Psychology final exam

Pat Dunn
Quiz by Pat Dunn, updated more than 1 year ago
Pat Dunn
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Quiz on Psychology final exam, created by Pat Dunn on 11-08-2015.

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
According to research findings, the most probable explanation of malingering is captured by:
Answer
  • a pathogenic model
  • a criminological model
  • an adaptational model
  • an antisocial model

Question 2

Question
In general, how accurate do people tend to be when using verbal and non-verbal behaviour to detect deception (where a value of 100% indicates that they can accurately discriminate between truthful people and deceptive people all of the time)?
Answer
  • under 10%
  • between 25% and 35%
  • between 45% and 65%
  • around 25%

Question 3

Question
Which nonverbal cue has consistently been found to indicate deception?
Answer
  • smiling
  • gaze aversion
  • self-manipulations (e.g., fidgeting)
  • none of the above

Question 4

Question
Which of the following techniques has not been proposed as a method of detecting deception?
Answer
  • ERPs
  • fMRI
  • polygraph
  • TAT

Question 5

Question
A patient who actually has schizophrenia denies his auditory hallucinations when questioned by doctors. This patient is likely exhibiting:
Answer
  • defensiveness
  • Munchausen syndrome by proxy
  • factitious disorder
  • somatoform disorder

Question 6

Question
Which verbal indicator has been most strongly associated with deception?
Answer
  • speech fillers
  • voice pitch
  • speech pauses
  • speech errors (e.g., slips of the tongue)

Question 7

Question
A Polygraph test may be used to:
Answer
  • Verify a crime has occurred (victim is asked to take a polygraph test, which is rarely done)
  • Screen pre-employment candidates for security agencies and police
  • Verify insurance claims
  • all of the above

Question 8

Question
"During the first 20 years of your life, did you ever think of seriously hurting someone?" This is an example of what type of polygraph question?
Answer
  • a relevant question
  • an irrelevant question
  • a concealed information question
  • a comparison question

Question 9

Question
Which of the following is true of the polygraph?
Answer
  • Polygraph results are regularly admitted as evidence in Canadian courts.
  • The most common polygraph method used currently is the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
  • The polygraph directly measures whether a person is lying.
  • Research indicates that physical countermeasures are largely ineffective in "beating" the polygraph.

Question 10

Question
Most polygraph examiners using the Comparison Question Test (CQT) score according to the:
Answer
  • suspect's demeanour during the test
  • information from the case file
  • physiological responses
  • suspect's past criminal record

Question 11

Question
When using brain-based polygraph techniques, what does ERP stand for?
Answer
  • emotional response pattern
  • event response pattern
  • event-related brain potential
  • emotional-related brain potential

Question 12

Question
You have been falsely accused of stealing a laptop computer from a professor's office. The police have requested that you take a polygraph test to prove your innocence. In light of your knowledge of the types of errors most likely to be made by different types of polygraph exams, you agree to do so only if the examiner uses the:
Answer
  • comparison question test
  • relevant/irrelevant test
  • zone of comparison format of scoring
  • concealed information test

Question 13

Question
Several types of studies may be used to validate polygraph techniques. Which type of study would likely involve a comparison of the accuracy between original examiners and blind evaluators, using actual criminal suspects?
Answer
  • field analogue study
  • laboratory study
  • ground truth study
  • field study

Question 14

Question
Which of the following statements is true regarding the detection of deception?
Answer
  • People are generally better at detecting truth than detecting lies.
  • High-stake lies are easier to detect than low-stake lies.
  • Many professionals (e.g., police officers) are no better than detecting deception than the general population.
  • all of the above

Question 15

Question
What has been identified as a major problem particular to the Comparison Question Test (CQT)?
Answer
  • high false-negative rate
  • high false-positive rate
  • the use of extra-polygraph cues by the examiner
  • falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent

Question 16

Question
The first polygraph test was developed by:
Answer
  • Stephen Porter
  • William Marston
  • James Frye
  • Hugo Munsterberg

Question 17

Question
Susan gives her infant son various medications to make him appear like he is suffering from an unknown illness, and takes him regularly to doctors and the emergency room to assess these fake symptoms. This is an example of what disorder of deception?
Answer
  • Munchausen syndrome by proxy
  • Malingering disorder
  • Somatoform disorder
  • Non-deceptive disorder

