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Pharmacology Quiz

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Degree Pharmacology Quiz on Pharmacology Quiz, created by Phil Oklam on 04/05/2015.
Phil Oklam
Quiz by Phil Oklam, updated more than 1 year ago
Phil Oklam
Created by Phil Oklam about 9 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is meant by pharmacodynamics?
Answer
  • The effect of a drug on the body - i.e. Cellular effects
  • The effect of the body on a drug - i.e. Administration Distribution Metabolism Excretion

Question 2

Question
What are the four main drug action targets?
Answer
  • Receptors
  • Enzymes
  • Carrier molecules
  • Ion channels
  • Vesicles
  • Ribosomes

Question 3

Question
Which of the following are true?
Answer
  • Agonists activate receptors as an endogenous substrate would
  • Antagonists block the action of agonists
  • An orthosteric drug binds at the same site as a substrate
  • An allosteric drug binds away from the substrate site
  • Drugs cannot act as false substrates in enzymes

Question 4

Question
Which of the following are the characteristics of a Class II nuclear receptor?
Answer
  • Present in the nucleus, form heterodimers, the ligands are lipids
  • Present in the nucleus, form homodimers, ligands are carbohydrates
  • Present in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are endocrine
  • Present in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are lipids

Question 5

Question
Which of the following describes a graded dose-response?
Answer
  • The response of a particular system measured against agonist concentration
  • The drug doses required to produce specified response determined in each member of a population

Question 6

Question
Bmax is a measure of receptor saturation and is the maximum amount of drug which can bind specifically to the receptors in a membrane preparation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 7

Question
Potency is the amount of a drug needed to produced a given effect, it is measured using the EC50. The greater the EC50 the greater the potency.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 8

Question
Which of the following is incorrect?
Answer
  • Efficacy is the maximum effect an agonist can produce regardless of dose
  • A full agonist has a high efficacy and AR* is likely, even while occupying a small number of receptors
  • A partial agonist has a lower efficacy and AR* is less likely despite occupying the maximum number of receptors
  • Inverse agonists have a higher affinity for AR* state than for AR state, it produces an effect opposite to that of an agonist, yet binds to the same receptor binding-site.

Question 9

Question
What is the meaning of tachyphylaxis?
Answer
  • Desensitisation of receptors with repeated administration
  • Amplification of a response means a fraction of receptors are needed to elicit a maximal response
  • The equilibrium dissociation constant, the same for any given receptor and drug combination
  • The process by which a drug is transported in place of an endogenous substrate or inhibit their transport

Question 10

Question
Which of the following are true?
Answer
  • All of them
  • A competitive antagonist can be overcome with increasing agonist concentration. Curve: parallel shift to the right
  • An irreversible antagonist forms covalent bonds with the receptor. Curve: parallel shift to the right and reduced maximal asymptote
  • A non-competitive antagonist has signal transduction effects rather than receptor effects. Curve: reduces slope and maximum of curve
  • Antagonists have no efficacy and AR* doesn't exist

Question 11

Question
What is the equation for dose ratio?
Answer
  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50
  • (agonist - antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50
  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) * agonist EC50
  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) / antagonist EC50

Question 12

Question
The therapeutic index (TI) is a comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect to the amount that causes toxicity. Risk: benefit ratio = TD50 / ED50 = Toxic dose / Efficient therapeutic dose
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 13

Question
Lipid soluble compounds cross cell membranes less easily and are therefore less rapidly absorbed
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
Which of the following is referring to Ka?
Answer
  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.
  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.
  • Determined by the Schild plot, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.
  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the lower the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.

