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3DX7X Volume 2 URE

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Quiz on 3DX7X Volume 2 URE, created by Evelyn Hernandez on 15/06/2016.
Evelyn Hernandez
Quiz by Evelyn Hernandez, updated more than 1 year ago
Evelyn Hernandez
Created by Evelyn Hernandez almost 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
Answer
  • Deliberate planning.
  • Crisis action planning.
  • Mobilization planning.
  • Force rotational planning.

Question 2

Question
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
Answer
  • Volume 1.
  • Volume 2.
  • Volume 3.
  • Volume 4.

Question 3

Question
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
Answer
  • Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
  • Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
  • Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
  • Joint Staff.

Question 4

Question
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
Answer
  • Standard unit type code (UTC).
  • Joint force/capability.
  • In-lieu-of (ILO).
  • Ad hoc.

Question 5

Question
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
Answer
  • Training.
  • Personnel.
  • Facility condition.
  • Equipment condition.

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
Answer
  • Training.
  • Personnel.
  • Home station mission.
  • Equipment condition.

Question 7

Question
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
Answer
  • 10–201.
  • 10–244.
  • 10–401.
  • 10–403.

Question 8

Question
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
Answer
  • AFI 10–201.
  • AFI 10–244.
  • AFI 10–401.
  • AFI 10–403.

Question 9

Question
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
Answer
  • Pilot Units
  • Joint Planners.
  • Logistics Readiness Squadron.
  • Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.

Question 10

Question
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
Answer
  • Force protection.
  • Airfield operations.
  • Force accountability.
  • Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

Question 11

Question
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
Answer
  • force protection and logistics.
  • intelligence and force protection.
  • secure communications and intelligence.
  • secure communications and force accountability.

Question 12

Question
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
Answer
  • Robust the airbase.
  • Operate the airbase.
  • Establish the airbase
  • Generate the mission.

Question 13

Question
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
Answer
  • 2 days, 7 days.
  • 2 days, 14 days
  • 7 days, 14 days.
  • 14 days, 30 days.

Question 14

Question
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
Answer
  • Generate the mission.
  • Establish the airbase.
  • Operate the airbase.
  • Robust the airbase

Question 15

Question
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
Answer
  • Scott AFB, IL.
  • Travis AFB, CA.
  • Peterson AFB, CO.
  • Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

Question 16

Question
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
Answer
  • O–4
  • O–5.
  • O–6.
  • O–7.

Question 17

Question
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
Answer
  • Command and control.
  • Operate the airbase.
  • Robust the airbase.
  • Open the airbase.

Question 18

Question
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
Answer
  • 2 kilometers (km).
  • 4 km.
  • 8 km.
  • 16 km

Question 19

Question
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
Answer
  • Strategy.
  • Combat plans.
  • Combat support.
  • Combat operations.

Question 20

Question
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
Answer
  • MQ–9 Reaper.
  • RQ-11B Raven
  • MQ–1B Predator.
  • RQ–4B Global Hawk.

Question 21

Question
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
Answer
  • 3D0X3, Cyber Surety
  • 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
  • 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
  • 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.

Question 22

Question
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
Answer
  • 38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
  • 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
  • 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
  • 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)

Question 23

Question
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
Answer
  • 1942.
  • 1954.
  • 1988.
  • 1998.

Question 24

Question
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
Answer
  • MPTO 00–33A–1001.
  • MPTO 00–33A–1002.
  • MPTO 00–33A–2001.
  • MPTO 00–33A–2002.

Question 25

Question
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
Answer
  • funding, execute, close, and control.
  • plan, execute, monitor, and control.
  • plan, execute, close, and control
  • plan, control, close, and support.

Question 26

Question
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
Answer
  • Funding.
  • Technical solution.
  • Requirements management plan.
  • Answers, guidance, and education.

Question 27

Question
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
Answer
  • Processes.
  • Priorities.
  • Requirements.
  • Technical solutions.

Question 28

Question
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
Answer
  • Cost management plan.
  • Allied support plan.
  • Technical plan.
  • Material plan.

Question 29

Question
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
Answer
  • the status.
  • a milestone.
  • a deliverable.
  • the final result.

Question 30

Question
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
Answer
  • Status request.
  • Defect repairs.
  • Preventive action.
  • Corrective action.

Question 31

Question
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
Answer
  • AFTO Form 745.
  • AFTO Form 747
  • AFTO Form 749.
  • AF Form 1747.

Question 32

Question
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
Answer
  • major.
  • minor.
  • major and minor.
  • major and critical.

Question 33

Question
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?
Answer
  • Follow-up.
  • Controlling.
  • Organization.
  • Documenting.

Question 34

Question
Changes are requested during a project using an
Answer
  • AF Form 1146.
  • AF Form 1747.
  • AFTO Form 46.
  • AFTO Form 47.

Question 35

Question
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
Answer
  • Project monitor.
  • Project manager.
  • Communication squadron.
  • Implementing organization.

