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IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds

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Quiz on IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds, created by Rachel Nall on 07/06/2016.
Rachel Nall
Quiz by Rachel Nall, updated more than 1 year ago
Rachel Nall
Created by Rachel Nall almost 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?
Answer
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Opioids
  • Anticholinergics
  • Antisialogue

Question 2

Question
[blank_start]Midazolam[blank_end] is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is [blank_start]1[blank_end] to [blank_start]2[blank_end] milligrams IV.
Answer
  • Midazolam
  • 1
  • 2

Question 3

Question
Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?
Answer
  • Anxiety
  • Sedation
  • Amnesia
  • Analgesia

Question 4

Question
What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?
Answer
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Opioids
  • Antislalogues
  • Anticholinergics

Question 5

Question
Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?
Answer
  • Fentanyl
  • Morphine
  • Dilaudid
  • Demerol

Question 6

Question
What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?
Answer
  • 25-100 mcg
  • 25 to 50 mcg
  • 5 to 15 mg
  • 20 to 80 mcg

Question 7

Question
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?
Answer
  • Absence of direct myocardial depression
  • Less narcotic requirement postoperatively
  • Reduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively
  • Depression of the medullary ventilatory center

Question 8

Question
Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:
Answer
  • Decreased responsiveness to CO2
  • Relaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Risk of gastric aspiration
  • Direct myocardial depression
  • Greater post-op requirements for pain medications

Question 9

Question
What is the recommended dose for morphine?
Answer
  • 5 to 15 mg
  • 2 to 10 mg
  • 10 to 20 mg
  • 5 to 15 mcg

Question 10

Question
[blank_start]Robinol[blank_end] is the typical anticholinergic given.
Answer
  • Robinol

Question 11

Question
Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.
Answer
  • Antislalogue
  • Sedative and amnesic
  • Central nervous system toxicity
  • Relaxation of LES
  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Question 12

Question
Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.
Answer
  • Antislalogue
  • Sedative and amnesic effects
  • Central nervous system toxicity
  • Relaxation of LES
  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Question 13

Question
[blank_start]Mydriasis[blank_end] is dilation of the pupil. [blank_start]Scopolamine[blank_end] can cause this.
Answer
  • Mydriasis
  • Scopolamine

Question 14

Question
Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?
Answer
  • Intraoral procedures
  • Bronchoscopy
  • Fiberoptic intubations
  • Supine cases
  • Lateral cases

Question 15

Question
What are the effects of atropine?
Answer
  • Antisialagogue
  • Sedative and amnesic
  • Central nervous system toxicity
  • Relaxation of the LES
  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Question 16

Question
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.
Answer
  • Anticholinergics

Question 17

Question
Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?
Answer
  • Atropine
  • Scopolamine
  • Robinol

Question 18

Question
What is the dose for atropine?
Answer
  • 0.3 to 0.6 mg
  • 1 to 6 mg
  • 0.3 to 0.6 mcg
  • 1 to 6 mcg

Question 19

Question
The therapeutic dose for Robinol is [blank_start]0.1[blank_end] mg IV.
Answer
  • 0.1

Question 20

Question
Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of [blank_start]muscarinic[blank_end] receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like [blank_start]neostigmine[blank_end].
Answer
  • muscarinic
  • neostigmine

Question 21

Question
What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?
Answer
  • CAD
  • Mitral/Aortic stenosis
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Bradycardia

Question 22

Question
[blank_start]Proton pump inhibitors[blank_end] suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.
Answer
  • Proton pump inhibitors

Question 23

Question
The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: [blank_start]Bicitra[blank_end], [blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end], and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end].
Answer
  • Bicitra
  • Pepcid
  • Raglan

Question 24

Question
What is the dose for Bicitra?
Answer
  • 15 to 30 ml
  • 10 to 20 ml
  • 1 to 3 ml
  • 5 to 15 ml

Question 25

Question
What is the dose for Tagamet?
Answer
  • 200 to 300 mg
  • 100 to 150 mg
  • 25 to 100 mg
  • 250 to 350 mg

Question 26

Question
What is the dose for Zantac IV?
Answer
  • 25 mg
  • 50 mg
  • 75 mg
  • 100 mg