Question 15

Question
Which of the following drug administration routes would be used for a drug that is poorly absorbed and unstable in the GI tract, it also gives the most control over the delivered dose and has a rapid onset of action.
Answer
  • Parenteral route
  • Vaginal route
  • Transdermal route
  • Sublingual route
  • Inhaled route

Question 16

Question
Which of the following are pharmacological parameters?
Answer
  • Cmax - max concentration of a compound after administration
  • Tmax - the time at which Cmax is reached
  • AUC - a measure of systemic exposure (area under curve / time of curve)
  • Bioavailability (F) - the extent of absorption after extravascular administration
  • Volume of distribution (Vd) - the amount of a compound in the body vs. plasma concentration
  • Clearance (CL) - the volume of plasma cleared of compound per unit of time
  • Ke - elimination rate constant

Question 17

Question
The half life of a drug in the plasma is not the elimination half life of the drug from the tissues
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 18

Question
Which of the following are plasma proteins that bind drugs making them stay in systemic circulation rather than distributing into tissues or organs.
Answer
  • Albumin (HSA) - produced by the liver, binds acidic and neutral drugs
  • Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and neutral drugs
  • Albumin (HSA) - produced by the spleen, binds acidic and neutral drugs
  • Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and acidic drugs

Question 19

Question
Which enzymes carry out phase II metabolism?
Answer
  • UDP - glucuronosyl transferases (UGTs)
  • Cytochrome P450 family

Question 20

Question
The half life of a drug is the time it takes for the concentration of the compound to reach 50% of its current value, what is the formula to calculate it?
Answer
  • Half life = 0.693 / Ke
  • Half life = 0.693 / CL
  • Half life = 0.963 / Ka
  • Half life = 0.936 / F

Question 21

Question
Which of the following are correct when describing the cytochrome P450 enzyme family?
Answer
  • They are heme co-factor containing enzymes
  • They are individually referred to as isozymes
  • They are always found in the ER of the cell regardless of the organ/tissue
  • They are mainly found in the liver (hepatocytes) and intestines (enterocytes)
  • Enzyme inhibition = decreased metabolism and decreased drug exposure
  • Enzyme induction = increased gene transcription, increased metabolism and decreased drug exposure

Question 22

Question
What is the name given to the conjugation reaction that occurs with an endogenous substrate if phase I metabolites are too lipophilic to be retained in the kidney tubular fluid?
Answer
  • Glucuronidation
  • Acidification
  • Glucomodification
  • Metabolishment
  • Glomerular Filtration

Question 23

Question
Which of the following compounds enter phase II metabolism directly?
Answer
  • Those containing -OH
  • Those containing -NH2
  • Those containing -COOH
  • Those containing -SS
  • Those containing -C2H6

Question 24

Question
Which of the following systems involves NA as well as ACh?
Answer
  • Sympathetic nervous system: short preganglionic nerves and long postganglionic nerves
  • Parasympathetic nervous system: long preganglionic nerves and short postganglionic nerves
  • Somatic nervous system: neuromuscular junction

Question 25

Question
Which of the following are G protein linked (metabotropic) receptors?
Answer
  • muscarinic receptors (mACh) - M1,2,3 found in postganglionic parasympathetic synapses
  • nicotinic receptors (nACh) - Neuronal type found in the brain and autonomic ganglia
  • nicotinic receptors (nACh) - Muscle type found in the neuromuscular junction

Question 26

Question
Which of the following causes nervous system confusion and are therefore not clinically useful?
Answer
  • Neuronal type nicotinic agonists and antagonists
  • Muscle type nicotinic agonists and antagonists

Question 27

Question
Which of the following cause a depolarising block and can therefore be used in surgery to cause temporary paralysis?
Answer
  • Nicotinic agonists (muscle type)
  • Nicotinic antagonists (muscle type)
  • Nicotinic agonists (neuronal type)
  • Nicotinic antagonists (neuronal type)

Question 28

Question
The release of which neurotransmitter is blocked by botulinium toxin causing motor and parasympathetic paralysis?
Answer
  • Acetylcholine
  • Serotonin
  • Botulin
  • Noradrenaline
  • Adrenaline
  • Histamine
  • Dopamine

Question 29

Question
ACh metabolism by acetylcholineesterase is inhibited by what?
Answer
  • Neostigmine
  • Botulinium toxin
  • Choline
  • Acetyl hydroxylase
  • Lipolysis
  • Salbutamol