Question 18

Question
Which of the following is not measured by the polygraph test?
Answer
  • heart rate
  • galvanic skin response
  • micro facial expressions
  • breathing

Question 19

Question
Laboratory studies of polygraph techniques have limited application to real-life situations because:
Answer
  • Study participants have no real incentive to beat the polygraph
  • Study participants have no real fear if they fail a polygraph.
  • Study participants have no real-life stress to measure.
  • All of the above

Question 20

Question
Which of the following is not a cue to malingered psychosis in criminal defendants?
Answer
  • hallucinations with delusions
  • understandable motive for committing crime
  • presence of a partner in the crime
  • visual hallucinations in black and white

Question 21

Question
According to your textbook, what is the most common physiological response measured when administering the Concealed Information Test (CIT)?
Answer
  • palmar sweating
  • heart rate
  • blood pressure
  • eye blinks

Question 22

Question
What disorder consists of symptoms that are not intentionally produced but cannot be explained by an underlying biological impairment?
Answer
  • Munchausen syndrome
  • malingering disorder
  • factitious disorder
  • somatoform disorder

Question 23

Question
What is one of the key components to malingering?
Answer
  • Symptoms are not intentionality produced.
  • There are only internal motivations for the production of symptoms.
  • There are external motivations for the production of symptoms.
  • Symptoms are produced in order to assume the sick role.
  • There is an absence of external incentives.

Question 24

Question
Which of the following has not been found effective as a countermeasure to "beat" the polygraph test?
Answer
  • tongue-biting
  • pressing toes on the floor
  • counting backwards
  • anti-anxiety drugs

Question 25

Question
Which of the following are potential applications of the polygraph in Canada?
Answer
  • Polygraph testing is used to screen prospective employees in certain agencies.
  • Polygraph results are used to pressure individuals to confess to a crime.
  • A polygraph test may be administered to verify insurance claims.
  • all of the above

Question 26

Question
The Comparison Question Test has been criticized for:
Answer
  • being susceptible to countermeasures
  • having a high false–positive rate
  • assuming that innocent suspects will show larger responses to the comparison questions as compared to the relevant
  • all of the above

Question 27

Question
According to the textbook, what is the primary issue surrounding the Neil v. Biggers (1972) case in relation to eyewitness accuracy?
Answer
  • the fact that the court stated that confidence of the witness should be seen as an indicator of accuracy
  • the fact that the witness was hypnotized and thus the information provided should not be admissible as accurate evidence in the trial
  • the fact that the witness was given a simultaneous rather than a sequential lineup
  • the fact that the witness was a child and thus the accuracy of her judgment was questionable
  • none of the above

Question 28

Question
Which of the following statements is not correct concerning the outcome of hypnosis?
Answer
  • More information is recalled.
  • Participants report relatively more accurate information and less inaccurate information.
  • Participants express a high degree of confidence in their memory reports
  • It is not possible to determine which statements are erroneous and which are correct.
  • reinstating context, recalling, recognizing, and forgetting
  • Age regression can be a technique used in hypnosis.

Question 29

Question
The hypothesis that explains the cross-race effect in eyewitness testimony by suggesting that the more contact you have with other races the better you will be able to identify them is:
Answer
  • the interracial contact hypothesis
  • the cue-utilization hypothesis
  • the unusualness hypothesis
  • the prejudice hypothesis
  • the physiognomic homogeneity hypothesis

Question 30

Question
What is the major implication of the studies conducted on the misinformation effect in eyewitness research?
Answer
  • Memory is like a videotape.
  • Witnesses yield to authority
  • Memory is reconstructive.
  • Witnesses recall information accurately when under stress.
  • Memory typically gets better as witnesses get older.