Question 27

Question
What is the dose for Pepcid?
Answer
  • 200 to 300 mg
  • 150 mg
  • 20 to 40 mg

Question 28

Question
An [blank_start]H2 antagonist[blank_end] counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.
Answer
  • H2 antagonist

Question 29

Question
Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
Answer
  • Prilosec
  • Protonix
  • Nexium
  • Prevacid
  • Pepcid

Question 30

Question
[blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end] is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is [blank_start]20[blank_end] to [blank_start]40[blank_end] mg PO.
Answer
  • Pepcid
  • 20
  • 40

Question 31

Question
[blank_start]Prokinetics[blank_end] are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.
Answer
  • Prokinetics

Question 32

Question
What is the dose for Raglan?
Answer
  • 5 mg IV
  • 10 mg IV
  • 15 mg IV
  • 20 mg IV

Question 33

Question
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end] can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.
Answer
  • Anticholinergics
  • Raglan

Question 34

Question
Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?
Answer
  • Clonidine
  • Atropine
  • Decadron
  • Haldol

Question 36

Question
What is the dose for Clonidine?
Answer
  • 0.1 to 0.3 mg
  • 1 to 2 mg
  • 20 to 40 mg
  • 0.1 to 1 mg

Question 37

Question
Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?
Answer
  • Central-acting anti-hypertensive
  • Sedation
  • Reduces incidence of MI during surgery
  • Tachycardia

Question 38

Question
[blank_start]Antihistamines[blank_end] are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.
Answer
  • Antihistamines

Question 39

Question
What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?
Answer
  • Patients with a history of PONV
  • Laparoscopic procedures
  • Women undergoing gynecologic procedures
  • Radiographic dye studies

Question 40

Question
Which of the following is not an induction agent?
Answer
  • Succinylcholine
  • Propofol
  • Etomidate
  • Brevital

Question 41

Question
The [blank_start]reticular activating system[blank_end] is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
Answer
  • reticular activating system

Question 42

Question
It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
What is the induction dose of thiopental?
Answer
  • 1 to 5 mg/kg
  • 3 to 6 mg/kg
  • 5 to 10 mg/kg
  • 10 to 15 mg/kg

Question 44

Question
What should you reconstitute thiopental with?
Answer
  • Isotonic sodium chloride
  • Lactated ringer's
  • Acidic solution
  • Vecuronium

Question 45

Question
Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for [blank_start]thiopental[blank_end].
Answer
  • thiopental

Question 46

Question
[blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.
Answer
  • Propofol

Question 47

Question
The induction dose for Propofol is:
Answer
  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Question 48

Question
The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:
Answer
  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Question 49

Question
The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:
Answer
  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Question 50

Question
A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 51

Question
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.
Answer
  • Etomidate

Question 52

Question
What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?
Answer
  • 0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg
  • 1 to 3 mg/kg
  • 20 to 40 mg/kg
  • 0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg

Question 53

Question
Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
Both [blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] and [blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.
Answer
  • Etomidate
  • Propofol

Question 55

Question
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] can cause myoclonus.
Answer
  • Etomidate

Question 56

Question
The induction dose for Brevital is:
Answer
  • 1 - 3 mg/kg
  • 2 - 4 mg/kg
  • 5 to 10 mg/kg
  • 10 to 15 mg/kg

Question 57

Question
Brevital is cleared by the liver at a [blank_start]faster[blank_end] rate than thiopental.
Answer
  • faster

Question 58

Question
Sux increases the following: 1. [blank_start]Intraocular[blank_end] pressure 2. [blank_start]Intragastric[blank_end] pressure 3. [blank_start]Intracranial[blank_end] pressure 4. [blank_start]Serum potassium levels[blank_end]
Answer
  • Intraocular
  • Intragastric
  • Intracranial
  • Serum potassium levels

Question 59

Question
The dosage for succinylcholine is:
Answer
  • 0.5 - 2 mg/kg
  • 1 - 1.5 mg/kg
  • 2 - 2.5 mg/kg
  • 3 - 5 mg/kg