Question 30

Question
What are the enzymes involved in the conversion of Tyrosine to Noradrenaline?
Answer
  • Tyrosine Hydroxylase
  • DOPA decarboxylase
  • DA -B-hydroxylase
  • Tyrosine decarboxylase
  • DA decarboxylase
  • L-DOPA Hydrogenase

Question 31

Question
Which of the following are true about noradrenergic receptors?
Answer
  • They exist as A1,2 and B1,2,3
  • They exist as A1,2,3 and B1,2
  • They are G protein coupled
  • They are tyrosine kinase receptors
  • They are found in the effector tissues of the sympathetic system
  • They are found in the effector tissues of the parasympathetic system

Question 32

Question
Which of the following is a negative feedback presynaptic receptor?
Answer
  • A1 noradrenergic receptor
  • A2 noradrenergic receptor
  • B1 noradrenergic receptor
  • B2 noradrenergic receptor
  • B3 noradrenergic receptor

Question 33

Question
Which drug given subcut can prolong and isolate local anaesthesia and by what mechanism?
Answer
  • Adrenaline by A1 mediated vasoconstriction
  • Adrenaline by B1 mediated vasoconstriction
  • Noradrenaline by A1 mediated vasodilation
  • Salbutamol bt A2 mediated vasoconstriction
  • Botulinium toxin by A1 mediated vasodilation

Question 34

Question
Which of the following are noradrenergic agonists?
Answer
  • Clonidine - A2
  • Dobutamine - B1
  • Prazosin - A1
  • Salbutamol - B2
  • Atenolol - B1
  • Timolol - B2

Question 35

Question
What is the pathway of the false substrate that decreases overall noradrenergic neurotransmission?
Answer
  • meDOPA > meDA > meNA
  • meDOPA > meNA > meDA
  • L-DOPA > L-DA > L-NA
  • DA > DOPAC > HVA
  • Tyrosine > DOPA > DA > NA

Question 36

Question
What is the name of the drug that disrupts storage of NA in synaptic vesicles?
Answer
  • Reserpine
  • Dobutamine
  • Atenolol
  • MAOI
  • COMT
  • NA reuptake inhibitors
  • Neostigmine

Question 37

Question
Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of airway smooth muscle?
Answer
  • Parasympathetic bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion
  • Circulating adrenaline causing bronchodilation
  • Nonadrenergic Noncholinergic transmitters e.g. inhibitory NO or excitatory substance P or neurokinin A
  • Sensory receptors - chemical and physical stimuli
  • Circulating dopamine causing broncoconstriction

Question 38

Question
Which of the following is the delayed phase of asthma?
Answer
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Inflammation/Damage in response to mediators

Question 39

Question
Glucocorticoids suppress the immune system and therefore are good at treating the delayed phase of asthma. Which of the following do they decrease the production of?
Answer
  • LTC4, LTD4 - spasmogens
  • LTB4 - chemotaxins
  • PGE2, PGI2 vasodilators, cytokines
  • LTC4 - chemotaxins
  • LTB4, LTC4, - spasmogens
  • PGE5, PGL2, chemotaxins

Question 40

Question
Where is the cough centre located?
Answer
  • Hypothalamus
  • Oesophagus
  • Adrenal medulla
  • Cerebral cortex

Question 41

Question
Which of the following are true of local anaesthetics?
Answer
  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels 2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore 3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form 4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane 5. Most are weak bases 6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond
  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels 2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore 3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form 4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane 5. Most are weak bases 6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds
  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels 2. Interact with B subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore 3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form 4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane 5. Most are weak acids 6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond
  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated K+ channels 2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore 3. Binds in the unionised (hydrophobic) form 4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane 5. Most are weak bases 6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds

Question 42

Question
Antidysrhythmic drugs treat disturbances of cardiac rhythm and consist of...
Answer
  • Class I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels
  • Class I blocking calcium channels and Class II blocking sodium channels
  • Class I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking potassium channels
  • Class I blocking potassium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels

Question 43

Question
What do anticonvulsant drugs target?
Answer
  • Voltage gated sodium channels
  • Ligand gated sodium channels
  • Voltage gated potassium channels
  • G protein receptors
  • Tyrosine kinase receptors

