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AE MQF 10 Jan 2015

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mqf
Melissa Minei
Quiz by Melissa Minei, updated more than 1 year ago
Melissa Minei
Created by Melissa Minei over 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
OG/CC shall define local operating procedures to AFI11-2AEV3 in a unit supplement?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 2

Question
Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life define a ______________
Answer
  • Warning
  • Caution
  • Note
  • Suggestion

Question 3

Question
Waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2AE V3 is the ______
Answer
  • HQ AMC Stan/Eval
  • TACC
  • Air and Space Operations Center
  • MAJCOM/A3/DO with mission execution authority

Question 4

Question
During operational aeromedical evacuation missions no later than ___ hour prior to landing a crew member will make the following call to update arrival time and provide _____
Answer
  • 2 / DD Form 2852, Aeromedical Evacuation Event/Near Miss Report
  • 2 / request for fleet service
  • 1 / AF IMT 3858, Aeromedical Evacuation Mission Offload Message information
  • None fo the above

Question 5

Question
The MCD will coordinate with PIC to establish immediate communication with TACC/AOC and PMRC anytime:
Answer
  • A patient is removed from flight
  • A change is patient status
  • Mission irregularities or equipment/transportation requirements
  • All the above

Question 6

Question
A basic AE crew consists of ___/____ for AE missions IAW AFI 11-2AE V3 (EXCEPTION for C-21 missions)
Answer
  • 3 Flight Nurses and 2 Technicians
  • 5 total AECs
  • 1 FN/ 4 AETs
  • 2 FN/ 3 AET

Question 7

Question
Once an aircrew begins a basic FDP, only MAJCOM/A3/DO may extend to augment day regardless of aircrew composition
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 8

Question
The PIC with an augmented crew may accept an augmented FDP as long as:
Answer
  • The C2 agent or PIC discovers the extenuating circumstances before the first takeoff of the day
  • PIC verifies all augmenting aircrew members can get adequate rest en route
  • the PIC with a basic crew may seek MAJCOM/A3/DO (w/mission execution authority) approval to extend the FDP as much as 2 hours to complete a scheduled mission
  • All the above

Question 9

Question
Which of the following does not describe a MCD
Answer
  • Advised pilot in command on patients' conditions and use of medical equipment that may affect aircraft operations
  • Directly responsible for the safety and medical well-being of patients on the aircraft
  • Final mission authority and will make decisions not assigned to higher authority
  • Qualified flight nurse

Question 10

Question
The Squadron's CN after reviewing the ORM worksheet, may change the crew compliment to consist of no less than 1 FN and 2 AETs, and will notify the controlling c2 agency of changes if different from the mission directive
Answer
  • This is not permissible, the CN can only increase the number of crew members, not decrease
  • This is permissible, the CN may increase or reduce the crew complement
  • This is not permissible, a basic AE crew of 2 FNs and 3 AETs must be taksed
  • Only if approved by A3VM

Question 11

Question
______ or designee will augment an aircrew when FDP exceeds 16 hours and the mission profile will allow augmenting members adequate time to rest en route
Answer
  • OG/CC
  • SQ/CC
  • CN
  • MCD

Question 12

Question
The _____ must designate who is going to be the MCD on a flight authorization, IAW AFI 11-401 prior to mission execution
Answer
  • OG/CC
  • SQ/CC
  • SQ/CNE
  • SARM

Question 13

Question
SQ/CC shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties
Answer
  • When the flight time will exceed maximum flying time limitations
  • Within 24 hours after compressed gas diving (scuba or surface supplied diving), a hyperbaric chamber mission, or aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes
  • Within 12 hours following a hypobaric chamber mission above 25,000 ft
  • All the above

Question 14

Question
What is the primary fatigue counter measure available to aircrew members?
Answer
  • Smart scheduling procedures aimed at managing those cycles, strategic inflight and/or ground napping techniques, and proper diet and exercise
  • No-Go pill
  • Appropriate management of sleep/rest cycles
  • All the above

