Project Management Final

Laura Qualey
Quiz by Laura Qualey, updated more than 1 year ago
Laura Qualey
Created by Laura Qualey over 5 years ago
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Description

Quiz on Project Management Final, created by Laura Qualey on 07/22/2015.

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
You are the Project Manager for a large construction project. While reviewing the expenditures, you realize that you are 20% over budget. What process group are you working in?
Answer
  • Closure
  • Execution
  • Planning
  • Monitor & Control

Question 2

Question
What is the main benefit of a balanced matrix organization over a projectized organizational structure?
Answer
  • As a Project Manager, you have a great deal of authority
  • More efficient use of resources
  • Reporting to a functional manager
  • Reporting to 2 Managers

Question 3

Question
As the Sponsor on a large, multi-national hydroelectric power project, during the execution phase, your primary responsibilities are to:
Answer
  • Provide the financial resources and champion the project
  • Manage a group of interrelated projects
  • Manage the Project Team
  • Provide status updates to the customer

Question 4

Question
Name the 5 project management process groups.
Answer
  • Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Control, Closing
  • Planning, Executing, Monitoring, Integrated Change, Closing
  • Business Case, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Control, Closing

Question 5

Question
You are hired to manage an exciting new project for a software development company making CRM tools. You are unfamiliar with the project management resources available in the company. Who should you go to for help identifying the resources and best practices?
Answer
  • Project Sponsor
  • Operations Manager
  • Other Project Managers
  • Project Management Office

Question 6

Question
As you progress through the project life cycle:
Answer
  • Risk increases and cost of changes increases
  • Cost of changes decreases and risk increases
  • Risk decreases and cost of changes increases
  • Cost of changes decreases and risk decreases

Question 7

Question
The purpose of the Closer Process Group is:
Answer
  • Complete the work as quickly as possible
  • Analyze the project risks at the end of the project
  • Inspect the outputs to ensure the quality is as planned
  • Formally complete the project

Question 8

Question
In the Statement Of Work, you provide:
Answer
  • Project charter
  • Market demand analysis
  • Change control tools you will use
  • Scope description

Question 9

Question
The output of the Develop Project Charter process is:
Answer
  • Project charter
  • Project Management Plan
  • Work performance data
  • Business case

Question 10

Question
According to the PMBOK all the following are types of project constraints except:
Answer
  • Scope
  • Portfolio Alignment
  • Risks
  • Schedule

Question 11

Question
You are the Project Manager for a project that will design and build the iPhone X, the latest in mobile phone technology. The requirements call for a new production facility in Asia. Immediately after working with Senior Management to create a business case and statement of work for the new production facility, what document will you want to produce?
Answer
  • Project document updates
  • Lessons learned
  • Project plan
  • Project charter

Question 12

Question
The ideal Project Team size is?
Answer
  • 10-15
  • 3-6, 6-9

Question 13

Question
Your project has been officially approved by your sponsor, what process group will you move from and which process group will you move to?
Answer
  • Planning to execution
  • Initiation to execution
  • Planning to initiation
  • Initiation to planning

Question 14

Question
All the following are examples of expert judgement except:
Answer
  • PMO
  • Tech manuals
  • PM information system
  • Professional associations

Question 15

Question
In Project Integration Management, as you develop the Project Management Plan, you will:
Answer
  • Direct and manage the planning of work defined in the Project Charter and implement to achieve the project’s objectives
  • Provide the project schedule which is derived from progress against the schedule baseline.
  • Validate plans and changes from Perform Integrated Change Control and ensure that the changes are appropriately executed
  • Define, prepare, and coordinate all subsidiary plans and integrate them into a comprehensive plan.

Question 16

Question
The process group where you will identify if any changes to the plan are needed and initiate those plans is:
Answer
  • Monitoring and control
  • Executing
  • Planning
  • Initiating

Question 17

Question
The organizational structure that gives project managers a very high degree of authority over their project is:
Answer
  • Functional
  • Projectized
  • Weak matrix
  • Strong matrix

Question 18

Question
The largest portion of the projects budget will be expended in what process group?
Answer
  • Planning
  • Execution
  • Closing
  • Monitoring and control

Question 19

Question
All of the following are examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Established communication channels
  • Organizational culture
  • Project management information system
  • Project charter

Question 20

Question
The leader of the project is working on completing a database upgrade but cannot get the additional resources she needs to be able to complete the project. The rest of the project team is working on daily operations work. The leader has not been given the authority to put additional resources on the project. What is the organizational structure this team is working in?
Answer
  • Project team
  • Strong matrix
  • Projectized
  • Functional

Question 21

Question
Portfolio management refers to:
Answer
  • Applying resource-leveling heuristics across all the organization's projects to achieve the organization's strategic objectives.
  • Managing the levels of functional authority to facilitate project decision making.
  • Managing various contents of the project file
  • The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.

