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Module 1 Set A

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Medicine Quiz on Module 1 Set A, created by Bryan Suringa on 06/11/2020.
Bryan Suringa
Quiz by Bryan Suringa, updated more than 1 year ago
Bryan Suringa
Created by Bryan Suringa over 3 years ago
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Question 1

Question
Which of the following is/are true regarding phase 1 drug metabolism?
Answer
  • Also known as conjugation reaction
  • Includes only oxidation
  • Generally tends to provide a functional group or “handle” to the molecule
  • NOTA

Question 2

Question
Which of the following is/are true regarding phase II drug metabolism?
Answer
  • Allows the attachment of small, polar and ionizable endogenous compounds
  • Allows the termination or attenuation of a biologic activity
  • serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites
  • NOTA

Question 3

Question
Which of the following undergo an oxidative reaction?
Answer
  • Olefins
  • alcohols, aldehydes
  • aromatic moieties
  • nitro and azo compounds

Question 4

Question
Which of the following is/are examples of drugs that are extensively metabolized by the first pass effect?
Answer
  • Lidocaine
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Morphine
  • meperidine

Question 5

Question
Glucuronidation is the most common conjugative pathway in drug metabolism. Which of the following is/are responsible for this?
Answer
  • readily available supply of D-glucuronic acid
  • numerous functional groups that can combine enzymatically with glucuronic acid
  • utilization of D-glucuronic acid to conjugate steroids, heparin, chondroitin, catecholamines and thyroxine
  • AOTA

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is/are factors affecting drug metabolism?
Answer
  • Age
  • economic status
  • species and strain
  • gender

Question 7

Question
Which of the following is/are true regarding methylation?
Answer
  • generally leads to polar or water-soluble metabolites
  • important in the biosynthesis of many endogenous compounds like epinephrine and melatonin
  • constitutes only a minor pathway for conjugating drugs or xenobiotics
  • NOTA

Question 8

Question
Which of the following is/are considered slow acetylators?
Answer
  • eskimos
  • egyptians
  • filipinos
  • jews

Question 9

Question
Which of the following may induce metabolism of other drugs?
Answer
  • phenytoin
  • cimetidine
  • meprobamate
  • rifampicin

Question 10

Question
The term that denotes the selective metabolism of two or more similar functional groups or two or more similar atoms that are positioned in different regions of a molecule.
Answer
  • stereoisomerism
  • regioselectivity
  • selective toxicity
  • substrate stereoselectivity

Question 11

Question
The process involved in the biotransformation of amitriptyline to nortriptyline.
Answer
  • N-demethylation
  • Aromatic hydroxylation
  • Epoxidation
  • Ester hydrolysis

Question 12

Question
The biotransformation of chloral hydrate via aldehyde reduction forms?
Answer
  • desipramine
  • mesoridazine
  • trichloroethanol
  • sulindac

Question 13

Question
What process is involved in the biotransformation of prednisone to prednisolone?
Answer
  • ketone reduction
  • O-demethylation
  • sulfoxide reduction
  • Aromatic hydroxylation

Question 14

Question
What process is involved in the biotransformation of phenylbutazone to oxybutazone?
Answer
  • aromatic hydroxylation
  • ketone reduction
  • N-acetylation
  • S-oxidation

Question 15

Question
Which of the following is/are metabolites?
Answer
  • 6-mercaptopurine
  • phenylbutazone
  • prednisolone
  • acetaminophen

Question 16

Question
Which of the following is/are parent drug/s?
Answer
  • digitoxin
  • hydrocortisone
  • primidone
  • propranolol

Question 17

Question
The property of chemicals to destroy one form of life without harming another.
Answer
  • stereoisomerism
  • regioselectivity
  • selective toxicity
  • substrate stereoselectivity

Question 18

Question
Which of the following may be used to classify chemotherapeutic agents?
Answer
  • chemical type
  • biologic properties
  • therapeutic indications
  • NOTA

Question 19

Question
Which of the following is/are characteristics of an ideal antiseptic?
Answer
  • rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms
  • retain activity in the presence of body fluids
  • high surface tension
  • NOTA

Question 20

Question
An agent that prevents infection by the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms when applied to inanimate objects.
Answer
  • Antiseptic
  • disinfectant
  • antibiotic
  • sanitizer