Question 15

Question
Aircrew members will limit use of Ambien (Zolpidem) and Restoril (Temazepam) to a maximum of seven consecutive days and no more than 20 days in a 60-day period.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 16

Question
C2 agents shall not disturb an aircrew member in crew rest except __________.
Answer
  • When authorized by MAJCOM/A3/DO
  • During emergencies
  • If the MCD requires room changes to be in close proximity of the crew
  • A&B

Question 17

Question
What is the purpose of the assertive statement "Time Out"?
Answer
  • Provides a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of situational awareness.
  • Provides an opportunity to break the error chain before a mishap occurs
  • Notifies all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew departing from established guidelines, the briefed scenario, or that someone is simply uncomfortable with the developing conditions.
  • All the above

Question 18

Question
What is the goal of the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)?
Answer
  • To prevent mishaps by addressing unintentional errors, hazardous situations and events, or high-risk activities, not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through traditional safety reporting sources
  • To provide an anonymous means to complain about your commander
  • To ensure AECMs are punished for potentially unsafe behavior
  • the ASAP program is not intended for AECMs since we currently use a DD Form 2852 to report actual and near miss medical events

Question 19

Question
All AECMs will wear Nomex gloves during taxi, take-off, and landing
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
What will be accomplished prior to concurrent servicing (CS) on the C-17 or C-130?
Answer
  • Prior to starting concurrent servicing, the total number of patients, attendants, passengers, and crew on board the aircraft will be given to the fire department
  • The Passenger Compartment Monitor (PCM) will brief patients on emergency egress, exit prohibitions, and hazards. Ambulatory patients will remain seated but will not wear seatbelts during CS
  • Loading ramps/stairs are in place for immediate use and exits (excluding the overhead escape hatches) are opened for egress.
  • All the above

Question 21

Question
At what point during the PRICE check of the MA-1 portable walk-around bottle do you fit and adjust your harness?
Answer
  • P-Pressure
  • R-Regulator
  • I-Inspection
  • C-Connections

Question 22

Question
Demonstration of onboard life sustaining equipment is required for all missions carrying passengers/patients.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
When AE crews are augmented for time, how is flight time documented on the AFTO Form 781?
Answer
  • All AECMs on the aircraft log primary time for the entire mission
  • The CN determines work/rest cycles
  • 5 crewmembers log primary time; 2 crewmembers are "resting" and log other time
  • All crewmembers will log primary and secondary time

Question 24

Question
If a Medical Emergency/Change in Patient Status in flight occurs, the MCD/AECMs will immediately notify the PIC regarding the gravity and nature of the situation and will also:
Answer
  • Coordinate to establish immediate radio communication with the Tactical Airlift Control Center/Air Mobility Operations Control Center/Air Operations Center/Patient Movement Requirements Center (TACC/AMOC/AOC/PMRC) for a physician and guidance for landing at an airfield capable of handling the situation, when indicated.
  • Notify the supporting TACC/AOC and PMRC regarding changes in patient status, mission irregularities, coordination of mission needs, and equipment/transportation requirements ASAP.
  • Be ready to communicate age, gender, diagnosis, subjective and objective data, including vital signs and pulse oximetry, known allergies, and for women of childbearing years, date of last menstrual cycle, if indicated. Also report treatment/interventions, date and time (if indicated) and the outcome
  • All the above

Question 25

Question
Which of the following are effective CBRN Passive defense measures?
Answer
  • Up-to-date immunizations
  • Standard personal hygiene practices
  • The use of chemoprophylaxis
  • All the above

Question 26

Question
If the aircraft is configured with airline seats, the ______ will check the security of all patient/passenger seats by lifting upward on the front of the seat frame and gently pushing and pulling on the seat backs. Minimal movement is acceptable.
Answer
  • MCD
  • LM/BO
  • CMT
  • PIC