Question 22

Question
A project has all of the following characteristics except:
Answer
  • Short duration
  • Unique
  • Temporary endeavor
  • Specific end

Question 23

Question
A program is:
Answer
  • Project over 1$ mill
  • Group of related projects, subprograms & program activities managed in a coordinated way.
  • Sequence of steps constituting a project
  • Group of related tasks lasting one year or less

Question 24

Question
The project manager has the lowest level of authority in this type of organization:
Answer
  • Projectized
  • Weak matrix
  • Strong matrix
  • Functional

Question 25

Question
Project Management Process Groups are:
Answer
  • Genearlly, discrete, one-time events
  • Overlapping activities that occur throughout the project
  • Overlapping activities that generally occur at the same level of intensity within each phase of the project.
  • Discrete, repetative events that occur generally at the same level of intensity throughout each phase of the project.

Question 26

Question
Decomposition is:
Answer
  • Creating subproject to ensure scope
  • Organizing and defining the complete scope
  • Subdividing project scope & deliverables into more manageable components
  • Documents planning assumptions

Question 27

Question
You are exactly half way through a construction project when the customer insists that you add a third entry way. What process will you need to follow to make the updates?
Answer
  • Validate scope
  • Brainstorming
  • Control scope
  • Collect requirements

Question 28

Question
What process group determines how the scope is defined?
Answer
  • Create WBS
  • Control scope
  • Plan scope management
  • Define scope

Question 29

Question
Requirements must be:
Answer
  • A component of change control
  • A validated for conformity as part of the project scope statement
  • An out put of the Validate Scope process
  • Measureable

Question 30

Question
All of the following are tools for collecting requirements EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Focus groups
  • Observations
  • Interviews
  • Quality assurance

Question 31

Question
The process that documents stakeholder needs to meet the projects objectives are:
Answer
  • Decomposition
  • WBS
  • Validate scope
  • Collect requirements

Question 32

Question
Acceptance Criteria is:
Answer
  • Part of the lessons learned
  • Unique & verifiable product, result or capability for a product
  • A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
  • Given by the PMO

Question 33

Question
The project scope statement is:
Answer
  • Determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements.
  • Set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
  • The features and functions that characterize a project.
  • Description of the project, major deliverables, assumptions and constraints

Question 34

Question
The WBS is:
Answer
  • Project schedule components organized by work package
  • Work breakdown system
  • Project document updates
  • a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team

Question 35

Question
The lowest level of WBS components are:
Answer
  • Quality requirements
  • Acceptance criteria
  • WBS dictionary
  • Work packages

Question 36

Question
The project scope statement includes all of the following except:
Answer
  • Scope baseline
  • Scope description
  • Deliverable
  • Acceptance criteria

Question 37

Question
One of the outputs for the validate scope process is:
Answer
  • Acceptance criteria
  • Resources required
  • Description of work
  • Accepted deliverables

Question 38

Question
Which of the following provides more detailed information?
Answer
  • Scope statement
  • Scope baseline
  • WBS
  • WBS dictionary

Question 39

Question
You are the leader of the Project Management Office for your company. One day, an experienced Project Manager asks why he should go to the trouble of creating a Work Breakdown Structure for his new project. The best answer would be:
Answer
  • It is optional
  • It is a legal requirement for external projects
  • It will help you organize project deliverables & work
  • It helps to verify project quality

Question 40

Question
What is the purpose of the validate scope process?
Answer
  • Collect requirements for the project
  • Make needed changes to the project charter
  • Acceptance of the project deliverables
  • Create WBS

Question 41

Question
Create WBS is in which process group?
Answer
  • Execution
  • Monitoring & control
  • Initiation
  • Planning

Question 42

Question
Gold plating is:
Answer
  • Decreasing risk by providing project safeguards
  • Changing requirements to improve the project
  • Giving a customer more than they want
  • Taking features away to keep costs down

Question 43

Question
Project scope is:
Answer
  • Making sure there is no gold plating in the project
  • The value created by completing a project under budget and on schedule
  • Determining, documenting & managing stakeholder needs and requirements
  • Work performed to deliver a product, service or results with specified features and functions

Question 44

Question
What is the WBS typically used for?
Answer
  • Defines the stakeholder list
  • Identifies the logical person to be the sponsor
  • Defines the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer
  • Organizes & defines the work elements required to create the required deliverables

Question 45

Question
Which of the following processes is not an output of the control scope process?
Answer
  • Work performance information
  • Change requests
  • Project document updates
  • Accepted deliverables

Question 46

Question
You are managing a global project that involves stakeholders and several international locations. You are likely to consult the WBS dictionary to find:
Answer
  • Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of key stakeholders and their impact upon the WBS.
  • Detail deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the WBS.
  • Accepted deliverables
  • High level task information for the schedule management plan

Question 47

Question
The following is an example of a constraint associated with the project scope that limits the team's options and scope definition:
Answer
  • Threat of a strike
  • Quality of analysis
  • Predefined budget or any imposed dates/schedule milestones that are issued by the customer or performing organization.
  • Existing relationships with sellers, suppliers, or others in the supply chain

Question 48

Question
An output of the define scope process is:
Answer
  • WBS
  • Scope & schedule delays control plan
  • Project scope statement
  • Resource breakdown structure

Question 49

Question
The difference between the Project Charter and the Project Scope Statement is:
Answer
  • The Project Scope Statement lists high level technical requirements and regulatory constraints.
  • The Project Scope Statement provides a high level description of scope elements.
  • The Project Charter provides a high level description of scope elements.
  • The Project Charter lists project deliverables in smaller, more manageable components.