Question 21

Question
Generally accepted other names of alcohol USP
Answer
  • Ethanol
  • wood alcohol
  • spiritus vini rectificatus
  • wine spirit

Question 22

Question
Ethanol that has been rendered unfit for use in intoxicating beverages by the addition of other substances.
Answer
  • Denatured alcohol
  • wood alcohol
  • isopropyl alcohol
  • formaldehyde

Question 23

Question
Phenol coefficient is defined as the ratio of a disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of a bacterium. What microorganism is used in determining the phenol coefficient?
Answer
  • Bacillus subtilis
  • Enterobacter aerogenes
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Salmonella typhi

Question 24

Question
A 2% solution of iodine in 50% alcohol with sodium iodide.
Answer
  • Iodine solution
  • iodine tincture
  • lugol’s solution
  • mayer’s reagent

Question 25

Question
A preparation of 5% Iodine in water with potassium iodide?
Answer
  • Iodine solution
  • iodine tincture
  • lugol’s solution
  • mayer’s reagent

Question 26

Question
A preparation of 2% iodine in water with sodium iodide?
Answer
  • Iodine solution
  • iodine tincture
  • lugol’s solution
  • mayer’s reagent

Question 27

Question
Povidone-Iodine
Answer
  • Water-soluble complex that releases iodine slowly
  • provides a non-toxic, non-irritating,non-volatile and non-staining form of iodine
  • used as an antiseptic for skin application before surgery and injection
  • NOTA

Question 28

Question
A dye available as vaginal suppositories for the treatment of yeast infections.
Answer
  • Malachite green
  • methylene blue
  • phenolphthalein
  • gentian violet

Question 29

Question
Dye used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning?
Answer
  • Malachite green
  • methylene blue
  • phenolphthalein
  • gentian violet

Question 30

Question
A potent antifungal substance with a polyene structure from Streptomyces nodosus
Answer
  • Nystatin
  • griseofulvin
  • natamycin
  • amphotericin B

Question 31

Question
The aglycone portion of nystatin consisting of a 38-membered ketone ring with a single tetracene and diene chromophores isolated from each other by a methylene group, one carboxyl, one keto, and eight hydroxyl groups.
Answer
  • Mykinac
  • mycostatin
  • nystatinolide
  • candeptin

Question 32

Question
Polyene antibiotic first isolated in 1951 from a strain of Streptomyces noursei by hanzen and brown.
Answer
  • Nystatin
  • amphotericin b
  • natamycin
  • griseofulvin

Question 33

Question
Griseofulvin
Answer
  • Recommended for the systemic treatment of refractory ringworm infections
  • its bioavailability is notoriously poor
  • it is supplied in “microsize” and “ultramicrosize” forms
  • NOTA

Question 34

Question
A series of synthetic antibacterial agents patterned after nalidixic acid, with an effective antibacterial spectrum largely confined to gram-negative bacteria.
Answer
  • quinolones
  • dihydrotriazines
  • biguanides
  • polyenes

Question 35

Question
The structure found among the quinolones which is essential for their antibacterial activity is 1,4-dihydro-4-oxo-3-pyridine carboylic acid.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 36

Question
Its congeners represent important alternatives for the treatment of urinary tract infections caused by strains of Proteus resistant to other agents.
Answer
  • Norfloxacin
  • cinoxacin
  • nitrofurantoin
  • nalidixic acid

Question 37

Question
Antibiotic
Answer
  • A synthetic product produced as a structural analogue of a naturally occurring antibiotic
  • it antagonizes the growth or the survival of one or more species of microorganisms
  • it is effective in low concentration
  • NOTA

Question 38

Question
One who led the isolation of streptomycin from Streptomyces griseus:
Answer
  • Pasteur & Joubert
  • waksman
  • Vuillemin
  • Florey and Chain

Question 39

Question
Antibiotic that binds with ribosome 30s subunit
Answer
  • Chloramphenicol
  • tetracycline
  • erythromycin
  • lincomycins

Question 40

Question
Benzylpenicillin binds preferentially to:
Answer
  • PBP 1a & 1b
  • PBP 2
  • PBP 3
  • PBP 6

Question 41

Question
Methicillin is chemically called as:
Answer
  • 2-ethoxy-1-napthylpenicillin
  • 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin
  • 5-methyl-3-(2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin
  • 2,6-dimethoxyphenyl penicillin