Question 44

Question
Which condition is categorised by the degeneration of DAergic neurones of the nigrostriatal tract and loss of DA transmission in striatum via D2 receptors?
Answer
  • Parkinson's disease
  • Depression
  • Paralysis
  • Psychosis
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Cushing's syndrome

Question 45

Question
Which of the following enzymes are found in the conversion of tyrosine to dopamine?
Answer
  • Tyrosine hydroxylase
  • DOPA decarboxylase
  • DA B-hydroxylase
  • Tyrosine decarboxylase
  • DOPA hydroxylase
  • Carbonic Anhydrase

Question 46

Question
The metabolism of DA sees it converted to DOPAC and then HVA, catalysed by which enzymes?
Answer
  • Monoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase
  • Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase, then Monoamine oxidase
  • Monoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Decarboxylase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase

Question 47

Question
Which of the following are true of DA receptors?
Answer
  • They are G protein linked
  • They are ligand gated ion channels
  • D2-like receptors are inhibitory D1-like receptors are excitatory
  • D1-like receptors are inhibitory D2-like receptors are excitatory
  • Inhibitory receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels
  • Excitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase
  • Inhibitory receptors inhibit DOPA decarboxylase
  • Excitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels

Question 48

Question
In the treatment of Parkinson's disease, giving L-DOPA and a decarboxylase inhibitor (carbidopa) would have what effect?
Answer
  • Increase dopamine
  • Decrease dopamine
  • Increase DOPA decarboxylase
  • Increase reuptake by DAT
  • Increase transport of DA into vesicles by VMAT

Question 49

Question
What is the name and action of a MAO inhibitor?
Answer
  • Selegiline - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles
  • Selegiline - inhibits MAO-B, decreasing the DA content of vesicles
  • Carbidopa - inhibits MAO-A, increasing the DA content of vesicles
  • Prazosin - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles

Question 50

Question
Which of the following neural pathways are thought to be involved in the development of depression?
Answer
  • Locus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the mid brain and the hypothalamus, and the hippocampus and cortex
  • Dorsal and median raphe nuclei contain cell bodies with projections to the hypothalamus, hippocampus and cortex
  • Dorsal and median locus coeruleus contain cell bodies with projections to the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and adrenal medulla
  • Locus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the andrenal medulla, cortex, and dorsal ventricular brain centre

Question 51

Question
Which of the following is the correct pathway for 5-HT synthesis?
Answer
  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT
  • Tryrosine (Tyrosine hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT
  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan decarboxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP hydroxylase) > 5-HT
  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTS (5-HTS decarboxlase) > 5-HT
  • Tryptophan (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HTP (5-HT hydroxylase) > 5-HT

Question 52

Question
What is the end product in the metabolism of 5-HT?
Answer
  • 5-HIAA
  • 5-HTP
  • Tryptophan
  • DA
  • NA
  • 5-HITP

Question 53

Question
What is the last enzyme involved in NA metabolism and what is the final product?
Answer
  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing MHPG
  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing DOPEG
  • Monoamine Oxidase producing MHPG
  • Aldehyde dehydrogenase producing 5-HIAA
  • Monoamine Oxidase producing DOPAC
  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing HVA

Question 54

Question
Which of the following is a ligand gated ion channel?
Answer
  • 5-HT-3
  • 5-HT-1(A-F)
  • 5-HT-2(A-C)

Question 55

Question
Which of the following autoreceptors can be found on the cell body?
Answer
  • NA A2 and 5-HT-1B
  • NA A2 and 5-HT-1A
  • NA A1 and 5-HT-1B
  • 5-HT-1A and 5-HT-1B

Question 56

Question
Which of the following is the action of oestrogen?
Answer
  • Sensitises LH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium, inhibits release of FSH
  • Renders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, LH and GRH
  • Inhibits GRH, sensitises FSH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium
  • Renders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, sensitises LH releasing cells