Question 50

Question
Control scope:
Answer
  • Updates the WBS dictionary to ensure all tasks are accounted for
  • Ensures risks are mitigated
  • Plans how to determine scope
  • Manages changes to the scope baseline

Question 51

Question
Plan schedule management is:
Answer
  • Identifying and documenting logical relationships among project activities.
  • Analyzing activity sequences to create the project schedule baseline.
  • Monitoring the status of project activities to ensure they are performing to expected specifications in regards to project constraints.
  • Establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule.

Question 52

Question
The duration of a milestone is:
Answer
  • 0 days
  • 1 days
  • 10 days

Question 53

Question
What is the best tool for determining the overall length of a project?
Answer
  • WBS
  • Precedence diagram
  • Expert judgement
  • Pie chart

Question 54

Question
The critical path is:
Answer
  • The shortest sequence duration
  • The sequence of activities that are determined to be key activities for successful project execution
  • The path with the highest number of activities
  • The shortest amount of time you can get the project done in

Question 55

Question
The maximum amount of slack in the critical path is:
Answer
  • +1
  • -1
  • 0

Question 56

Question
The Critical Path has a duration of 10. There is an independent sequence, XYZ. Activity X has a duration of 2. Activity Y has a duration of 3. Activity Z has duration of 2. The EAC is 4000. The total float of XYZ is:
Answer
  • 0
  • 3

Question 57

Question
To complete your project on time, you ask for additional overtime for your project team. This is an example of:
Answer
  • Fast tracking
  • Crashing
  • Critical chain
  • Schedule network analysis

Question 58

Question
Lag is:
Answer
  • The time an activity will start sooner than its dependency
  • Determined by the critical chain
  • The time when an activity is dependent on another activity to start at the same time
  • The time an activity will start later than its dependency

Question 59

Question
You ask your construction manager how long it will take to complete the new server room. He gives you a likely estimate of 6 weeks, but says it may take as long as 10 weeks. He may be able to get it done in 4 weeks if everything goes well. Calculate your PERT estimate of how long it will take to complete the server room.
Answer
  • 20 weeks
  • 6.3 weeks
  • 6 weeks
  • 4.6 weeks

Question 60

Question
The method where buffers are added to each activity to account for resource availability is:
Answer
  • Critical path
  • Resource leveling
  • Critical chain
  • Crashing

Question 61

Question
A benefit of bottom-up estimating is:
Answer
  • Determines resources need to schedule the project
  • Ability to automate your estimate
  • Allows for what-if analysis
  • A more accurate estimate

Question 62

Question
One of the outputs of the Develop Schedule process group that helps create the Project Management plan is:
Answer
  • Sequence activities
  • Work package acceptance criteria
  • Schedule baseline
  • Scope baseline

Question 63

Question
The minimum project duration is 6 months. Another path, series ABCD, will take 4 months to complete. In addition, series EFG will take 2 months. How much float is in ABCD?
Answer
  • 4 months
  • 0 months
  • 2 months
  • 12 months

Question 64

Question
Which of the following allows you to accomplish tasks in parallel when they normally would be done in sequence?
Answer
  • Fast tracking
  • Critical chain
  • Resource leveling
  • Crashing

Question 65

Question
Analogous estimating is a technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or project using historical data from a similar activity or project. What is the disadvantage of this technique?
Answer
  • More costly
  • Takes more time
  • Requires using PERT
  • Less accurate

Question 66

Question
Your project will run through the summer when your employees generally take vacation. To account for the risk of lower resource availability in your project plan, you could use:
Answer
  • Critical chain
  • Crashing
  • Resource leveling
  • Fast tracking

Question 67

Question
You need Activity A in your project plan to start 3 days before Activity B. Activity B would be called:
Answer
  • Lag
  • Lead
  • Critical chain

Question 68

Question
You are creating the Schedule Baseline for a multi-national government pipeline project that will deliver oil faster and cheaper. You need to know how long it will take to build the new capacity. Who would you consult to determine the time required?
Answer
  • Government experts
  • Project sponsor
  • Scrum master
  • The people that will be doing the work

Question 69

Question
An example of a finish to finish relationship is:
Answer
  • Rocket fuel tanks that must be filled prior to launch
  • A dinner cruise that sells tickets up until departure
  • Dinner when all of the food is ready at the same time
  • Drag racing

Question 70

Question
Parametric estimating:
Answer
  • Accounts for risk
  • Is where an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data
  • Focuses on planning at a daily activity level

Question 71

Question
In rolling wave planning:
Answer
  • Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out as part of the ongoing wave of activities.
  • The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, the work in the more distant future is planned at a higher level.