Question 42

Question
Amoxicillin
Answer
  • D-?-Amino-p-hydroxybenzyl-penicillin
  • ?-Carboxy-3-thienyl penicillin
  • ?-(1-methanesulfonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin
  • D-?-aminobenzyl penicillin

Question 43

Question
Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it to contain a fused ring system which is the:
Answer
  • ?-lactam thiazolidine
  • ?-lactam penam
  • 6-aminopenicillanic acid
  • ?-lactam phenyl penicillin ring

Question 44

Question
Members of the 4-isoxazolyl penicillin family require these substituents for effectiveness against ?-lactamase producing Staphylococcus aureus.
Answer
  • 3-aryl & 5-methyl group
  • 3-acyl & 6-methyl group
  • 3-phenyl & 2-methoxy group
  • 3-phenyl & 2-methyl group

Question 45

Question
These are major antigenic determinants that are formed when penicillins or its rearrangement products in vivo react with lysine-e-amino groups of proteins resulting to allergic reactions.
Answer
  • Penicillenic acids
  • penicilloyl proteins
  • penicillanic proteins
  • penicillanic acids

Question 46

Question
This is prepared by the reaction of ampicillin with acetone
Answer
  • Unipen
  • hetacillin
  • unasyn
  • methicillin

Question 47

Question
Class 1 ?-lactamase inhibitors have hetero atom leaving at position 1. Which of these is/are Class II inhibitors: I. Carbapenems II. Sulbactam III. Clavulanic Acid
Answer
  • I only
  • I, II
  • II, III
  • III only

Question 48

Question
Augmentin is a combination of:
Answer
  • K salt of Clavulanic Acid
  • amoxicillin
  • ampicillin
  • sulbactam

Question 49

Question
Unasyn is a fixed-dose combination of:
Answer
  • Amoxicillin
  • sulbactam
  • ampicillin
  • clavulanic

Question 50

Question
Primaxin is a combination of:
Answer
  • Tazocillin
  • imipenem
  • piperacillin
  • cilastatin

Question 51

Question
Imipenem is the most successful of a series of chemically stable derivatives of thienamycin in which the primary amino group is converted to a non-nucleophilic basic function. Imipenem is also:
Answer
  • 5-acetamido thienamycin
  • 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin
  • n-formimidoyl thienamycin
  • ?-imidazolyl ethylamine

Question 52

Question
D-(4-amino-4-carboxybutyl) is:
Answer
  • Penicillin N
  • synnematin B
  • cephalosporin N
  • chloramphenicol B

Question 53

Question
Cephalosporin C contains:
Answer
  • Penicillanic acid
  • thiazolidine ring
  • lactone ring
  • dihydrothiazine ring

Question 54

Question
A parenteral cephamycin
Answer
  • Cefoxitin
  • ceftazidime
  • cephalexin
  • cefadroxil

Question 55

Question
Zinacef is the first of a series of a-methoxyimino-acyl-substituted cephalosporins that constitute most of the third generation agents. Zinacef is:
Answer
  • Sterile cefotaxime Sodium, USP
  • Cefuroxime Sodium, USP
  • Moxalactam Disodium, USP
  • Cefepime, USP

Question 56

Question
The factors that contribute to an extremely long serum half-life of sterile ceftriaxone disodium, USP
Answer
  • High fraction of protein binding in the plasma
  • slow urinary excretion
  • it is not metabolized in vivo
  • NOTA

Question 57

Question
This increases stability to ?-lactamases while increasing activity against G(-) bacteria at the same time in monobactams:
Answer
  • 4-methyl group
  • 3-methoxy group
  • oximinoacyl group
  • 2-aryl group

Question 58

Question
The 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used in chemotherapy:
Answer
  • Amikacin
  • gentamicin
  • streptomycin
  • kanamycin

Question 59

Question
MOA of Aminoglycosides:
Answer
  • Interferes with cell wall synthesis
  • act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis
  • interferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message
  • NOTA

Question 60

Question
Extrachromosomals which are self-replicative and transferable by conjugation that is responsible for the transfer of resistance from one bacterium to another.
Answer
  • R-factor
  • F-factor
  • S-factor
  • X-factor