Question 57

Question
Blocking of which hormones induces a pharmacological menopause?
Answer
  • FSH
  • LH
  • GRH
  • Progesterone
  • Oestrogen
  • human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 58

Question
What is the action of prolactin?
Answer
  • Released from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing GRH release
  • Released from hypothalamus, acts on anterior pituitary preventing GRH release
  • Released from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing FSH release
  • Released from hypothalamic nuclei, acts on mammary tissue preventing LH release

Question 59

Question
Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation?
Answer
  • Warmth
  • Pain
  • Oedema (swelling)
  • Erythema (redness)
  • Oedema (redness)
  • Erythema (swelling)
  • Inc dopamine
  • Dec immune response

Question 60

Question
Which of the following are vasoactive mediators that will increase vascular permeability leading to oedema?
Answer
  • histamine
  • 5HT
  • Leukotrienes
  • Prostaglandins
  • Platelet activating factor (PAF)
  • C5a
  • LTB4
  • Cytokines

Question 61

Question
What do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) do?
Answer
  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids
  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids
  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of eicosanoids
  • stimulate cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids
  • stimulate cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids

Question 62

Question
Which of the following are actions of steroidal anti-inflammatories?
Answer
  • Dec synthesis of prostanoids through inhibition of phospholipase 2
  • Dec prostaglandin-H-synthase transcription
  • Dec cytokines
  • Inhibit cyclooxygenase activity
  • Suppression of the immune system

Question 63

Question
Which of the following are true of histamine?
Answer
  • Synthesised from the amino acid Histidine
  • Synthesised from the amino acid tyrosine
  • Stored in granules in mast cells and basophils
  • Stored in vesicles in macrophages
  • Released by the complement system and IgEs
  • Released by IgMs
  • G protein coupled receptors: H1-4
  • Tyrosine Kinase receptors: H1-2

Question 64

Question
What is the meaning of selective toxicity?
Answer
  • Agents that destroy parasites while being relatively non-toxic to the host
  • Agents that destroy the majority of pathogens without disturbing host cells
  • Agents that selectively destroy particular parasites
  • Agents that can target cells of specific organs in order to kill tumour cells

Question 65

Question
Which of the following is not a major class of antibiotics?
Answer
  • Penicillins
  • Sulphonamides
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Macrolides
  • Tetracyclines
  • Quinolides

Question 66

Question
Metastasis is the development of secondary malignant growths at a distance from a primary site of cancer
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 67

Question
Which of the following is false?
Answer
  • Platinum based drugs cross link DNA with other bases and proteins damaging it
  • Carboplatin has the same mechanism as cisplatin with fewer side effects
  • Daunorubicin is an antibiotic used to treat cancer, blocking the enzyme that normally untangles strands of DNA
  • The Philadelphia translocation results in the genes BCR and abl being joined, switching off cell division by activating other proteins
  • Imatinib inhibits the BCR-abl protein kinase

Question 68

Question
The Philadelphia translocation occurs on which chromosomes and in which disease?
Answer
  • 9 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
  • 9 and 23, Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
  • 9 and 22, Parkinsons
  • 8 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

Question 69

Question
Which of the following species of malaria has the quickest onset and is the most severe?
Answer
  • P. falciparum
  • P. malarie
  • P. Vivax
  • P. Ovale
  • P. Sporozoa

Question 70

Question
Which stage of the life cycle are plasmodiums at when they re-enter the liver and lay dormant?
Answer
  • Sporozoites
  • Gametocytes
  • Meterozoites
  • Trophozoites

Question 71

Question
Drug therapy for malaria takes the forms of radical cure, clinical cure and prophylaxis. Which of the following is not a category of anti-malarial drugs?
Answer
  • 4-aminoquinolines
  • Quinine-methanols
  • 8-aminoquinolines
  • Antifolates
  • Hydroxynapthoquinone
  • Macrolides

Question 72

Question
What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose longer than one hour after ingestion?
Answer
  • Activated charcoal
  • N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
  • Glutathione infusion
  • Sulphate bypass
  • Glucuronidation
  • NAPQI

Question 73

Question
A secondary adverse effect of a drug is indirectly caused, secondary to the drug
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 74