Question 72

Question
Analogous duration estimating is:
Answer
  • Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project
  • A bottom up estimating technique
  • Based on multiple duration estimating
  • Generally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgement is used

Question 73

Question
To enter logical dependencies in MS project you enter the dependency in which column:
Answer
  • Predecessor
  • Resource
  • Linkages
  • Critical chain

Question 74

Question
Outputs from the Estimate Activity Resources process include:
Answer
  • Activity resource requirements
  • Salary schedules for various project human resources
  • Risk register
  • Activity list

Question 75

Question
An example of a mandatory dependency is:
Answer
  • A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area
  • A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired
  • On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been built.
  • On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all project requirements.

Question 76

Question
Earned Value is:
Answer
  • Actual cost of work scheduled
  • AC / % Complete
  • Measure of work expressed in terms of budget authorized for that work

Question 77

Question
A SPI is 1.4 - your project is?
Answer
  • Ahead of schedule
  • Over budget
  • Under budget

Question 78

Question
You are 1 month into your project. You need to determine how much your project will cost when it is done. What Earned Value metric will you use to determine the cost?
Answer
  • BAC
  • EAC

Question 79

Question
Project XYZ has a Schedule Variance of -500. That means that:
Answer
  • The SPI is 500
  • Your project is behind schedule

Question 80

Question
Your EAC is 4000. The PV is 1000. The AC is 400. What is the ETC?
Answer
  • -10
  • 10
  • 2600
  • 3600

Question 81

Question
All of the following are processes included in Project Cost Management except:
Answer
  • Determine budget
  • Estimate activity resources
  • Estimate costs
  • Control costs

Question 82

Question
Planned value is:
Answer
  • Actual cost of work
  • Realized cost of work
  • Authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work
  • Difference btwn earned value and actual cost

Question 83

Question
If the earned value is 40,000, the planned value is 50,000, and the actual cost is 45,000, what is the cost performance index?
Answer
  • 1.13
  • .88
  • 1.27

Question 84

Question
In class, we discussed that in Initiation, a Rough Order of Magnitude estimate should be within what percent?
Answer
  • + - 25%
  • + - 3%
  • + - 50%

Question 85

Question
Your project is behind schedule and over budget. When calculating the project’s CPI, you will get:
Answer
  • number greater than 1
  • number less than 1

Question 86

Question
What metric will show how efficiently the project team is using time?
Answer
  • PV
  • SPI
  • CPI
  • SV

Question 87

Question
The output of the determine budget process is:
Answer
  • Schedule
  • Cost forecasts
  • Cost management plan
  • Cost baseline

Question 88

Question
During a project, earned value analysis is performed. You get the following numbers: EV = 50,000 PV = 60,000 AC = 75,000 What are the correct results?
Answer
  • CV = -25000 SV = -10000
  • CV 10000 SV= -15000

Question 89

Question
There are 4 activities in your project. Activity A has a planned value of 20,000. Activity B has a planned value of 30,000. Activity C has a planned value of 10,000. Activity D has a planned value of 40,000. What is the BAC?
Answer
  • 25000
  • 37000
  • 12500
  • 100000

Question 90

Question
Determine the variance at completion with the following information: SV = -50,000 Estimate at completion = 100,000 Budget at completion = 200,000
Answer
  • 50000
  • 10000
  • 2
  • 1.5

Question 91

Question
Direct costs are:
Answer
  • Directly related to the project and can be controlled
  • Included in overhead costs
  • Excluded from the project budget
  • Part of activity cost estimates

Question 92

Question
Which of the following processes do not belong to the Project Cost Management process group?
Answer
  • Plan cost management
  • Control cost
  • Determine budget
  • Contingency reserve

Question 93

Question
Cost estimation of individual work packages or activities is called:
Answer
  • Bottom-up estimating
  • Analogous estimating
  • Three point estimation
  • Expert judgement

Question 94

Question
The output of determine budget is:
Answer
  • Cost management plan
  • Activity cost estimate
  • Cost baseline

Question 95

Question
The earned value calculations for your project are: BAC = 10,000 EAC = 5,000 ETC = 4,000 What is the VAC and will you be over or under budget?
Answer
  • 6000 and over budget
  • 5000 and over budget
  • 1000 and over budget
  • 6000 and under budget

Question 96

Question
Parametric estimating involves:
Answer
  • Defining cost or duration parameters of the project lifecycle
  • Calculating the individual cost estimates or each work package & integrating them to obtain the total cost of the project
  • Using statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables to calculate a cost estimate for project work

Question 97

Question
The EAC is based on:
Answer
  • The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC) and the estimate to complete (ETC) the remaining work
  • The EV and the actual cost for work completed CV
  • The cost performance index (CPI) and the cost of variance (CV).