Question 27

Question
In the AE system, transfer of physical care is complete once:
Answer
  • The patient enters or exits the ground vehicle of transportation
  • The patient meets the representatives of the MTF
  • Patient report is completed
  • Patient records and medications are handed off

Question 28

Question
All of the following statements are correct except?
Answer
  • On missions with ventilator patients, AECM's will calculate pre-mission oxygen requirements using 14 LPM for all ventilators
  • Piror to enplaning ventilated CCATT patients, AEC and CCATT personnel will verify patient oxygen requirements
  • For C-17 mission, use the therapeutic oxygen as the primary source for ventilated patients
  • For KC-135 and C-130 missions, ventilated patients will have a dedicated PTLOX/NPTLOX

Question 29

Question
During Preflight Inspection, the interior inspection will be accomplished by using the abbreviated flight crew checklist; the _____________ is responsible for ensuring emergency passageways are clear.
Answer
  • Boom
  • MCD
  • CMT
  • None

Question 30

Question
When considering placement of an "H" sized compressed gas cylinder to a PSP for an AE mission, it should be secured:
Answer
  • To the floor, under the NTS with 2 cargo tie-down straps
  • On a litter and secured with 2 litter straps
  • Against the inner aspect of the stanchion with two cargo tie-down straps placed on the upper and lower portions of the H-tank.
  • At AECM duty station as a secondary emergency oxygen source

Question 31

Question
Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed define a____________________.
Answer
  • Warning
  • Caution
  • Note
  • Suggestions

Question 32

Question
The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) is the preferred _________________ oxygen, smoke, and fume protection.
Answer
  • AECM
  • Passenger
  • Crew member
  • CMT

Question 33

Question
Who is responsible for ensuring there are enough EPOS units for each AECM, patient, and attendants?
Answer
  • 3AET
  • CMT
  • AE Crew
  • MCD

Question 34

Question
The EPOS will not function without the removal of the________. If the red knob separates, grasp the lanyard to pull the __________ off the cylinder and then proceed to use the EPOS as directed.
Answer
  • Pin
  • Oxygen activator
  • metal tab
  • None

Question 35

Question
The PBE/EEBD is a _____minute self-contained, completely disposable breathing unit, with a solid state oxygen supply source.
Answer
  • 60
  • 30
  • 17
  • 15

Question 36

Question
AECMs are responsible for refilling and discharging the MA-1 oxygen issued by Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE). Prior to turn in the cylinder, the cylinder pressure will be reduced to between___ and ____ PSIG gage pressure.
Answer
  • 5/10
  • 8/30
  • 5/38
  • 5/28

Question 37

Question
The adult/child (A/C) LPU is the preferred LPU for AECMs and patient/passengers during ditching situations. The LPU can be used on children greater than _________ old.
Answer
  • 18 months
  • 14 years
  • 36 months
  • 7 years

Question 38

Question
PSP-S: Six PSP seats supporting up to six ambulatory patients, medical attendants or crewmembers. Each seat is rated to hold _______ LBS.
Answer
  • 320
  • 220
  • 160
  • 260

Question 39

Question
When three patients are transported on a PSP litter tower, each litter position is rated to hold____ LBS.
Answer
  • 350
  • 320
  • 300
  • 220

Question 40

Question
On the C-130 J aircraft, six 3-pin "household type" service outlets can be used with AE equipment that operates on 115 Volt/400 Hz. Each outlet will provide ___ amps for a total of ___ amps.
Answer
  • 20/60
  • 15/60
  • 30/90
  • 15/90

Question 41

Question
A primary 115V/60 Hz converter is installed on-board the C-17 which provides 60 Hz electrical power to the ____ aeromedical electrical outlet panels. There are two 115 VAC/60Hz outlets on each panel.
Answer
  • 12
  • 9
  • 6
  • 3

Question 42

Question
A minimum quantity of ____ liters of LOX is required for scheduled aeromedical evacuation missions on a C-17 originating from staged/home station.
Answer
  • 30
  • 45
  • 75
  • 100