Question 61

Question
SAR of Aminoglycosides: important for characteristic broad-spectrum antibacterial activity & is the primary target for bacterial inactivating enzymes.
Answer
  • Ring I
  • Ring II
  • Ring III
  • Ring IV

Question 62

Question
Known as Streptomycin B
Answer
  • Streptomycin
  • Mannisidostreptomycin
  • Hydroxystreptomycin
  • Paromomycin Sulfate, USP

Question 63

Question
Acid hydrolysis of Streptomycin yields:
Answer
  • Streptidine
  • Streptobiosamine
  • Deoxystreptamine
  • NOTA

Question 64

Question
Neomycin is obtained from:
Answer
  • S. fradiae
  • S. rimosus
  • S. kanamyceticus
  • Micromonospora purpurea

Question 65

Question
The synthesis of this semisynthetic aminoglycoside involves simple acylation of the 1-amino group of the deoxystreptamine ring of Kanamycin A with L-amino-a-hydroxybutyric acid (L-AHBA)
Answer
  • Tobramycin
  • Netilmicin
  • Amikacin
  • Gentamicin

Question 66

Question
A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of an octahydronaphthalene, a hydrocarbon system that comprises four annelated six-membered rings.
Answer
  • Macrolides
  • tetracycline
  • lincomycins
  • sulfonamides

Question 67

Question
7-Chloro-6-demethyl tetracycline is:
Answer
  • demeclocycline
  • Oxytetracycline
  • minocycline
  • Doxycycline

Question 68

Question
Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics:
Answer
  • Large lactone ring
  • ketone group
  • a glycosidically linked amino sugar
  • an asymmetric carbon atoms in the acylamidopropanediol chain

Question 69

Question
Bacillus subtilis strain that was isolated from debrided tissue of a compound fracture in 7-year old Margaret Tracy produced this antibiotic.
Answer
  • Gramicidin
  • Bacitracin
  • Colistin
  • Polymyxin

Question 70

Question
The first of the widely used broad-spectrum antibiotic that was isolated by Ehrlich in 1947 from S. venezuelae
Answer
  • Clindamycin
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Vancomycin
  • Novobiocin

Question 71

Question
Erythromycin B differs from Erythromycin A only at carbon 12, at which hydroxyl group is replaced by ______, which renders it more acid stable.
Answer
  • Bromine
  • Chlorine
  • Hydrogen
  • Oxygen

Question 72

Question
These are sulfur-containing antibiotics isolated from S. lincolnensis
Answer
  • Bacitracin
  • novobiocin
  • lincomycins
  • vancomycins

Question 73

Question
7-Chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin
Answer
  • Cleocin
  • Unasyn
  • Unipen
  • Lincocin

Question 74

Question
Bacitracin’s bactericidal effect through an inhibition of mucopeptide cell wall synthesis is enhanced by:
Answer
  • P
  • Zn
  • Cl
  • S

Question 75

Question
Analogue of podophyllotoxin that is an inhibitor of Topoisomerase II which contains methyl as its R group:
Answer
  • Vindoline
  • Etoposide
  • Vincristine
  • Epipodophyllotoxin

Question 76

Question
The complex structures in vinca alkaloid composed of indole-containing moiety and an indoline-containing moiety:
Answer
  • Indoline
  • Vindoline
  • Vindesine
  • Catharanthine

Question 77

Question
Is an antineoplastic agent preparation from E. coli containing the enzyme L-asparagine amidohydrolase
Answer
  • Asparaginase
  • Elspar
  • Pipobroman
  • Platinol

Question 78

Question
An antineoplastic drug active against rapidly proliferating cells in the synthesis phase during which it prevents the formation of deoxyribonucleotides by inhibition of ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase.
Answer
  • Carboplatin
  • hydroxyurea
  • mitoguazone
  • hycanthone

Question 79

Question
Used primarily for polycythemia vera:
Answer
  • Hexamethylamine
  • asparaginase
  • tamoxifen
  • pipobroman

Question 80

Question
D-Homo-17a-oxa androsta-1,4-dione prepared by microbial transformation of progesterone
Answer
  • Tamoxifen
  • testolactone
  • megestrol
  • ethinyl estradiol

Question 81

Question
Interferons are secreted by cells in response to viral infections or other chemical or biologic inducers. The major classes of interferons are:
Answer
  • alpha
  • Beta
  • Lambda
  • Gamma

