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ISTQB Foundation Level - 201 - 400 questions

Description

201 - 400 Questions, simulation exam
milopz
Quiz by milopz, updated more than 1 year ago
milopz
Created by milopz over 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Q. 201: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
Answer
  • A. Project plan
  • B. Business plan
  • C. Support plan
  • D. None of the above

Question 2

Question
Q. 202: To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it the test data.
Answer
  • A. Stub
  • B. Driver
  • C. Proxy
  • D. None of the above

Question 3

Question
Q. 203: Which of the following is not a static testing technique
Answer
  • A. Error guessing
  • B. Walkthrough
  • C. Data flow analysis
  • D. Inspections

Question 4

Question
Q. 204: Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
Answer
  • A. Component testing should be performed by development
  • B. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
  • C. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
  • D. Component testing does not involve regression testing

Question 5

Question
Q. 205: Inspections can find all the following except
Answer
  • A. Variables not defined in the code
  • B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
  • C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
  • D. How much of the code has been covered

Question 6

Question
Q. 206: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
Answer
  • A. Operability
  • B. Observability
  • C. Simplicity
  • D. Robustness

Question 7

Question
Q. 207: Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?
Answer
  • A. 10-20
  • B. 40-50
  • C. 70-80
  • D. 5-10

Question 8

Question
Q. 208: Equivalence partitioning is:
Answer
  • A. A black box testing technique used only by developers
  • B. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
  • C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
  • D. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing

Question 9

Question
Q. 209: If an expected result is not specified then:
Answer
  • A. We cannot run the test
  • B. It may be difficult to repeat the test
  • C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
  • D. We cannot automate the user inputs

Question 10

Question
Q. 210: How much testing is enough
Answer
  • A. This question is impossible to answer
  • B. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
  • C. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
  • D. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry

Question 11

Question
Q. 211: The purpose of requirement phase is
Answer
  • A. To freeze requirements
  • B. To understand user needs
  • C. To define the scope of testing
  • D. All of the above

Question 12

Question
Q. 212: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
Answer
  • A. Simple Loops
  • B. Nested Loops
  • C. Concatenated Loops
  • D. All of the above

Question 13

Question
Q. 213: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
Answer
  • A. White box
  • B. Black box
  • C. Green box
  • D. Yellow box

Question 14

Question
Q. 214: A reliable system will be one that:
Answer
  • A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
  • B. Is unlikely to cause a failure
  • C. Is likely to be fault-free
  • D. Is likely to be liked by the users

Question 15

Question
Q. 215: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?
Answer
  • A. Being diplomatic
  • B. Able to write software
  • C. Having good attention to detail
  • D. Able to be relied on

Question 16

Question
Q. 216: A regression test:
Answer
  • A. Will always be automated
  • B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
  • C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
  • D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing

Question 17

Question
Q. 217: Function/Test matrix is a type of
Answer
  • A. Interim Test report
  • B. Final test report
  • C. Project status report
  • D. Management report

Question 18

Question
Q. 218: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:
Answer
  • A. Top-down integration
  • B. Bottom-up integration
  • C. None of the above
  • D. Module integration

Question 19

Question
Q. 219: Verification is:
Answer
  • A. Checking that we are building the right system
  • B. Checking that we are building the system right
  • C. Performed by an independent test team
  • D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

Question 20

Question
Q. 220: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
Answer
  • A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
  • B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
  • C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
  • D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
  • E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

Question 21

Question
Q. 221: Testing should be stopped when:
Answer
  • A. All the planned tests have been run
  • B. Time has run out
  • C. All faults have been fixed correctly
  • D. Both A. and C.
  • E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested

Question 22

Question
Q. 222: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
Answer
  • A. To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
  • B. To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
  • C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
  • D. To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
  • E. To specify how the software should be divided into modules

Question 23

Question
Q. 223: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
Answer
  • A. Status accounting of configuration items
  • B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
  • C. Identification of test versions
  • D. Record of changes to documentation over time
  • E. controlled library access