Question 43

Question
To increase C-17 electrical amp capability, a Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter may be plugged directly into one of the 115-200V/400 Hz AC outlets located on the six aeromedical electrical outlet panels. Do not exceed 20 amps per aircraft left side and 20 amps per aircraft right side to the ______Hz system for a total of _____amps when using the Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter.
Answer
  • 200/20
  • 400/20
  • 400/40
  • 200/40

Question 44

Question
For the KC-135 the two primary egress points are the aft emergency escape hatch and the crew entry chute. The aft escape hatch is equipped with a slide; the crew entry chute is equipped with a ladder typically stored in the cargo compartment.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 45

Question
The release of TCTO 1C-135-1806 provides three additional electrical outlets on the KC-135 R/T block, 40 aircraft. The three new outlets and the galley plug provide a total of ____ amps.
Answer
  • 180
  • 45
  • 135
  • 60

Question 46

Question
When connecting the pigtail adaptor to the galley plugs on the KC-135, ensure both circuit breakers marked ____________ and __________ are pulled.
Answer
  • Galley PWR/Station 445
  • circuit breaker/station 225
  • Frequency PWR/Galley PWR
  • Station 225/445

Question 47

Question
The KC-135 air conditioning system is not operated on the ground. AE crews will request ground air conditioning units when ambient air temperature is ___ degrees or greater.
Answer
  • 74
  • 84
  • 94
  • 104

Question 48

Question
Latrine capacity in the KC-135 is limited. If not equipped with the Improved Toilet Assembly (TCTO 1C-135-1596), the aircraft will depart home station with an operable latrine and a minimum of ___________________ and _________________.
Answer
  • Two rolls of toilet paper; two hand sanitizer dispensers
  • Two urine tubes; two latrine cartridges
  • Two extra flight suits; two sets of undergarments
  • Two urinals; two bed pans

Question 49

Question
A total of ___ litter patients can be floor-loaded on the C-130. An additional two pallet positions are available on the C-130J-30 model that can accommodate an additional___ litter patients.
Answer
  • 8, 6
  • 8, 3
  • 15, 6
  • 15, 3

Question 50

Question
On the C-17, a total of ____ litters patients can be floor-loaded. An additional ____ litters patients can be placed on the ramp for a maximum utilization of the aircraft.
Answer
  • 30/15
  • 48/12
  • 48/15
  • 30/12

Question 51

Question
On the KC-135 the maximum floor-loaded litter capacity is _____ patients. Maximum altitude for floor-loaded patients is flight level ______.
Answer
  • 10, 300
  • 8, 300
  • 8, 350
  • 15, 350

Question 52

Question
If a waiver request for a piece of non-certified/non-standard medical equipment is approved, there is no need to complete a DD Form 2852.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
It is the responsibility of the ___________ to ensure each aeromedical evacuation crewmember (AECM) and/or other medical personnel supporting AE elements assigned to their unit receives training on the applicable equipment contained within this publication.
Answer
  • AES CN
  • Unit property custodian
  • AES Commander
  • Chief of Aircrew Training

Question 54

Question
If equipment malfunction/failure occurs during an AE mission the MCD will ensure the following paperwork/actions are accomplished:
Answer
  • Complete AFTO 350
  • Upon arrival to home station, immediately send tagged equipment and all accessories to host medical equipment maintenance activity/MTF
  • Complete DD Form 2852
  • All

Question 55

Question
After delivery of all medical equipment from HQ AMC/SGXM, receipt of the Initial Capabilities Document, and AMC/A3TM generated training plan, the implementation phase will be as follows?
Answer
  • 90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).
  • 90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).
  • 45 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).
  • 120 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

Question 56

Question
The following statements about the Minilator are correct, except:
Answer
  • The oxygen flow control valve, from the PTLOX/MOST system accessory kit, may be used with the Minilator.
  • Connect standard low-pressure oxygen hose to the connector, and the connector to the minilator inlet valve
  • the minilator was not designed for and will not be used to support ventilatory devices
  • prior to connecting to an oxygen source, a flow meter with index set at zero must be attached to any oxygen hose connected to the minilator