Question 98

Question
Earned value management (EVM) is a commonly used:
Answer
  • Analysis of the value of the equipment that has been installed in the project as of the status to date.
  • Analysis of the sum of the labor costs, which have been incurred on the project to date.
  • Method to assess performance management and progress for projects.
  • Method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent on the project to date.

Question 99

Question
You're earned value management analysis indicates that your project is falling behind its baseline schedule. You know this because the cumulative EV is much:
Answer
  • Higher than the AC
  • Higher than the PV
  • Lower than the PV
  • Lower than the CPI

Question 100

Question
Item PV AC EV 1 10,000 11,000 10,000 2 9,000 8,000 7,000 3 8,000 8,000 8,000 4 7,000 7,000 5,000
Answer
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4

Question 101

Question
Plan quality management is:
Answer
  • Process of identifying quality requirements
  • Planning the cost of precision measurement
  • Identifying project grade
  • Auditing the quality requirements and results

Question 102

Question
What would be the least effective tool or method to reduce quality cost?
Answer
  • Statistical sampling
  • Inspection
  • Nominal group technique
  • Control charts

Question 103

Question
Quality is:
Answer
  • Measure of exactness
  • Assessment of correctness
  • Degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements

Question 104

Question
The 3 quality processes in project quality management are:
Answer
  • Determine quality, monitor quality, plan quality
  • Cost benefit analysis, cost of quality, cost of conformance
  • Plan quality management, control quality, perform quality assurance

Question 105

Question
The Ishikawa Diagram tool is used to:
Answer
  • Gather info on the frequency of poor quality
  • Help identify the actionable root cause of the problem
  • Describe the central tendency of a process
  • Show if a process is stable and predictable

Question 106

Question
Grade is:
Answer
  • Measure of exactness
  • Measure of correctness
  • Categorization of deliverables having the same functional use but different technical characteristics

Question 107

Question
The cost of quality includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Prevention costs
  • Returns
  • Raw materials
  • Customer service

Question 108

Question
The quality management plan is an output of which process:
Answer
  • Project quality management
  • Plan quality management
  • Control quality

Question 109

Question
Increased prevention costs should result in:
Answer
  • Increased frequency of external failures
  • High internal failure costs
  • Decreased internal and external failure costs

Question 110

Question
Pareto diagrams:
Answer
  • Are used to gather attributes data while performing inspections
  • Identify the vital few sources that are responsible for causing the most problems
  • Are used to monitor cost and schedule variances

Question 111

Question
Perform quality assurance is:
Answer
  • The processes and activities that will determine quality policies, objectives & responsibilities
  • Auditing the quality requirements and results from quality control measurements
  • Process of determining project grade

Question 112

Question
Scatter diagrams:
Answer
  • Show forces for and against change
  • Map operational details of procedures
  • Seek to explain changes in variable Y in relation to changes in X

Question 113

Question
A project manager can use a control chart to determine:
Answer
  • The central distribution of a statistical distribution
  • If the amount of prevention costs are increasing
  • If a process is stable or predictable

Question 114

Question
The results of performing the control quality process are:
Answer
  • Decreased costs
  • Stable processes
  • Verified deliverables

Question 115

Question
An example of appraisal costs is:
Answer
  • Rework
  • Warranties
  • Training
  • Inspections

Question 116

Question
The perform quality assurance process is in:
Answer
  • Execution
  • Planning
  • Monitor & Control

Question 117

Question
Checksheets are:
Answer
  • Used to organize facts in a manner that will facilitate the effective collection of useful data about a potential quality problem
  • Used to monitor cost & schedule variances
  • Used to describe the central tendency, dispersion, and the shape of the distribution

Question 118

Question
Degree of quality should be:
Answer
  • Inspected in
  • Planned in
  • SWOT

Question 119

Question
Control Quality is:
Answer
  • Comparing the cost of quality to the requirements
  • Achieving project objectives of scope, time & cost
  • Process of monitoring & recording results of quality activities to asses project performance

Question 120

Question
Understanding, evaluating, defining & managing requirements are essential to satisfying:
Answer
  • Customer expectations
  • The scope statement
  • Upper management
  • Functional requirements

Question 121

Question
The quality management plan is a component of the ________________ that describes how the organization's quality policies will be implemented.
Answer
  • WBS
  • Project scope
  • Project management plan

Question 122

Question
The seven basic quality tools include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Calibration graphs
  • Pareto diagrams
  • Control charts

Question 123

Question
Inspection is:
Answer
  • Examination of a work product to determine if it conforms to documented standards
  • Documenting results of control quality activities
  • A validated deliverable required by the project

Question 124

Question
Which of the following is true regarding precision and accuracy?
Answer
  • Precision is a measure of correctness whereas accuracy is an assessment of exactness
  • Precision is a measure of exactness, whereas accuracy is an assessment of correctness.