Question 24

Question
Q. 224:Regression testing should be performed: v) Every week w) After the software has changed x) As often as possible y) When the environment has changed z) Wwhen the project manager says
Answer
  • A. v & w are true, x – z are false
  • B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
  • C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false
  • D. w is true, v, x y and z are false
  • E. All of the above are true

Question 25

Question
Q. 225: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
Answer
  • A. A dynamic analysis tool
  • B. A test execution tool
  • C. A debugging tool
  • D. A test management tool
  • E. A configuration management tool

Question 26

Question
Q. 226: The cost of fixing a fault:
Answer
  • A. Is not important
  • B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
  • C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
  • D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
  • E. Can never be determined

Question 27

Question
Q. 227: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
Answer
  • A. 1000, 5000, 99999
  • B. 9999, 50000, 100000
  • C. 10000, 50000, 99999
  • D. 10000, 99999
  • E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

Question 28

Question
Q. 228: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
Answer
  • A. An error
  • B. A fault
  • C. A failure
  • D. A defect
  • E. A mistake

Question 29

Question
Q. 229: Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes: 1. Led by author 2. Undocumented 3. No management participation 4. Led by a trained moderator or leader 5. Uses entry exit criteria s) Inspection t) Peer review u) Informal review v) Walkthrough
Answer
  • A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
  • B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
  • C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
  • D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
  • E. s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

Question 30

Question
Q. 230: Given the following: Switch PC on Start "outlook" IF outlook appears THEN Send an email Close outlook
Answer
  • A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
  • B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
  • C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
  • D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
  • E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

Question 31

Question
Q. 231: Test managers should not:
Answer
  • A. Report on deviations from the project plan
  • B. Sign the system off for release
  • C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
  • D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
  • E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

Question 32

Question
Q. 232: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
Answer
  • A. Business process-based testing
  • B. Performance, load and stress testing
  • C. Requirements-based testing
  • D. Usability testing
  • E. Top-down integration testing

Question 33

Question
Q. 233: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
Answer
  • A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
  • B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
  • C. The independent testing team
  • D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in
  • E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Question 34

Question
Q. 234: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
Answer
  • A. Measuring response time
  • B. Measuring transaction rates
  • C. Recovery testing
  • D. Simulating many users
  • E. Generating many transactions

Question 35

Question
Q. 235: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
Answer
  • A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
  • B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
  • C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
  • D. To know when test planning is complete
  • E. To plan when to stop testing

Question 36

Question
Q. 236: Given the following code, which is true: IF A > B THEN C = A – B ELSE C = A + B ENDIF Read D IF C = D Then Print "Error" ENDIF
Answer
  • A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
  • B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
  • C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
  • D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
  • E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Question 37

Question
Q. 237: Unreachable code would best be found using:
Answer
  • A. Code reviews
  • B. Code inspections
  • C. A coverage tool
  • D. A test management tool
  • E. A static analysis tool

Question 38

Question
Q. 238: What information need not be included in a test incident report:
Answer
  • A. How to fix the fault
  • B. How to reproduce the fault
  • C. Test environment details
  • D. Severity, priority
  • E. The actual and expected outcomes

Question 39

Question
Q. 239: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
Answer
  • A. Test items (i.e. software versions)
  • B. What is not to be tested
  • C. Test environments
  • D. Quality plans
  • E. Schedules and deadlines

Question 40

Question
Q. 240: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
Answer
  • A. Test items
  • B. Test deliverables
  • C. Test tasks
  • D. Test environment
  • E. Test specification

Question 41

Question
Q. 251: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
Answer
  • A. Equivalence partitioning
  • B. State transition testing
  • C. LCSAJ
  • D. Syntax testing
  • E. Boundary value analysis

Question 42

Question
Q. 252: Expected results are:
Answer
  • A. Only important in system testing
  • B. Only used in component testing
  • C. Never specified in advance
  • D. Most useful when specified in advance
  • E. Derived from the code