Question 82

Question
It is a highly purified protein containing 165 amino acids manufactured from a strain of E.coli bearing a genetically engineered plasmid containing an interferon alfa-2a gene from human leukocytes.
Answer
  • RIFN
  • IFLrA
  • Roferon-A
  • Interon

Question 83

Question
This is absolutely essential for the in-vitro carbonic anhydrase inhibitory activity and for the production of a diuresis in vivo.
Answer
  • Sulfamoyl group
  • neptazane
  • amino group
  • Imino group

Question 84

Question
Diamox
Answer
  • Acetazolamide
  • Hydrochlorothiazide
  • Amoxicillin
  • Dichlorphenamide

Question 85

Question
Benzothiazine-1,1-dioxide nucleus is contained in:
Answer
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
  • thiazide diuretics
  • loop diuretics
  • phenoxyacetic acids

Question 86

Question
4-Chloro-N-furfuryl-5-sulfamoyl anthranilic acid is:
Answer
  • Bumetanide
  • furosemide
  • ethacrynic acid
  • chlorothiazide

Question 87

Question
Primary compound selected from a host of pteridine analogues and resembles the structure of folic acid and certain dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors.
Answer
  • Spironolactone
  • amiloride
  • theophylline
  • triamterene

Question 88

Question
A pyrazinoyl guanidine diuretic that inhibits the electrogenic entry of 2% to 3% of the filtered load of Na into the tubule cells.
Answer
  • Triamterene
  • spironolactone
  • amiloride
  • aldosterone

Question 89

Question
The major adverse effect of midamor:
Answer
  • hypomagnesemia
  • hyponatremia
  • hypocalcemia
  • hyperkalemia

Question 90

Question
?-imidazolylethylamine, an autacoid, is widespread in nature being found in ergot and other plants and in all organs and tissues of the human body. It’s also known as:
Answer
  • 1H-imidazole-4-ethenamine
  • histamine
  • serotonin
  • NOTA

Question 91

Question
The major source of histamine in the body results from the decarboxylation of this amino acid:
Answer
  • Tryptophan
  • Histidine
  • Tyrosine
  • Phenylalanine

Question 92

Question
Drowsiness is a side effect of antihistamines that is most common to the:
Answer
  • Ethylenediamines
  • tertiary aminoalkyl ethers
  • phenothiazines
  • cimetidine

Question 93

Question
A propylamine derivative:
Answer
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Clemastine
  • Carbinoxamine
  • Brompheniramine

Question 94

Question
Dramamine
Answer
  • Doxylamine
  • Dimenhydrinate
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Cyclizine

Question 95

Question
The piperazine, imidazoline and phenothiazine type antihistamines contain the following moiety:
Answer
  • Aminoalkyl ethers
  • ethylene diamine
  • propylamine
  • butyrophenone

Question 96

Question
Antihistamine resulting from the chlorination of pheniramine in the para position of the phenyl ring that gives a tenfold increase in potency with no appreciable changes in toxicity.
Answer
  • Brompheniramine
  • chlorpheniramine
  • pyrrobutamine
  • promethazine

Question 97

Question
A sulfone derivative investigated initially to be the most effective drug for the treatment of leprosy and has useful antimalarial property but was too toxic.
Answer
  • 4,4’-diamidodiphenylsulfide
  • 4,4’-diaminodiphenylsulfone
  • 3,4’-diaminediphenylsulfide
  • 3,4’-diamidodiphenylsulfone

Question 98

Question
What antibiotic caused a major advance in the treatment of tuberculosis?
Answer
  • Isoniazid
  • ethionamide
  • rifampin
  • cycloserine

Question 99

Question
Ethambutol is remarkably stereospecific. Toxicities of its isomers are about equal but their activity varies considerably. Factors that have pronounced effect on the activity are:
Answer
  • Length of the alkylene chain
  • nature of the branching with the alkyl substituents in the nitrogens
  • extent of N-alkylation
  • pyranolone ring at the C4 of the compound

Question 100

Question
Ethionamide is a second-line treatment drug for tuberculosis and used in the treatment of INH-resistant tuberculosis or when the patient is intolerant to INH and other drugs. What is its structural difference with the INH series?
Answer
  • 5 - substitution
  • 2 - substitution
  • addition of a thiazolidine ring
  • addition of a pyranolone ring
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