornea
  • Sclera below the cornea
  • Sclera to the right or left of the cornea
  • Cornea directly

Question 147

Question
A corneal abrasion caused by foreign material lodged between the cornea and the contact lens
Answer
  • Can result in a serious corneal infection
  • Usually is more painful in soft lens wearers than in rigid lens wearers
  • Usually requires no treatment beyond removal of the lens for a few days
  • Always requires treatment with a pressure patch

Question 148

Question
The onky acceptable rinsing solution for contact lenses is
Answer
  • Salt tablets dissolved in distilled water
  • Salt tablets dissolved in tap water
  • The contact lens user's own saliva
  • Sterile saline solution
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