Question 43

Question
Q. 253: Beta testing is:
Answer
  • A. Performed by customers at their own site
  • B. Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
  • C. Performed by an independent test team
  • D. Useful to test bespoke software

Question 44

Question
Q. 254: Consider the following: Pick up and read the newspaper Look at what is on television If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program Otherwise Continue reading the newspaper If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
Answer
  • A. SC = 1 and DC = 1
  • B. SC = 1 and DC = 2
  • C. SC = 1 and DC = 3
  • D. SC = 2 and DC = 2
  • E. SC = 2 and DC = 3

Question 45

Question
Q. 255: A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • A. Generating expected outputs
  • B. Replaying inputs according to a programmed script
  • C. Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
  • D. Recording test inputs
  • E. Reading test values from a data file

Question 46

Question
Q. 256: Consider the following statements about early test design: i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix iii. Early test design can find faults iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements v. Early test design takes more effort
Answer
  • A. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
  • B. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
  • C. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
  • D. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
  • E. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

Question 47

Question
Q. 257: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage: Read P Read Q IF P+Q > 100 THEN Print "Large" ENDIF If P > 50 THEN Print "P Large" ENDIF
Answer
  • A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
  • B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
  • C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
  • D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
  • E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Question 48

Question
Q. 258: The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
Answer
  • A. Attend a tool exhibition
  • B. Invite a vendor to give a demo
  • C. Analyse your needs and requirements
  • D. Find out what your budget would be for the tool
  • E. Search the internet

Question 49

Question
Q. 259: Error guessing is best used
Answer
  • A. As the first approach to deriving test cases
  • B. After more formal techniques have been applied
  • C. By inexperienced testers
  • D. After the system has gone live
  • E. Only by end users

Question 50

Question
Q. 260: Exit Criteria may consist of: i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
Answer
  • A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
  • B. i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
  • C. ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
  • D. iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

Question 51

Question
Q. 261: One of the fields on a form contains a text box, which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalance class value.
Answer
  • A. CLASS
  • B. cLASS
  • C. CLass
  • D. CLa01ss

Question 52

Question
Q. 262: The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following:
Answer
  • A. Explaining the objective
  • B. Fixing defects found typically done by author
  • C. Follow up
  • D. Individual Meeting preparations

Question 53

Question
Q. 263: Peer Reviews are also called as :
Answer
  • A. Inspection
  • B. Walkthrough
  • C. Technical Review
  • D. Formal Review

Question 54

Question
Q. 264: Validation involves which of the following i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
Answer
  • A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
  • B. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
  • C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
  • D. iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.

Question 55

Question
Q. 265: Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
Answer
  • A. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
  • B. iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
  • C. i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
  • D. ii is correct

Question 56

Question
Q. 266: Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress: i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
Answer
  • A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
  • B. i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
  • C. i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
  • D. i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

Question 57

Question
Q. 267: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include: i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
Answer
  • A. i , ii,iii,iv is correct
  • B. iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
  • C. i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
  • D. iv, ii is correct

Question 58

Question
Q. 268: Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
Answer
  • A. Equivalence partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
  • B. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
  • C. Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
  • D. Equivalence Partitioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.

Question 59

Question
Q. 269: Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
Answer
  • A. State transition testing
  • B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
  • C. Syntax testing
  • D. Boundary value analysis

Question 60

Question
Q. 270: Features of White Box Testing Technique: i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data. ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program. iii. Checking for the performance of the application iv. Also checks for functionality.
Answer
  • A. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
  • B. iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
  • C. ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
  • D. iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

Question 61

Question
Q. 271. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as
Answer
  • A. Configuration Control
  • B. Status Accounting
  • C. Configuration Identification
  • D. Configuration Identification

Question 62

Question
Q. 272: The selection of a test approach should consider the context: i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team. iv. The size of the testing Team
Answer
  • A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
  • B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
  • C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
  • D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Question 63

Question
Q. 273: Benefits of Independent Testing
Answer
  • A. Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
  • B. Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
  • C. Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
  • D. Independent Testers can test better than developers