Question 31

Question
On what four memory-retrieval techniques is the cognitive interview based?
Answer
  • reinstating context, reporting everything, reversing order, and changing perspective
  • reinstating context, recalling, recognizing, and answering questions
  • encoding, short-term memory, long-term memory, and retrieving
  • encoding, storing, retrieving, and forgetting
  • reinstating context, recalling, recognizing, and forgetting

Question 32

Question
What is not an advantage of using a photo array rather than a live lineup for eyewitness identification?
Answer
  • Photo arrays are easier to construct than live lineups.
  • Suspect does not have the right to counsel being present with a photo array, whereas he/she does have that right with a live lineup
  • Photo arrays produce higher identification accuracy than live lineups.
  • A suspect need not be informed that he/she is being placed in a photo array, whereas with a live lineup he/she must be so informed
  • The police do not have to worry about the suspect's behaviour potentially invalidating the lineup.

Question 33

Question
Which Canadian case involving poor police techniques in collecting eyewitness evidence resulted in a set of recommendations for conducting lineup identifications?
Answer
  • Neil v. Biggers
  • R. v. Sophonow
  • R. v. Brooks
  • R. v. Reno
  • Brooks v. Biggers

Question 34

Question
An eyewitness is shown a picture of an individual who the police think is responsible for a recent bank robbery. No other lineup photos are shown. The eyewitness is asked to state whether the person in the photograph is the same individual seen in the bank. What sort of lineup procedure is being used here?
Answer
  • a showup
  • a simultaneous lineup
  • a sequential lineup
  • a walk-by
  • an elimination lineup

Question 35

Question
What type of decision is not possible with a target-present lineup?
Answer
  • correct identification
  • foil identification
  • false rejection
  • false identification
  • All of the above are possible identification decisions with the target-present lineup.

Question 36

Question
Which of the following would be considered an estimator variable in eyewitness research?
Answer
  • how light it was outside when the crime was witnessed
  • the room where the witness was interviewed
  • the number of police officers present during the interview
  • the time of day when the witness was interviewed
  • the type of lineup presented to the witness

Question 37

Question
Which of the following is true regarding age and eyewitness identification?
Answer
  • Older adults are just as likely as younger adults to make a false positive decision from a target-absent lineup
  • Generally, there are significant differences between younger and older adults' ability to make correct identifications.
  • Younger and older eyewitnesses do not differ in their correct identification rate or false positive rate.
  • Overall, older adult eyewitnesses have more difficulty than younger adult eyewitnesses in making correct rejection decisions.
  • none of the above

Question 38

Question
Susan is being questioned by police after she witnessed a man rob a convenience store. The police are asking her questions about the culprit's appearance, and she finds that all she can remember is that the man had a gun. What is the term used to describe this recall situation?
Answer
  • recall obstruction hypothesis
  • retrieval impairment hypothesis
  • weapon focus
  • central superiority hypothesis
  • peripheral inferiority effect

Question 39

Question
Approximately what percentage of wrongful conviction cases (exonerated through DNA evidence) have been attributed to eyewitness identification?
Answer
  • under 50%
  • 50-60%
  • 60-70%
  • about 75%
  • over 95%

Question 40

Question
Which of the following statements is true with respect to the cognitive interview and enhanced cognitive interview?
Answer
  • The enhanced cognitive interview incorporates all the elements of the cognitive interview.
  • Only some officers in Canada have been trained to use the cognitive interview
  • No significant differences have been found between the effectiveness of the cognitive interview and that of the enhanced cognitive interview.
  • Compared to the standard police interview, the cognitive interview and enhanced cognitive interview produce more accurate information without an increase in inaccurate information.
  • all of the above

Question 41

Question
Describing the actions of a culprit during a police interview relies on ______________, while identifying the culprit's voice from a set of voices relies on __________________.
Answer
  • narrative memory/refreshed memory
  • recall memory/recognition memory
  • natural memory/prompted memory
  • open-ended memory/direct question memory
  • none of the above

Question 42

Question
Which of the following would be considered a system variable in eyewitness research?
Answer
  • whether the witness is intoxicated at the time of the offence
  • the age of the witness
  • the type of weapon used by the culprit
  • the interview procedure used by the police officer
  • the time at which the crime was committed

Question 43

Question
What is the difference between a suspect and a culprit?
Answer
  • The terms suspect and culprit can be used interchangeably; they mean the same thing.
  • suspect is innocent and a culprit is guilty.
  • A suspect is guilty and a culprit is innocent
  • A suspect can be guilty or innocent whereas a culprit is guilty.
  • A suspect is innocent and a culprit can be innocent or guilty.