Question
Who is least at risk of adverse drug reactions?
Answer
  • Adults
  • Neonates
  • Children
  • Elderly
  • People on medication
  • Females

Question 75

Question
Which of the following are correct?
Answer
  • Type A drug reaction: Augmented pharmacological effect
  • Type B drug reaction: Basic - predictable on basis of pharmacology of the drug
  • Type C drug reaction: Chronic effects - occur after prolonged treatment
  • Type D drug reaction: Delayed, effects occur remote from treatment (or in the child of the treated)
  • Type E drug reaction: Expected - common side effects of a drug

Question 76

Question
Addiction imbalances involve which two areas of the brain?
Answer
  • Amygdala (Impulsive)
  • Pefrontal cortex (Reflective)
  • Prefrontal cortex (Impulsive)
  • Amygdala (Reflective)
  • Hypothalamus (Impulsive)
  • Anterior pituitary (Reflective)
  • Hypothalamus (Reflective)

Question 77

Question
Which of the following are correct when measuring addiction?
Answer
  • There are a total of 11 addictive traits on the scale
  • There are a total of 9 addictive traits on the scale
  • Mild = 2/3 symptoms
  • Mild = 1-4 symptoms
  • Moderate = 4/5 symptoms
  • Moderate = 5/6 symptoms
  • Severe = 6+ symptoms
  • Severe = 7+ symptoms

Question 78

Question
ADH is released from the posterior pituitary in response to low blood volume/pressure or high osmolarity and acts upon the kidney to cause water reabsorption, increasing blood volume
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 79

Question
Which form of diabetes is categorised by copius hypotonic urine resulting from decreased ADH secretion?
Answer
  • Diabetes Mellitus
  • Diabetes Insipidus

Question 80

Question
Which parts of the brain does cortisol have negative feedback on and what effect does this have on the hormones they produce?
Answer
  • Hypothalamic nuclei, decreasing CRH Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH
  • Hypothalamic nuclei, decreasing ACTH Anterior pituitary, decreasing CRH
  • Adrenal cortex, decreasing CRH Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH
  • Anterior Pituitary, decreasing CRH Adrenal Cortex, decreasing ACTH

Question 81

Question
Which of the following are under tropic control?
Answer
  • ADH
  • ACTH
  • Cortisol
  • CRH
  • Insulin

Question 82

Question
Which of the following are actions of cortisol?
Answer
  • Inc. and maintains normal glucose levels in blood
  • Dec. protein synthesis
  • Inc. gluconeogenesis
  • Dec. glucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue
  • Inc. protein synthesis and dec. lipolysis
  • Inc. glucogenolysis
  • Dec. and maintain glucose levels in the blood

Question 83

Question
Which of the following inhibits cortisol synthesis by blocking 11B-hydroxylating enzyme?
Answer
  • Metyrapone
  • Albumin
  • Creatinine
  • Neostigmine
  • Reserpine
  • COMT
  • Glucocorticoids

Question 84

Question
What is the definition of tropic control?
Answer
  • Hormone released in response to stimulation from another hormone
  • Hormone released directly in response to neural stimulation
  • Hormone directly influenced by circulating blood levels of substrate that the hormone itself controls

Question 85

Question
What do sulphonylureas do?
Answer
  • Increase insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)
  • Increase insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing hyperpolarisation)
  • Decrease insulin secretion from A cells by opening K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)
  • Decrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking Na-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)
  • Decrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

Question 86

Question
If there is fertilisation of the egg, what hormone does the ovum secrete?
Answer
  • Human chorionic gonadotrophin
  • Progesterone
  • Oestrogen
  • FSH
  • LH
  • GRH
  • Human chorionic gonadotrophin and oestrogen

Question 87

Question
Which of the following drugs are used to aid fertility?
Answer
  • GRH agonists
  • GRH antagonists
  • Mefipristone
  • Oestrogen and progesterone pill
  • FSH agonists