Question 64

Question
Q. 274: Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage: Disc = 0 Order-qty = 0 Read Order-qty If Order-qty >=20 then Disc = 0.05 If Order-qty >=100 then Disc =0.1 End if End if
Answer
  • A. Statement coverage is 4
  • B. Statement coverage is 1
  • C. Statement coverage is 3
  • D. Statement Coverage is 2

Question 65

Question
Q. 275: Test Conditions are derived from:
Answer
  • A. Specifications
  • B. Test Cases
  • C. Test Data
  • D. Test Design

Question 66

Question
Q. 276: Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader. i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how. iv. Create the Test Specifications
Answer
  • A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
  • B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
  • C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
  • D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Question 67

Question
Q. 277: Impact Analysis helps to decide:
Answer
  • A. How much regression testing should be done.
  • B. Exit Criteria
  • C. How many more test cases need to written.
  • D. Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

Question 68

Question
Q. 278: Drivers are also known as: i. Spade ii. Test harness iii. Scaffolding
Answer
  • A. i , ii are true and iii is false
  • B. i , iii are true and ii is false
  • C. ii , iii are true and i is false
  • D. All of the above are true

Question 69

Question
Q. 279: Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
Answer
  • A. Top down
  • B. Big-bang
  • C. Bottom up
  • D. Functional incrementation.

Question 70

Question
Q. 280: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
Answer
  • A. £4800; £14000; £28000
  • B. £5200; £5500; £28000
  • C. £28001; £32000; £35000
  • D. £5800; £28000; £32000

Question 71

Question
Q. 281: In case of Large Systems :
Answer
  • A. Only few tests should be run
  • B. Testing should be on the basis of Risk
  • C. Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
  • D. Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

Question 72

Question
Q. 282: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases? A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
Image:
a88e24cb-c2ed-403d-9470-4a579b325df9 (image/png)
Answer
  • A. A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
  • B. A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
  • C. A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
  • D. A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

Question 73

Question
Q. 283: Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
Answer
  • A. Test Planning and Control
  • B. Test implementation and Execution
  • C. Requirement Analysis
  • D. Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

Question 74

Question
Q. 284: The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as:
Answer
  • A. Anomaly Report
  • B. Defect Report
  • C. Test Defect Report
  • D. Test Incident Report

Question 75

Question
Q. 285: Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
Answer
  • A. Re Testing
  • B. Confirmation Testing
  • C. Regression Testing
  • D. Negative Testing

Question 76

Question
Q. 286: Consider the following state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?
Image:
2bed80a4-4e21-4efd-a6f1-1a1ecac022da (image/png)
Answer
  • A. OFF to ON
  • B. ON to OFF
  • C. FAULT to ON

Question 77

Question
Q. 287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing:
Answer
  • A. User Acceptance Test Cases
  • B. Integration Level Test Cases
  • C. Unit Level Test Cases
  • D. Program specifications

Question 78

Question
Q. 288: Regression testing should be performed: i. Every week ii. After the software has changed iii. As often as possible iv. When the environment has changed v. When the project manager says
Answer
  • A. i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
  • B. ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
  • C. ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
  • D. ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

Question 79

Question
Q. 289: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
Answer
  • A. Test Analysis and Design
  • B. Test Planning and control
  • C. Test Implementation and execution
  • D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 80

Question
Q. 290: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are:
Answer
  • A. Designed by persons who write the software under test
  • B. Designed by a person from a different section
  • C. Designed by a person from a different organization
  • D. Designed by another person

Question 81

Question
Q. 291: Test planning has which of the following major tasks? i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing. ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware) iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface) iv. Determining the exit criteria.
Answer
  • A. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
  • B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
  • C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
  • D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Question 82

Question
Q. 292: Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :- i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk ii. Project constraints such as time and budget iii. Size of Testing Team iv. Size of the Development Team
Answer
  • A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
  • B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
  • C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
  • D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Question 83