Question 44

Question
What is the most common research method for studying eyewitness issues?
Answer
  • field study
  • archival research
  • laboratory simulation study
  • recall study
  • recognition study

Question 45

Question
Overall, there is ______________ between the accuracy and the confidence of an eyewitness in the identification of a culprit.
Answer
  • a large positive correlation
  • a small positive correlation
  • no correlation
  • a small negative correlation
  • a large negative correlation

Question 46

Question
What typically happens when the eyewitness is told that the culprit may or may not be present in the lineup?
Answer
  • False positive identifications increase.
  • False positive identifications decrease.
  • Correct identifications increase
  • Correct identifications decrease
  • These instructions have no impact on identifications.

Question 47

Question
Which of the following topics seems to be of the LEAST interest to social psychologists?
Answer
  • discrimination
  • persuasion
  • personality
  • attraction

Question 48

Question
Sarah finds Charlie physically attractive. Because of _______________, she also sees him as personable and interesting.
Answer
  • the low-ball effect
  • a dispositional attribution
  • the halo effect
  • the matching hypothesis

Question 49

Question
Why is it that proximity is related to friendship formation?
Answer
  • We usually avoid attributing negative traits to people who are close at hand.
  • We are more likely to make contact with persons who are close at hand.
  • We are usually similar to people who are close at hand
  • We tend to perceive people who are close at hand as physically attractive.

Question 50

Question
With a well-informed audience, which of the following arguments is likely to be the most persuasive?
Answer
  • simplistic
  • one-sided
  • peripheral
  • two-sided

Question 51

Question
Behaviour that is aimed at helping others and requires some self-sacrifice is termed:
Answer
  • altruism.
  • non-normative helping.
  • normative helping
  • prosocial sacrifice.

Question 52

Question
The compliance technique in which a person who agrees to a small request is then presented with a larger request is:
Answer
  • the foot-in-the-door technique
  • the bandwagon technique.
  • the skyrocket technique
  • the door-in-the-face technique.

Question 53

Question
In the classic experiment conducted by Solomon Asch, the people who provided the pressure to conform would be called the:
Answer
  • experimenters.
  • naive subjects.
  • social loafers.
  • confederates.

Question 54

Question
In the classic experiment conducted by Solomon Asch, the people who provided the pressure to conform would be called the:
Answer
  • experimenters.
  • naive subjects
  • social loafers.
  • confederates.

Question 55

Question
The tendency to put forth less effort when working with others on a common task than when working alone is called:
Answer
  • social loafing
  • group polarization.
  • social inaction
  • social facilitation.

Question 56

Question
The mere-exposure effect is most strongly related to:
Answer
  • discrimination.
  • persuasion.
  • attraction.
  • prejudice

Question 57

Question
The blocking of an impulse or interference with the attainment of a goal is defined as:
Answer
  • crowding.
  • antisocial behaviour.
  • frustration.
  • aggression.

Question 58

Question
Which theory of prejudice is based on the idea that people tend to form in-groups and out-groups?
Answer
  • social cognitive theory
  • us versus them theory
  • social learning theory
  • realistic conflict theory

Question 59

Question
When it comes to attraction, the concept of reciprocal liking refers to the fact that:
Answer
  • people tend to be attracted to others who are at their same level of physical attractiveness.
  • people tend to like those whom they believe like them.
  • people tend to be attracted to attractive-looking people.
  • sometimes people dislike others before they start to like them.

Question 60

Question
The Stanford Prison Experiment conducted by Zimbardo demonstrated the powerful influence of
Answer
  • poverty.
  • money.
  • social class.
  • social roles.

Question 61

Question
Because of the bystander effect,
Answer
  • people are likely to demonstrate social loafing.
  • Kitty Genovese got help when she needed it.
  • participants in Milgram’s experiment obeyed.
  • you would be better off if only one person rather than many people witnessed you in need of help.

Question 62

Question
The matching hypothesis suggests
Answer
  • that opposites attract
  • a talkative person may seek a quiet mate who prefers to listen.
  • we are likely to end up with someone similar to ourselves in attractiveness and other assets
  • couples mismatched on attractiveness and other assets have relationships as long-lasting as other couples.