Question 88

Question
Which of the following innate responses to inflammation occurs 8hrs-6days after injury?
Answer
  • Systemic effects
  • Microvascular events
  • Mediator release
  • Healing
  • Inflammatory cell accumulation

Question 89

Question
What is the purpose of chemotactic factors e.g. C5a, LTB4, Cytokines?
Answer
  • Recruitment of inflammatory cells leading to inflammation
  • Increased vascular permeability
  • Dilation of arterioles increasing blood flow to site
  • Constriction of venules decreasing blood flow away from site
  • Production of oedema

Question 90

Question
Monocytes arrive before leucocytes and transform into macrophages, producing mediators, removing microorganisms/debris and secreting lipocortin
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 91

Question
What do vascular endothelial cells secrete that causes the smooth muscle in the area of inflammation to relax?
Answer
  • NO
  • Noradrenaline
  • Acetylcholine
  • Leukotrienes
  • Eicosanoids
  • PAF

Question 92

Question
NSAIDS preferentially target PGHS1
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 93

Question
What is a short term side effect of glucocorticoid therapy?
Answer
  • Cushing's syndrome
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hypertension

Question 94

Question
Gastric acid secretion is coupled with which histamine receptor?
Answer
  • H1
  • H2
  • H3
  • H4

Question 95

Question
Which of the following is an action that both H3 and H4 receptors share?
Answer
  • Decrease intracellular cAMP
  • Increase intracellular cAMP
  • Activate proton pump
  • Adenyl cyclase coupled
  • Phospholipase C coupled

Question 96

Question
Which of the following are associated with Penicillin's?
Answer
  • Examples include: Ampicillin, Amoxycillin (developed to have an improved duration)
  • Examples include: Ciprofloxacin and Streptogramins
  • Early forms were effective against gram positives and only a few gram negatives
  • Early forms were effective against gram negatives and gram positives
  • Expanded spectrum versions are effective against pseudomonads
  • Reversed spectrum versions have greater activity on gram positives
  • Can exist in B-lactamase resistant forms (Fludoxacillin)
  • Excreted by the kidney in levels that can be reduced by probenecid
  • Excreted in the bile in levels that can be increased by N-acetylglucosamine
  • Inhibit transpeptidases that establish cross links in peptidoglycan from N-acetylmuramic acid causing bacteria to swell and rupture (bacteriocidal)

Question 97

Question
Which of the following are true of sulphonamides?
Answer
  • Selectively targets metabolic pathways: Folate biosynthesis
  • Targets prokaryotic ribosomes and protein synthesis
  • Bacteriocidal
  • The normal substrate the drugs block is PABA
  • Their use is declining outside dentistry
  • Oral administration is given as protected tablets to prevent them being inactivated by gastric juice

Question 98

Question
Which of the following are Tetracyclines?
Answer
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Half life of 30-80 minutes
  • Half life of 6-18 hours
  • Use is declining outside of dentistry
  • Excreted in the kidney and the bile
  • Interrupts the termination phase of protein synthesis in bacterial ribosomes
  • Don't usually enter the CSF (unless meninges inflammation)

Question 99

Question
Which of the following is true of fluoroquinolones?
Answer
  • They are based on naladixic acid
  • Target DNA replication via type II topoisomerases
  • Examples include ciprofloxacin
  • Target protein synthesis
  • Inhibitor of CYP1A2
  • Inhibits DNA gyrase in gram positives and DNA topoisomerase IV in gram negatives
  • Examples include streptogramins and lincosamides

Question 100

Question
Which of the following is true of macrolides?
Answer
  • Streptogramins such as erythromycin are effective for gram positives and spirochaetes but not gram negatives
  • Lincosamides such as clindamycin are effective for gram positive cocci and anaerobes
  • Target 30S ribosomal subunit
  • Block translocation of newly forming peptide by binding to site near RNA exit tunnel causing peptidyl-transferase RNA drop off
  • Administered IV to bypass metabolism in the stomach
  • Administered orally in protected tablets
  • Excreted in the kidneys
  • Crosses the placenta but not the blood brain barrier
  • Do not enter the CSF
  • Metabolised by demethylation (CYP3A4)
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