Question 57

Question
The Next-Generation Portable Therapeutic Liquid Oxygen (NPTLOX) System when filled with liquid oxygen (LOX) will provide for an uninterrupted supply of therapeutic oxygen. The system has the capacity to store _____ of liquid oxygen (LOX) and convert the LOX to a gaseous state.
Answer
  • 15 L
  • 20 L
  • 30 L
  • 10 L

Question 58

Question
The NONIN 9550 Onyx II has a tricolor LED display provides a visual indication of the pulse signal quality. Which of the following is not true?
Answer
  • Green indicates a good pulse signal
  • Yellow indicates a marginal pulse sigmal
  • Red indicates an inadequate pulse signal
  • Red indicates no pulse

Question 59

Question
During all operational and Aeromedical Readiness Missions, the MCD will document on the AF Form 3829, or on the computer generated TRAC2ES cover sheet the following?
Answer
  • total patient oxygen requirement
  • total pre-mission, mi-mission, and post-mission PTLOX/therapeutic oxygen level
  • max cabin altitude
  • All

Question 60

Question
Synchronized cardioversion is permitted by ACLS flight nurses without physician supervision utilizing which piece of equipment?
Answer
  • zoll
  • philips
  • a and b
  • none

Question 61

Question
_______ and __________ indicate a mandatory requirement.
Answer
  • Should/may
  • will/shall
  • will/may
  • should/shall

Question 62

Question
The Propaq Encore monitor is not interchangeable with other monitors. Use of the Propaq SpO2 with other monitors will cause inaccurate readings.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 63

Question
The Turbo cuff function on the Propaq Encore monitor will automatically measure NIBP at what intervals?
Answer
  • every 5 minutes
  • at an interval initiated by the user
  • Automatically and continues to take as many measurements as possible within five minutes
  • turbo cuff is not used in flight

Question 64

Question
When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System do not exceed 45 amps for the unit or 15 amps for any one duplex receptacle.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 65

Question
When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System and connecting to aircraft power:
Answer
  • Always check the aircraft outlet with the ECAS tester
  • Check Ecas cords with ecas tester if connected to 60 Hz outlets on the C-17
  • Turn off the unit when connecting to aircraft power
  • All

Question 66

Question
If the ______ lamp is illuminated (steady light) on the Unitron Portable Power System, move the unit control on/off switch breaker to the off position, voltage being applied to the input of the portable power system is improper for unit operation.
Answer
  • Green
  • Yellow
  • Red
  • None

Question 67

Question
Which of the following is true regarding the IMPACT 326M Portable Suction Unit?
Answer
  • The unit simultaneously operates and recharges the battery when plugged into either 115/230 VAC, 50-400 Hz or 28 VDC power source
  • The internal battery operates for a minimum of two hours and takes a maximum of 16 hours to recharge
  • The charge light will not illuminate if the battery is fully charged
  • All

Question 68

Question
When inserting tubing into the IVAC Medsystem III infusion pump; with tubing ______, use a 45 degree _______, motion to insert cassette into channel.
Answer
  • up/upward
  • down/upward
  • up/downward
  • down/downward

Question 69

Question
The Atrium Express 4050 Dry Seal Chest Drain is a disposable, waterless operating system with 2100 ml collection volume, dry suction regulator, and dry one-say valve for seal protection. Since this medical piece of equipment is approved for flight, ensure a Heimlich valve is in place
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 70

Question
Placement of the Atrium Express Dry Seal Chest Drain include:
Answer
  • Always place the chest drain below the patient's chest in an upright position
  • To avoid knocking over the chest drain, you may hang the system from the litter
  • The system is sealed and can be placed on its side
  • both a and b

Question 71

Question
When transporting an infant in the ALSS, take the temperature of the infant every ________unless directed otherwise by the medical attendant. Document temperature on Patient Evacuation Record (IMT 3899, Patient Movement Record).
Answer
  • 15 minutes
  • 30 minutes
  • hour
  • 2 hours