Question 63

Question
The social learning theory of aggression emphasizes all of the following except that
Answer
  • when aggressive responses are reinforced, they are more likely to continue.
  • aggressive responses are learned from the family, the subculture, and the media.
  • most aggression results from frustration.
  • aggressive responses are learned through modelling.

Question 64

Question
Audience effects and co-action effects are two concepts related to
Answer
  • obedience to authority.
  • social facilitation.
  • social loafing.
  • bystander apathy

Question 65

Question
Which of the following is an accurate statement about the primacy effect?
Answer
  • the primacy effect continues to influence later impressions by becoming the framework through which other information is accepted or disregarded.
  • The primacy effect only affects initial impressions and has no bearing on later information that is gathered.
  • The primacy effect is a very small effect on impression formation
  • Once the primacy effect exists, people become most interested in information that is inconsistent with this initial impression.

Question 66

Question
Social psychology is the area in psychology that focuses on
Answer
  • human growth and development through across the lifespan.
  • the influence of other people on our emotions, thoughts and behaviour.
  • inner psychological conflicts which determine our personality.
  • the study of emotion and motivation.

Question 67

Question
Which of the following kinds of attributions do we tend to make more often for our own behaviour?
Answer
  • dispositional
  • internal
  • situational
  • unbiased

Question 68

Question
Which of the following statements is true of first impressions?
Answer
  • They are not particularly important nor should they influence us.
  • They act as a framework to interpret later information.
  • They are usually correct and require our full awareness.
  • They cannot be changed without a new first impression.

Question 69

Question
Usually people are attracted to others who are
Answer
  • opposites of them.
  • either similar or opposite
  • intellectually similar but physically dissimilar.
  • similar to them.

Question 70

Question
After their favourite team lost an important football game, a group of fans discussed means of retribution. Ultimately, they decided to break into and vandalize the opposing team’s locker room. They were subsequently arrested for doing so. This incident occurred because of the unfortunate effect of:
Answer
  • the mere-exposure effect.
  • group polarization.
  • the cohesion tendency
  • groupthink.

Question 71

Question
A strategy to gain compliance by making a very attractive initial offer to get a person to agree to an action and then making the terms less favourable is the
Answer
  • door-in-the-face technique.
  • obedience technique.
  • low-ball technique.
  • foot-in-the-door technique.

Question 72

Question
Conformity is to norm as:
Answer
  • group is to individual
  • change is to standards.
  • group is to culture.
  • standards are to change

Question 73

Question
When we attribute our own or another's behaviour to some external factor rather than to an internal cause, we are making a
Answer
  • dispositional attribution.
  • fundamental attribution error.
  • situational attribution.
  • false attribution

Question 74

Question
Students often report that when they work in a group, someone will not do their part to complete the group project. The person not doing enough to help the group is engaged in:
Answer
  • social loafing.
  • social facilitation.
  • group polarization
  • social inaction.

Question 75

Question
The results of which study were most relevant to the contact hypothesis?
Answer
  • Sherif and Sherif’s Robbers Cave experiment
  • Asch’s conformity experiment
  • Zimbardo’s prison study
  • Milgram’s obedience experiment

Question 76

Question
The subjects in Milgram’s classic study were told that they were participating in:
Answer
  • a pain-perception experiment.
  • a learning experiment
  • an attribution experiment.
  • an obedience experiment

Question 77

Question
Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) share many of the same features. However, APD places more emphasis on:
Answer
  • antisocial behaviours
  • emotional deficits
  • gender
  • cognitive skills

Question 78

Question
Robert's parents feel he exhibits reckless behaviour, irresponsibility, and lack of remorse. Robert has been this way since birth, and his parents feel he has a difficult temperament. Robert might have:
Answer
  • psychopathy
  • avoidant personality disorder
  • affective disorder
  • borderline personality disorder
  • psychosis

Question 79

Question
The terms "psychopathy" and "sociopathy" are:
Answer
  • the same
  • completely unrelated
  • always used interchangeably
  • related but distinct concepts