Question 125

Question
Project Human Resource Management includes the following processes:
Answer
  • Acquire project team, develop project team, HR management plan, performance assessments
  • Plan HR team, manage project team, evaluate project team, identify project roles
  • Plan HR management, acquire project team, develop project team, project team

Question 126

Question
The human resource management plan is an output of which process:
Answer
  • Acquire project team
  • Plan HR management
  • Develop project team
  • Manage project team

Question 127

Question
The best illustrate for your project teams reporting relationships you would use:
Answer
  • Matrix chart
  • RACI chart
  • A hierarchical chart

Question 128

Question
Which of the following is NOT one of toucans 5 stages of team development?
Answer
  • Norming
  • Storming
  • Adjourning
  • Developing

Question 129

Question
There is a critical disagreement between two of your project team members. You need to help them resolve the issue. To help them find a solution that is a win for both sides, you would use which technique for resolving conflict?
Answer
  • Force
  • Withdraw
  • Collaborate
  • Smooth

Question 130

Question
RACI stands for?
Answer
  • Rational Accountable Creative Informed
  • Responsible Actionable Creative Independent
  • Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed

Question 131

Question
The project manager:
Answer
  • Performs the work of the project
  • The person assigned to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives
  • The person who provides the resources and support for the project

Question 132

Question
A member of your team has broken one of the agreed upon ground rules, who should enforce the rule?
Answer
  • PMO
  • Project Manager
  • All project team members
  • Sponsor

Question 133

Question
The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholder’s needs, requirements, and available organizational assets is:
Answer
  • Control communications
  • Plan communications management
  • Manage communications
  • Develop communications plan

Question 134

Question
In addition to distributing information, the Manage Communications process is also concerned with:
Answer
  • Making sure the information has been received and understood
  • Creating the project communications plan
  • Planning the correct channel to use to distribute the information

Question 135

Question
For your new project, you need to produce a simple status update for your Sponsor. What information would you not want to include?
Answer
  • Lessons learned
  • Current status
  • Risks

Question 136

Question
As a Project Manager in a matrix environment, you do not have direct authority over your project team. However, your team likes you and enjoys working for you. You are relying on what type of influence?
Answer
  • Formal
  • Referent
  • Expert
  • Reward

Question 137

Question
What topic would likely be covered in the kick off meeting?
Answer
  • Procurement plan
  • Lessons learned
  • Performance evaluations
  • Roles and responsibilities

Question 138

Question
Mid-way through a project, your sponsor comes to you and asks for a monthly project status report to be produced that will help the executive team understand the progress being made on the project. What process are you in now?
Answer
  • Plan communications management
  • Control communications
  • Communication models
  • Manage communications

Question 139

Question
You have a virtual team working on your project. What is a disadvantage of having a team that is not all located in the same place?
Answer
  • Cannot have kick off meetings
  • Opportunity for misunderstandings
  • Easy conflict resolution

Question 140

Question
The PMO:
Answer
  • Is a person/group that provides resources/support
  • Standardizes the project related governance
  • Is a collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables

Question 141

Question
Your project team is beginning to work together and adjust their habits to support the team. They are beginning to trust each other more. What development stage is your team in?
Answer
  • Forming
  • Withdraw
  • Forcing
  • Norming

Question 142

Question
You are creating a weekly status update, what process are you in?
Answer
  • Develop project team
  • Control communications
  • Manage communications
  • Plan communications management

Question 143

Question
Your project team is well organized, interdependent and handles issues effectively. What stage are they in?
Answer
  • Developing
  • Norming
  • Performing

Question 144

Question
The HRMP should generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Staffing management plan
  • Project interfaces
  • Roles & responsibilities
  • Project organization charts

Question 145

Question
Techniques and considerations for effective communications management generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Employing organizational process assets to reduce risk
  • Facilitation techniques for building consensus
  • Listening techniques

Question 146

Question
The acquisitions strategy for acquiring a project team consists of:
Answer
  • Hiring consultants from the outside
  • Obtaining resources through ranking criteria
  • Acquiring members of the team from other teams within the organization

Question 147

Question
The Acquire Project Team is the process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities. The enterprise environmental factors that can influence this process generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Organizational structure
  • Multi-criteria decision analysis
  • Competency levels, prior experience & cost rate.