Question 72

Question
The NATO Litter Backrest is used to provide elevation for patient's head. The 90 degree position on the NATO litter backrest will not be used during __________.
Answer
  • Take off
  • Landing
  • Enplaning/Deplaning
  • All of the above

Question 73

Question
Use a minimum of ______ litter bearers to enplane The North American Rescue Over Sized Litter (OSL). However, there are four attached carrying straps on each side of the litter to accommodate up to ____ personnel.
Answer
  • 4/8
  • 6/8
  • 4/6
  • none

Question 74

Question
Ensure there are compatible/operable restraint keys available and caregivers know placement for leather restraints prior to flight.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 75

Question
It is acceptable to use K-Y jelly or EKG gel with the Ultrasound Stethoscope Fetal Monitor-Medasonics Model FP3A if Ultrasound Coupling Agent is not available.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 76

Question
The Aircraft Wireless Intercom System (AWIS) is approved for use on the following:
Answer
  • c-17 and c-130
  • c-21
  • kc-135
  • a and c

Question 77

Question
The primary goal of AE medical transport is to meet the perceived, actual, or potential health needs of the patient, while maintaining the continuum of care. _______________ are responsible for assuring the clinical currency of assigned personnel.
Answer
  • MAJCOM Functionals
  • CN
  • Superintendents
  • Commanders

Question 78

Question
Matching an individual's ongoing needs with the appropriate level and type of medical, psychological, health, or social service within an organization and across multiple organizations is ________________.
Answer
  • Standards of Practice
  • Continuum of Care
  • Standards of Care
  • Standards of Performance

Question 79

Question
The MCD may assign a lower classification if the patient's condition warrants a downgrade.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 80

Question
DNR orders will not be more than _______ hours before the originating flight.
Answer
  • 36
  • 24
  • 72
  • 96

Question 81

Question
Documentation of double-checks will be reflected by two signatures on required forms/flow sheets or on the AF Form 3899A. This is applicable to___________________.
Answer
  • ASFs/CASFs, CCATTs and AECMs
  • AECM
  • ASF and CASF only
  • CCATT and AECM

Question 82

Question
_____________are required and recorded on patients with elevated temperatures, suspected or known infections, or abnormal pulse rates.
Answer
  • Temperature, respiration, and blood pressure
  • Respiration, pulse, blood pressure
  • Temperature, pulse, and respiration
  • Temperature pulse, blood pressure

Question 83

Question
At altitude, the treatment for hyperventilation and hypoxia of the AE patient is identical. Administer high flow O2 and encourage slow deep breathing.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 84

Question
Pulse oximetry reading may not be accurate in carbon monoxide poisoning.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 85

Question
__________________ and ______________ are signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax.
Answer
  • Tracheal shift to affected side of hypertension
  • Absent breath sounds on unaffected side and hypertension
  • Distended neck veins and hypotension
  • Hypertension and diminished breath sounds on affected side

Question 86

Question
In normal situations, patients with recently removed chest tubes will not be airlifted until the following conditions are met, which of the following is not correct:
Answer
  • A minimum of 24 hours post chest tube removal
  • Expiratory and lordotic chest x-ray at least 24 hours post chest tube removal with the interpretation documented in the patients medical records
  • Occlusive dressing is applied to the site where the chest tube was removed
  • A backup chest tube is inserted.