Question 80

Question
According to Hare (1993) we are more likely to _____________ than be murdered by a psychopath.
Answer
  • lose our life savings to a psychopath
  • fall in love with a psychopath
  • work with a psychopath
  • be tricked by a psychopath
  • become friends with a psychopath

Question 81

Question
A diagnosis of psychopathy does fulfill the disease of the mind requirement but it has never fulfilled the second requirement of:
Answer
  • knowing the victim
  • not appreciating the nature or quality of the act
  • previously having been committed in a psychiatric institute
  • having spent a night in a psychiatric facility

Question 82

Question
Psychopaths differ from other offenders in what way?
Answer
  • They begin their criminal careers younger.
  • They persist longer.
  • Their use of violence lacks an emotional aspect.
  • They commit a greater variety of violent offenses.
  • all of the above

Question 83

Question
Psychopathic rapists are more likely to be:
Answer
  • emotionally driven
  • anxious
  • opportunistic and vindictive
  • disorganized

Question 84

Question
In the Cambridge Study in Delinquent Development, _________ of offenders scoring10 or more on the PCL:SV had been convicted of an offense
Answer
  • 5%
  • 27%
  • 57%
  • 97%

Question 85

Question
In a study examining treatment outcomes in youth with high scores on the Psychopathy Checklist: Youth Version, the youth who received treatment in a correctional centre had:
Answer
  • lower reoffending rates than youth treated in a treatment centre
  • lower violent reoffending rates than youth treated in a treatment centre
  • twice the reoffending rates of youth treated in a treatment centre
  • twice the violent reoffending rates of youth treated in a treatment centre

Question 86

Question
_____ of offenders can be classified as psychopaths
Answer
  • 1%–10%
  • 10%–25%
  • 30%–35%
  • 40%–50%

Question 87

Question
The best research design to determine the extent to which family experiences influence the development of psychopathic traits is:
Answer
  • prospective longitudinal studies
  • retrospective studies
  • cross-sectional studies
  • experimental

Question 88

Question
Hervey Cleckley's book ____________________ provided one of the most extensive clinical descriptions of psychopaths.
Answer
  • The Psychopath
  • Evil People
  • The Mask of Sanity
  • Master Manipulator

Question 89

Question
Which Canadian researcher developed the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised?
Answer
  • Olson
  • Cleckley
  • Patrick
  • Hare
  • Hart

Question 90

Question
Psychopathic traits in youth are related to __________ but not _____________.
Answer
  • depression and anxiety; IQ scores and education
  • IQ scores and education; depression and anxiety
  • depression and anxiety; violence and aggression
  • delinquency and aggression; depression and anxiety

Question 91

Question
Factor 2 is most strongly related to reoffending, substance abuse, lack of education, and:
Answer
  • Emotional processing deficits
  • Predatory violence
  • Poor treatment response
  • Poor family background

Question 92

Question
The relatively small number of psychopaths account for:
Answer
  • relatively small amount of crime
  • relatively small amount of violent crime
  • proportionate amount of crime
  • disproportionately large amount of crime

Question 93

Question
If an individual scored between 20 and 30 on the PCL-R, what would we classify them?
Answer
  • psychopath
  • mixed group
  • nonpsychopath
  • average

Question 94

Question
Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) is given when there is evidence of conduct disorder before the age of 15 and:
Answer
  • a chronic pattern of disregarding the rights of others since age 2
  • a chronic pattern of disregarding the rights of others since age 15
  • a chronic pattern of rule violation since age 2
  • a chronic pattern of rule violation since age 15
  • none of the above

Question 95

Question
The two theories of psychopathy are:
Answer
  • Response modulation deficit; affective theory
  • Startle-blink response; affective theory
  • Response modulation deficit; startle-blink response
  • Antisocial process screening; startle-blink response

Question 96

Question
In an experiment measuring cheating behaviours and psychopathy, the best predictor of cheating was:
Answer
  • low scores on the Self-Report Psychopathy Scale
  • low scores on the Psychopathy Checklist Revised
  • high scores on the Self-Report Psychopathy Scale
  • high scores on the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised
  • high scores on both the Self-Report Psychopathy Scale and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised

Question 97

Question
In a study examining the use of instrumental motives, psychopaths engaged in instrumental murder in ______ of cases:
Answer
  • 93%
  • 77%
  • 50%
  • 34%

Question 98

Question
Olver and Wong (2009) found that psychopathic offenders who remained in treatment were:
Answer
  • more likely to violently reoffend
  • more likely to manipulate prison staff
  • less likely to violently reoffend
  • likely not to show any treatment gains

Question 99

Question
The most widely used self-report questionnaire to assess psychopathy are:
Answer
  • Psychopathic Personality Inventory-Revised
  • Self-Report Psychopathy Scale
  • Psychopathic Personality Inventory-Revised and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised
  • Psychopathic Personality Inventory-Revised and the Self-Report Psychopathy Scale

Question 100

Question
Which of the following is not a function of the amygdala?
Answer
  • memory
  • decision making
  • language
  • defence reactions

Question 101

Question
In a study measuring psychopathy in a sample of community members ____ of these individuals scored zero on the PCL-SV.
Answer
  • 10%
  • 19%
  • 44%
  • 71%

Question 102

Question
The "faint hope clause" allows offenders convicted of murder to:
Answer
  • be released from prison after serving 5 years of their sentence
  • apply for parole before their eligibility date
  • apply for appeals
  • make special dietary request in prison

Question 103

Question
At least one major study has suggested that the higher rate of depression in women is largely due to:
Answer
  • social and cultural factors
  • genetic predisposition
  • chemical imbalances.
  • men suppressing their own depression.

Question 104

Question
Experts believe that most phobias are caused by
Answer
  • learning or observation of others
  • generalized anxiety.
  • psychodynamic conflict.
  • conformity to social expectations

Question 105

Question
____________________ disorders provide a mental escape from intolerable circumstances.
Answer
  • Somatoform
  • Anxiety
  • Dissociative
  • Post-traumatic stress

Question 106

Question
Although the term neurosis has not been used officially since 1980, it applied to people who
Answer
  • suffered from personal discomfort and distress and some impairment in functioning
  • lost touch with reality.
  • violated important social norms.
  • were more disturbed than those suffering from a psychosis

Question 107

Question
Delusions of grandeur and persecution are symptoms of:
Answer
  • dissociation disorder
  • anxiety disorder.
  • schizophrenic disorder.
  • panic disorder.

Question 108

Question
“Positive” symptoms of schizophrenia are so-called because they are:
Answer
  • present.
  • easy to treat.
  • diagnostic of the disorder.
  • desirable.

Question 109

Question
Which of the following does not describe people with antisocial personality disorder?
Answer
  • They fear punishment.
  • They are irresponsible.
  • They seldom feel guilt
  • They are selfish.

Question 110

Question
Connie adopts ritualistic behaviours to help reduce anxiety that occurs when unwanted thoughts intrude into her awareness. Connie is displaying symptoms of
Answer
  • obsessive-compulsive disorder.
  • dissociative disorder.
  • histrionic personality disorder.
  • conversion disorder.

Question 111

Question
The two major types of mood disorders are:
Answer
  • seasonal affective disorders and negative symptom disorders
  • manic disorders and depressive disorders.
  • depressive disorders and bipolar disorders.
  • major depressive disorders and secondary mood disorders.

Question 112

Question
Brigit is afraid to leave her house. She rarely goes outside, even just to check her mail. Her sister needs to drive her to the local supermarket for shopping, but even with this assistance, Brigit is very uncomfortable. Given these symptoms, it appears that Brigit suffers from
Answer
  • panic attacks
  • major depression.
  • social phobia.
  • agoraphobia.

Question 113

Question
Obsessions involve a
Answer
  • persistent, irresistible, irrational urge to perform an act or ritual repeatedly.
  • generalized feeling of apprehension, fear, or tension that may be associated with a particular object or situation.
  • sudden loss of conscious and a failure to recall what took place during the episode.
  • persistent recurring involuntary thought, image, or impulse that invades consciousness and causes great distress.