Question 60

Question
Succinylcholine is a [blank_start]depolarizing[blank_end] agent.
Answer
  • depolarizing

Question 61

Question
Name the four M's of succinylcholine: 1. [blank_start]Malignant hyperthermia[blank_end] 2. [blank_start]Myalgias[blank_end] 3. [blank_start]Myocardium[blank_end] 4. [blank_start]Myopathies[blank_end]
Answer
  • Malignant hyperthermia
  • Myalgias
  • Myocardium
  • Myopathies

Question 62

Question
Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are [blank_start]nondepolarizing[blank_end] blocking drugs.
Answer
  • nondepolarizing

Question 63

Question
What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?
Answer
  • 0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
  • 1 to 8 mg/kg
  • 5 to 15 mg/kg

Question 64

Question
How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?
Answer
  • 5 minutes
  • 10 minutes
  • 20 minutes
  • one hour

Question 65

Question
What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?
Answer
  • Cardiac dysfunction
  • Liver/Kidney dysfunction
  • Diabetes
  • Lung disease

Question 66

Question
What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?
Answer
  • 0.1 mg/kg
  • 1 mg/kg
  • 2 mg/kg
  • 5 mg/kg

Question 67

Question
Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 68

Question
Intubating dose for Atracurium is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.5[blank_end] mg/kg.
Answer
  • 0.4
  • 0.5

Question 69

Question
The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:
Answer
  • 0.2 mg/kg
  • 1 mg/kg
  • 5 mg/kg
  • 10 mg/kg

Question 70

Question
Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 71

Question
Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:
Answer
  • Atracurium and Cisatracurium
  • Vecuronium and Rocuronium
  • Atracurium and Rocuronium
  • Cisatracurium and Rocuronium

Question 72

Question
Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?
Answer
  • Immobility
  • Amnesia
  • CNS Depression
  • Analgesia
  • Muscle relaxation

Question 73

Question
MAC stands for [blank_start]minimum alveolar concentration[blank_end].
Answer
  • minimum alveolar concentration

Question 74

Question
The MAC of nitrous oxide is [blank_start]105[blank_end] percent.
Answer
  • 105

Question 75

Question
Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:
Answer
  • At-risk for nausea and vomiting
  • In pregnancy
  • With suspected bowel blockage
  • At-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities

Question 76

Question
Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 77

Question
The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is [blank_start]1.2[blank_end] percent.
Answer
  • 1.2

Question 78

Question
Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by [blank_start]isoflurane[blank_end].
Answer
  • isoflurane

Question 79

Question
The MAC of desflurane is [blank_start]6[blank_end] percent.
Answer
  • 6

Question 80

Question
The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a [blank_start]fluorine[blank_end] atom for isoflurane's [blank_start]chlorine[blank_end] atom.
Answer
  • fluorine
  • chlorine

Question 81

Question
Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?
Answer
  • Desflurane
  • Isoflurane
  • Sevoflurane
  • Nitrous oxide

Question 82

Question
Wakeup times for [blank_start]desflurane[blank_end] are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.
Answer
  • desflurane

Question 83

Question
The MAC of sevoflurane is [blank_start]2[blank_end] percent.
Answer
  • 2

Question 84

Question
[blank_start]Sevoflurane[blank_end] is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.
Answer
  • Sevoflurane

Question 85

Question
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?
Answer
  • Production of compound A
  • Shouldn't be used in longer cases
  • Higher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters
  • Is degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide

Question 86

Question
[blank_start]Non depolarizing[blank_end] muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.
Answer
  • Non depolarizing
  • Depolarizing

Question 87

Question
Neostigmine is an [blank_start]anticholinesterase[blank_end]. It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.
Answer
  • anticholinesterase

Question 88

Question
The dosage for neostigmine is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.8[blank_end] mg/kg.
Answer
  • 0.8
  • 0.4

Question 89

Question
Neostigmine's duration is [blank_start]one hour[blank_end], give or take.
Answer
  • one hour

Question 90

Question
Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse [blank_start]rocuronium[blank_end] and [blank_start]vecuronium[blank_end].
Answer
  • rocuronium
  • vecuronium
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