Question
Q. 293: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:
Answer
  • A. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
  • B. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
  • C. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
  • D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Question 84

Question
Q. 294: Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage: Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 then Print "Large" End if If p > 50 then Print "pLarge" End if
Answer
  • A. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
  • B. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
  • C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
  • D. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

Question 85

Question
Q. 295: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c System tests iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
Answer
  • A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
  • B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
  • C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
  • D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

Question 86

Question
Q. 296: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons.
Answer
  • A. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
  • B. i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
  • C. i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
  • D. All of above are true

Question 87

Question
Q. 297: Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?
Answer
  • A. Functions not to be tested.
  • B. Environmental requirements.
  • C. Analysis of Specifications.
  • D. Entry and Exit criteria.

Question 88

Question
Q. 298: If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.
Answer
  • A. 23, 24, 25
  • B. 0, 12, 25
  • C. 30, 36, 39
  • D. 32,37,40

Question 89

Question
Q. 299: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
Answer
  • A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
  • B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
  • C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.
  • D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.

Question 90

Question
Q. 300: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
Answer
  • A. $5800; $28000; $32000
  • B. $0; $200; $4200
  • C. $5200; $5500; $28000
  • D. $28001; $32000; $35000

Question 91

Question
Q. 301: Cost of the reviews will not include.
Answer
  • A. Review process itself
  • B. Metrics analysis
  • C. Tool support.
  • D. Process improvement.

Question 92

Question
Q. 302: Regression testing always involves
Answer
  • A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.
  • B. Executing a large number of different tests.
  • C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.
  • D. Using a test automation tool.

Question 93

Question
Q. 303: Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to _______
Answer
  • A. Performance testing
  • B. Recovery testing
  • C. GUI testing
  • D. User requirements.

Question 94

Question
Q. 304: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers
Answer
  • A. Dynamic analysis tool
  • B. Static Analysis tool.
  • C. Maintenance tool.
  • D. Configuration tool.

Question 95

Question
Q. 305: Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate
Answer
  • A. Number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
  • B. Number of binary decisions + 1
  • C. Number bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been executed at least once
  • D. Number of branches and decisions

Question 96

Question
Q. 306: Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.
Answer
  • A. Features to be tested.
  • B. Environmental needs.
  • C. Suspension criteria.
  • D. Expected results.

Question 97

Question
Q. 307: Software quality is not relevant to _______
Answer
  • A. Correctness
  • B. Usability
  • C. Viability
  • D. Reusability.

Question 98

Question
Q. 308: Match the following: 1. Test estimation 2. Test control 3. Test monitoring a. Measures of tracking process b. Effort required to perform activities c. Reallocation of resources
Answer
  • A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
  • B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
  • C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
  • D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

Question 99

Question
Q. 309: When do you stop testing?
Answer
  • A. When the specified number of faults are found.
  • B. When the test completion criteria are met.
  • C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.
  • D. When all statements have been executed

Question 100

Question
Q. 310: What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide 100% branch coverage? If(x>y) x=x+1; else y=y+1; while(x>y) { y=x*y; x=x+1; }
Answer
  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 3
  • D. 4

Question 101

Question
Q. 311: Match the following. 1. Configuration identification 2. Configuration control 3. Status reporting 4. Configuration auditing a. Maintains of CI’s in a library b. Checks on the contents of the library c. Function recording and tracking problems. d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known
Answer
  • A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
  • B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
  • C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
  • D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.

Question 102

Question
Q. 312: Integration testing in the large involves:
Answer
  • A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
  • B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
  • C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
  • D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.

Question 103

Question
Q. 313: One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II standards.
Answer
  • A. Random testing
  • B. Data Flow testing.
  • C. Statement testing.
  • D. Syntax testing.

Question 104

Question
Q. 314: A piece of software has been given _______what tests in the Following will you perform? 1) Test the areas most critical to business processes 2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum 3) Test the easiest functionalities
Answer
  • A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
  • B. 1,2&3 are true.
  • C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
  • D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true
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