Question 36

Question
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
Answer
  • Project monitor.
  • Project manager.
  • Program action officer.
  • Program action monitor.

Question 37

Question
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
Answer
  • service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement.
  • service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
  • service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
  • service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

Question 38

Question
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
Answer
  • Service improvement.
  • Service transition.
  • Service strategy.
  • Service design.

Question 39

Question
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
Answer
  • Service design.
  • Service strategy.
  • Service transition.
  • Service operation.

Question 40

Question
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
Answer
  • 1.
  • 2.
  • 3.
  • 4.

Question 41

Question
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
Answer
  • AFI 33–115.
  • AFI 33-150
  • TO 00–33D–3001.
  • TO 00–33D–3004.

Question 42

Question
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
Answer
  • Work orders.
  • Trouble tickets.
  • Infrastructure requirements.
  • Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).

Question 43

Question
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
Answer
  • Organic.
  • Contract.
  • Inorganic.
  • Self-Help.

Question 44

Question
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
Answer
  • TO 00–33A–1001.
  • TO 00-33D-3003
  • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
  • Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).

Question 45

Question
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
Answer
  • Base Communications Systems Officer.
  • Affected Work Center.
  • Base Civil Engineer.
  • Project Managers.

Question 46

Question
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
Answer
  • Requires services from outside agencies.
  • Mobility (deployment) equipment.
  • Requires additional manpower.
  • Requires additional funding.

Question 47

Question
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
Answer
  • Concept Plan.
  • Functional Plan.
  • Supporting Plan.
  • Operational Plan.

Question 48

Question
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
Answer
  • Concept Plan.
  • Functional Plan.
  • Supporting Plan.
  • Operational Plan.

Question 49

Question
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
Answer
  • Programming Plan (PPLAN).
  • Program Action Directive (PAD).
  • Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
  • Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).

Question 50

Question
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
Answer
  • Special Measures.
  • Administration.
  • Assumptions.
  • Logistics.

Question 51

Question
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?
Answer
  • Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum.
  • Facilities Utilization Board.
  • Mission Briefings.
  • Informal Meeting.

Question 52

Question
The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for
Answer
  • safety modifications.
  • T–1 temporary modifications.
  • T–2 temporary modifications.
  • all temporary and permanent notifications.

Question 53

Question
Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?
Answer
  • Safety modifications.
  • T–1 temporary modification.
  • T-2 temporary modifications.
  • All temporary and permanent modifications.

Question 54

Question
Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?
Answer
  • Request for action and organization validation
  • Using command and lead command validation.
  • Work center manager certification and approval.
  • Program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution.

Question 55

Question
Support agreements are documented on
Answer
  • AF Form 1067.
  • DD Form 1067.
  • AF Form 1144.
  • DD Form 1144.

Question 56

Question
As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?
Answer
  • 6 months.
  • 1 year.
  • 2 years.
  • 3 years.

Question 57

Question
Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?
Answer
  • Unusual or compelling urgency.
  • Unit commander's interest.
  • National security interests.
  • Sole Source.

Question 58

Question
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?
Answer
  • 10 calendar days.
  • 30 calendar days.
  • 35 calendar days.
  • 50 calendar days.

Question 59

Question
Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates?
Answer
  • Sole Source.
  • Firm Fixed Price.
  • Time and Material
  • Performance Based.

Question 60

Question
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?
Answer
  • Sole Source.
  • Firm Fixed Price.
  • Time and Material.
  • Performance Based.

Question 61

Question
Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?
Answer
  • Sole Source
  • Firm Fixed Price.
  • Time and Material.
  • Performance Based.

Question 62

Question
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply?
Answer
  • Sole Source.
  • Time and Material
  • Indefinite Delivery.
  • Blanket Purchase Agreement

Question 63

Question
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation’s contract Quality Assurance Program?
Answer
  • Contracting Officer Representative.
  • Functional Director/Commander.
  • Quality Assurance Evaluator.
  • Contracting Office

Question 64

Question
Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?
Answer
  • Contracting Officer Representative.
  • Functional Director/Commander.
  • Quality Assurance Evaluator.
  • Contracting Office.

Question 65

Question
Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?
Answer
  • Quality Assurance Program Coordinator
  • Contracting Officer Representative.
  • Quality Assurance Evaluator.
  • Unit Contract Monitor.

Question 66

Question
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?
Answer
  • Facility Manager.
  • Quality Assurance Evaluator.
  • Functional Director/Commander.
  • Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.

Question 67

Question
What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required?
Answer
  • AF Form 332.
  • AF Form 1146.
  • DD Form 1144.
  • DD Form 1391.

Question 68

Question
Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?
Answer
  • Major Construction.
  • Minor Construction.
  • All military construction.
  • None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation.

Question 69

Question
The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is
Answer
  • $750 thousand (K).
  • $1 million (M).
  • $1.5 M.
  • $5 M.

Question 70

Question
Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?
Answer
  • Base Civil Engineering.
  • Gaining Work Center.
  • Contracting Office.
  • Quality Assurance.
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