Question 148

Question
Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict include:
Answer
  • Accept, compromise, attack & separate
  • Smooth compromise collaborate co-locate
  • Accommodate compromise force & collaborate

Question 149

Question
Project risk is:
Answer
  • A condition that causes negative impact to the project
  • A threat to the success of the project
  • An uncertain event that if it occurs has a positive or negative effect

Question 150

Question
The strategy to address opportunities and seek to ensure the opportunity happens is:
Answer
  • Avoid
  • Enhance
  • Exploit

Question 151

Question
The risk register is an output of which project risk management process?
Answer
  • Performing qualitative risk analysis
  • Perform quantitative risk analysis
  • Plan risk management
  • Identify risks

Question 152

Question
The following process is in monitoring & control:
Answer
  • Plan risk management
  • Control risks
  • Perform quant risk analysis

Question 153

Question
Relies on anonymous feedback from experts through questionnaires and drives toward consensus
Answer
  • Root cause analysis
  • Probability impact matrix
  • Delphi technique
  • Risk register

Question 154

Question
The risk register should include:
Answer
  • Identified risks & WBS number
  • Identified risks & potential responses
  • Risk categorization & identified risks
  • Identified risk & risk analysis

Question 155

Question
Is used to determine the risk rating to help prioritize risks:
Answer
  • Risk categorization
  • Risk register
  • Expected monetary value analysis
  • Probability & impact matrix

Question 156

Question
Helps compare the relative importance & impact of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable:
Answer
  • Expected monetary analysis
  • Tornado diagram
  • Decision tree
  • Monte carlo technique

Question 157

Question
Uses a computer to produce many simulations using random sampling to obtain probable results distribution:
Answer
  • Expected monetary analysis
  • Monte Carlo technique
  • Decision tree diagram
  • Sensitivity analysis

Question 158

Question
You are building a skyscraper in New York City. If the project falls behind schedule, you will lose millions of dollars in fees to the city. You want to shift the financial burden of the threat of fees to a third party. What strategy should you use?
Answer
  • Mitigate
  • Avoid
  • Exploit
  • Transfer

Question 159

Question
Your software project is given very good press in The Wall Street Journal. You want to make sure the chances for success are increased so you add more resources to the project. What strategy are you using?
Answer
  • Share
  • Accept
  • Transfer
  • Enhance

Question 160

Question
Qualitative risk analysis deals with:
Answer
  • Developing options for risk responses
  • Numerically analyzing the effect of risks
  • Prioritizing risks
  • Monitoring residual risks

Question 161

Question
Using Expected Monetary Value Analysis, calculate the average outcome for a project that has either a $300,000 profit and 30% chance of achieving it, or a $100,000 loss and 70% chance of having that happen.
Answer
  • 160,000
  • 20,000
  • 400,000
  • 90,000

Question 162

Question
Process of determining options to reduce threats and enhance opportunities:
Answer
  • Identify risks
  • Control risks
  • Plan risk response
  • Perform qualitative risk analysis

Question 163

Question
Your Risk Register calls out several risks, including not having enough resources available to complete the software in time to ship it. You check in weekly with the developers to make sure the software will be completed in time. What process are you in?
Answer
  • Plan risk management
  • Control risks
  • Plan risk response
  • Identify risks

Question 164

Question
When using the Delphi technique, you should:
Answer
  • Have a unanimous decision
  • Encourage brainstorming
  • Not share the responses through the entire process
  • Make sure the participants are experts

Question 165

Question
In the plan risk responses process, an accept strategy for a negative risk or threat indicates that the project team has decided:
Answer
  • To agree with the PM
  • To eliminate a specific threat or risk
  • Not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy

Question 166

Question
As an update of the control risks process, an updated risk register generally includes some or all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • The WBS
  • Actual outcomes of the projects risks
  • Outcomes of risk reassessments

Question 167

Question
To be successful, an organization should be committed to addressing risk management:
Answer
  • Proactively throughout the entire project
  • As soon as time & cost estimates are ready
  • As early as possible in the execution phase

Question 168

Question
The primary output of the identify risks process is the:
Answer
  • Risk register
  • Risk mitigation plan
  • List of the corrective actions

Question 169

Question
The mitigate risk response strategy:
Answer
  • Reduces the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat
  • Seeks to make sure the risk negative response happens
  • Seeks to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact

Question 170

Question
The probability and impact risk assessment thresholds:
Answer
  • Show quantitative risk results for the project
  • Are determined by the # of threats
  • Are unique for each organization

Question 171

Question
Sensitivity analysis helps determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. How is that info shown?
Answer
  • Probability and impact matrix
  • Cost/probability chart
  • Tornado diagram

Question 172

Question
Expected monetary value (EMV) analysis has all of the following characteristics except:
Answer
  • It is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.
  • The EMV of opportunities are generally expressed as positive values, whereas those of threats are expressed as negative values.
  • EMV analysis cannot be used effectively in decision tree analysis unless a risk-averse assumption is made.