Question 114

Question
Which of the following is not true of people suffering from a psychosis?
Answer
  • They have seriously impaired functioning in everyday life.
  • They rarely lose contact with reality.
  • They sometimes require hospitalization for their disorder.
  • They may have delusions or hallucinations

Question 115

Question
Lenora tends to perceive every event as negative. If the phone rings, she thinks it’s a salesperson trying to bother her. If it doesn’t ring, she thinks no one cares about her. These negative interpretations are at the root of her depression, according to the
Answer
  • psychodynamic perspective
  • social perspective
  • cognitive perspective
  • learning perspective.

Question 116

Question
Panic disorder, phobias, and obsessive-compulsive disorder are types of
Answer
  • somatoform disorders
  • anxiety disorders.
  • dissociative disorders.
  • mood disorders.

Question 117

Question
People suffering from a(n) _________________ disorder lack normal empathic responses.
Answer
  • antisocial personality
  • phobic
  • sleep
  • eating

Question 118

Question
The facial expressions, tone of voice, and gestures of people who suffer from schizophrenia often do not fit the situation. This is called
Answer
  • negative symptoms.
  • flatness of affect.
  • inappropriate affect.
  • delusional behaviour.

Question 119

Question
Pamela suffers from a rare disorder in which two distinct personalities exist, each dominating at particular times. The condition Pamela is suffering is called
Answer
  • conversion disorder.
  • dissociative identity disorder.
  • dissociative amnesia.
  • schizophrenia.

Question 120

Question
Low levels of serotonin and norepinephrine are believed to be connected to:
Answer
  • depression.
  • panic attacks.
  • paraphilias.
  • delusions

Question 121

Question
People who are convinced that every mole is skin cancer and every heart palpitation is a heart attack are most likely suffering from:
Answer
  • hypochondriasis
  • agoraphobia.
  • panic attacks
  • dysthymia

Question 122

Question
Which of the following perspectives suggests that faulty thinking or distorted perceptions contribute to some types of psychological disorders
Answer
  • The learning perspective
  • The biological perspective
  • The cognitive perspective
  • The humanistic perspective

Question 123

Question
People who experience excessive anxiety or worries that they find difficult to control are suffering from a:
Answer
  • panic attack
  • generalized anxiety disorder.
  • phobia.
  • compulsive disorder.

Question 124

Question
A disorder characterized by periods of extreme depression or mania is a ______________ disorder.
Answer
  • dissociative
  • mood
  • personality
  • somatoform

Question 125

Question
Personality disorders from cluster B (including borderline and narcissistic) involve:
Answer
  • erratic, overly dramatic behaviour.
  • anxious, fearful behaviour.
  • odd behaviour.
  • depressed, withdrawn behaviour.

Question 126

Question
Personality disorders from cluster B (including borderline and narcissistic) involve
Answer
  • erratic, overly dramatic behaviour.
  • anxious, fearful behaviour.
  • odd behaviour.
  • depressed, withdrawn behaviour.

Question 127

Question
According to the criteria for defining abnormal behaviour, when a behaviour interferes with the quality of a person’s life, then it is considered:
Answer
  • dangerous to the person or to other people
  • a symptom of insanity.
  • maladaptive.
  • unusual in all cultures around the world.

Question 128

Question
What is the term for an irrational fear and avoidance of situations in which people believe they might embarrass or humiliate themselves by appearing clumsy, foolish, or incompetent?
Answer
  • Social phobia
  • Specific phobia
  • Agoraphobia
  • Complex phobia

Question 129

Question
The view that schizophrenia develops from both genetic predisposition and excessive stress is called
Answer
  • the dopamine activity model.
  • the causal model of schizophrenia.
  • the diathesis-stress model.
  • the socio-cultural model.

Question 130

Question
Which perspective emphasizes the role of the id, ego, and superego in defining psychological abnormality?
Answer
  • the cognitive perspective
  • the psychodynamic perspective
  • the learning perspective
  • the biological perspective

Question 131

Question
Compulsion is to ________ as obsession is to _________.
Answer
  • anxiety; depression
  • negative symptom; positive symptom
  • neurosis; psychosis
  • behaviour; thought

Question 132

Question
Paranoid, narcissistic, and histrionic are three types of:
Answer
  • dissociation disorders
  • paraphilias.
  • personality disorders.
  • schizophrenias
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