Question 87

Question
What conditions require immediate transport and contact with the burn team, if the situation allows.
Answer
  • -Burns involving >10% total body surface (TBS) in children and adults over 50 years old.
  • -3rd degree burns >5% TBS.
  • -Significant electrical injury (including lighting).
  • (All of the above)

Question 88

Question
For burn patients, fluid resuscitation calls for one-half of the total amount to be infused over the first ____ hours from the time of injury, and the second half infused over the following ____ hours.
Answer
  • 16 / 8
  • 8 / 16
  • 4 / 20
  • 20 / 4

Question 89

Question
Accurate administration of IV therapy poses one of the greatest concerns in-flight. IV drip rates will be reevaluated____________.
Answer
  • -After descent
  • -After a rapid decompression
  • -Once cruise altitude is reached
  • (All of the above)

Question 90

Question
____________ in head injured patients can be catastrophic because cerebral blood vessels cannot auto regulate and therefore cannot constrict to preserve cerebral blood flow during hypotension. When auto regulation is lost, massive cerebral vasodilation occurs, and secondarily _______ ICP.
Answer
  • Hypotension / Increase
  • Hypertension / Decrease
  • Hypotension / Decrease
  • Hypertension / Increase

Question 91

Question
Prior to initiating transcutaneous pacing (TCP) with an approved AE cardiac monitor/defibrillator, the flight nurse will contact Command and Control (C2) for_______________
Answer
  • - Pain medication
  • - Sedation orders
  • - Mission diversion
  • (All of the above)

Question 92

Question
Casualties displaying any of the Military Acute Concussion Evaluation (MACE) "red flags" which include ______________ should be referred for additional medical evaluation as soon as operationally possible.
Answer
  • Diarrhea
  • Seizures
  • Double vision
  • b and c

Question 93

Question
When caring for a Patient with a Negative-Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT) system complete the following:
Answer
  • Assess patient comfort and system function every 2 hours inflight.
  • Should not interrupt therapy for greater than two hours within a twenty-four hour period due to the potential for infection.
  • -For non-correctable system failures inflight, if the patient's destination is > than 2 hours away, the overlying occlusive film should be opened by making 2-3 slits into the film to allow for wound drainage. DO NOT remove the occlusive film or the sponge inside the wound for risk of bleeding or wound contamination. A dry dressing should then be applied over the site and reinforced as needed. Report system failure and actions taken to receiving facility during handoff for follow-on care.
  • All

Question 94

Question
Ideally, plaster casts should be at least ______ hours old to allow for possible soft tissue expansion after an acute injury.
Answer
  • 12
  • 24
  • 48
  • 36

Question 95

Question
Patients who are beyond the 20th week of pregnancy are not routinely accepted for AE, but will be moved if determined necessary by a physician.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 96

Question
______________ is the single most important method for preventing the spread of infection.
Answer
  • PPE
  • Standard Precaution
  • Hand Washing
  • Isolation

Question 97

Question
If a patient is exhibiting aggressive and uncontrollable behavior, is extremely agitated and violent, and/or is determined to be a danger to flight safety, self or others on the aircraft, give PRN medication as ordered. If no PRN medication is ordered, give __________________ IAW established guidance.
Answer
  • Haldol and valium
  • Valium or versed
  • Haldol or valium
  • Haldol and versed

Question 98

Question
When utilizing leather restraints, perform observation/documentation every ____ minutes. Use AF IMT 3899G, Patient Movement Restraint Observation Flowsheet.
Answer
  • 5
  • 15
  • 30
  • 60

Question 99

Question
Hand off of epidural analgesia/peripheral nerve block infusions include:
Answer
  • -An independent double-check is two medical persons familiar with the process/equipment/medication (at least one being a registered nurse), independently verifying the practitioner's/provider's orders, medication hanging, and the correct set up of PCA or IV pump in use (rate, dose, volume to infuse, medication concentration, basal rate, bolus lockout, etc.).
  • - A patient hand-off will be completed and documented each time a different clinician accepts care of the patient.
  • - Documentation of double-checks will be reflected by two signatures on required forms/flow sheets or on the AF Form 3899A.
  • (All the above)

Question 100

Question
When treating a patient for known or suspected narcotic overdose, if the patient is unresponsive to Narcan, what should be administered next?
Answer
  • Dextrose 50% IVP, repeat as needed
  • Dextrose 50% IVP one time only
  • Epinephrine 1mg IVP one time only
  • Epinephrine, 1mg
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