Question 173

Question
An output of perform qualitative risk analysis is:
Answer
  • Project documents updates
  • Risk management plan
  • Risk register
  • Meetings

Question 174

Question
Identify stakeholders is a part of which process group?
Answer
  • Initiation
  • Execution
  • Planning

Question 175

Question
You are evaluating various bids to determine which vendor you will purchase your building materials from. What process are you in?
Answer
  • Plan procurement management
  • Conduct procurements
  • Planning

Question 176

Question
You are a Project Manager constructing a large building to store your company’s work vehicles. You know exactly what you want built. It will only take 3 weeks to build. In this case, what type of contract would you want to use?
Answer
  • Hybrid
  • Time & material
  • Fixed price
  • Cost reimbursable

Question 177

Question
You a working on a project that will augment the staff in grade schools by providing temporary substitute teachers for the school district. To account for fixed overhead costs and hourly wages, the best contract type would be:
Answer
  • Fixed cost
  • Cost reimbursable
  • Time & material

Question 178

Question
The stakeholder register is an output of which process?
Answer
  • Stakeholder analysis
  • Plan stakeholder management
  • Manage stakeholder engagement
  • Identify stakeholders

Question 179

Question
In the Power/Interest stakeholder grid, which quadrant should you spend the most time on and provide the most attention?
Answer
  • Low p low I
  • High p low I
  • High p high I

Question 180

Question
The stake holder register should contain at least the following:
Answer
  • Identification information, risk analysis, assessment matrix
  • Stakeholder engagement data flow diagram, risk analysis, assessment matrix
  • Identification information, assessment information, stakeholder classification
  • Stakeholder management plan, stakeholder classification, risk analysis

Question 181

Question
Lessons learned:
Answer
  • Collects project performance data
  • Shows how events were addressed or should be addressed in the future with the purpose of improving future performance
  • An event to plan organize and direct work

Question 182

Question
If a contract has an incentive fee, financial incentives are dependent on:
Answer
  • Inflation
  • Legal penalties
  • Agreed upon metrics

Question 183

Question
During closing, you should hand off the project to:
Answer
  • PMO
  • Exec Sponsor
  • End User
  • The group that will own or be responsible on a daily basis

Question 184

Question
In the agile framework, individuals and interactions are valued more than:
Answer
  • Deliverables
  • Methodology
  • Processes & tools

Question 185

Question
You are a Project Manager for Apple and your latest project is developing the new iPhone 6Z. You need to build a solar battery that will enable the phone to go without charging for 2 weeks at a time. Critical to this project is the new chip design that requires a special assembly line to produce. This new assembly line is not a core competency of Apple. You need to decide what type of contract will work best to acquire the new chip. What procurement process are you in?
Answer
  • Conduct procurements
  • Identify stakeholders
  • Plan procurement management

Question 186

Question
Which type of contract is the riskiest for a contractor?
Answer
  • Cost plus fee
  • Time & materials
  • Firm fixed price

Question 187

Question
The output of the conduct procurements process is:
Answer
  • Procurement management plan
  • Closed procurements
  • Signed contract agreement
  • Work performance info

Question 188

Question
Your project Sponsor is actively engaged in your project and understands the benefits and impacts. How would you classify the Sponsor as a stakeholder?
Answer
  • Resistant
  • Expert
  • Leading

Question 189

Question
During the Closing process, you should do all of the following except
Answer
  • Conduct lessons learned
  • Gain approval to close
  • Classify stakeholders

Question 190

Question
Enterprise environ factors are:
Answer
  • Outputs
  • Project management systems
  • Conditions that influence or constrain

Question 191

Question
Who represents the customer in SCRUM?
Answer
  • PM
  • PT
  • Product Owner
  • Scrum master

Question 192

Question
Procurement is:
Answer
  • Acquiring goods & services
  • Reviewing contracts
  • Obtaining the resources you need for the project

Question 193

Question
The best measure for progress in agile is:
Answer
  • Design
  • Working software
  • Technical excellence

Question 194

Question
Cost plus fixed fee contracts (CPFF) have all of the following characteristics except:
Answer
  • Seller receives a fixed-fee payment calculated as the initial estimated project cost.
  • The fee is paid only for completed work and does not change due to seller performance unless the project scope changes.

Question 195

Question
You are involved in the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle. This is known as:
Answer
  • Plan stakeholder management
  • Communicate with stakeholders
  • Control stakeholders
  • Manage stakeholder engagement

Question 196

Question
Manage Stakeholder Engagement involves all of the following activities except:
Answer
  • Managing stakeholder expectations through negotiation and communication
  • Avoiding potential concern that have not yet become issues
  • Anticipating future problems
  • Clarifying & resolving identified issues

Question 197

Question
Control Stakeholder Engagement tools and techniques include all of the following except:
Answer
  • Behavior modification analysis
  • Expert judgement
  • Meetings
  • Information management systems

Question 198

Question
Outputs from the Close Procurements Process generally include all of the following except:
Answer
  • Deliverable acceptance
  • Closed procurements
  • Lessons learned
  • The contractors working proposal
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