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Examen Dani

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Quiz on Examen Dani, created by Pablo_masi on 22/06/2016.
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Quiz by Pablo_masi, updated more than 1 year ago
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Created by Pablo_masi almost 8 years ago
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Question 1

Question
We have detected the following malfunction:
Each time we are transmitting with the radio in a channel centered in 409 MHz, we find problems with the GPS. We have reduced the output power of the radio, and the problem disappears. We do not have problems between the radio and the GPS in other channels, separated 50 MHz between them. The GPS is using L2 band (1227.60 MHz). The length of the GPS cable is 10 meters and the gain of the preamplifier of the GPS antenna is 20 dB. The cable insertion loss is 0.5 dB per meter.
 Which proposals can solve this problem?
Answer
  • We propose to change the GPS antenna for another with a better filter
  • We propose to reduce the spurious emission of the radio
  • We propose to increase the gain of preamplifier of the GPS antenna
  • We propose to relocate the antennas to increase the isolation.

Question 2

Question
Concerning the directive/directional antennas, which one(s) are true:
Answer
  • With an array antenna we could electronically locate the maximum of the radiation pattern track a target and electronically locate a null of the radiation pattern to avoid jamming.
  • The main advantage of an electronically scan array antenna compared to a mechanical scan reflector antenna is the simplicity of electronically steering of the radiation pattern, which enables to design a simpler antenna avoiding the integration of motors, gears, encoders…
  • We have designed and integrated a satcom system working in X band based on a reflector+subreflector antenna. We have to move to Ku band. In general, we cannot reuse the radome.
  • We have designed and integrated a satcom system working in X band based on a reflector+subreflector antenna. We have to move to Ku band. In general, we cannot reuse the main reflector and subreflector of the antenna

Question 3

Question
Concerning the impedance of an antenna, which ones are true:
Answer
  • There is a relation between the impedance of the antenna and efficiency factor.
  • This parameter only depends on and is fixed by the matching network
  • If we know the impedance of an antenna we can evaluate the efficiency factor.
  • It can be measured, even installed on the aircraft, and could be used to check the right impedance of the antenna.

Question 4

Question
In the task of antenna location, which one(s) is(are) true:
Answer
  • The efficiency radiation of the antenna must be optimised, in the general case, by choosing the best location for the installation of the antenna.
  • The performance of the antenna installed on the aircraft is assessed, typically using electromagnetic simulation, to estimate the radiation patterns (coverage) of the antenna installed in a predefined location.
  • The performance of the antenna installed on the aircraft is assessed, typically using electromagnetic simulation, to estimate the impedance and the radiation patterns (coverage) antenna installed in a predefined location.
  • The efficiency of the antenna is not a parameter fixed during this phase. The efficiency antenna is selected/defined during the selection of the antenna phase, and assured by definition of the installation requirements.

Question 5

Question
Common use Hydraulic Reservoirs
Answer
  • All are pressurized (bootstrap) type.
  • Generally are bootstrap type and air pressurized, but not limited to.
  • Do not need pressurization. Vented type reservoir is sufficient whenever located above the pum

Question 6

Question
New high voltage levels (270 Vdc and 230 Vac) are applicable to civil and military electrical systems since they permit to:
Answer
  • Reduce electrical power demand
  • Reduce current level.
  • Increase hydraulic Systems.

Question 7

Question
Electrical power quality is determined by:
Answer
  • The electrical power generation equipments.
  • The electrical consumers.
  • The interactions of all the electrical generation and supplied equipments.

Question 8

Question
What of the following exterior lights have their illumination performances covered by the EASA Part 25 requirements?
Answer
  • Navigation lights
  • Anticollision lights.
  • Taxi lights.

Question 9

Question
Being one of the most efficient cooling systems, why liquid cooling is not so used:
Answer
  • Weight
  • Cost
  • Reliability

Question 10

Question
Redundancy in cabin pressurization outflow valves is requested: 

Answer
  • Sometimes
  • Never
  • Always

Question 11

Question
A deicing system is basically sized to limit quantity of ice accreted. What is the worst flying condition in terms of design:
Answer
  • High speed, high Outside Ambient Temperature
  • Low speed, low Outside Ambient Temperature
  • Low speed, high Outside Ambient Temperature

Question 12

Question
For the start of the APU engine on large civil aircrafts for passenger transport, the most commonly used system consists on:
Answer
  • An electrical 12VDC Starter/Generator.
  • An electrical 28VDC Starter Motor
  • An air turbine starter.

Question 13

Question
Which is the primary test platform for certification of the integrated A/C & APU system?:
Answer
  • The APU engine test cells
  • The Compatibility Tests rig.
  • The Icing Tests rig 

  • The Flight Tests aircrafts

Question 14

Question
Which are the aircraft key operational cases that are normally considered for the sizing of the APU on large civil aircrafts for passenger transport?
Answer
  • On Ground Electrical & Pneumatic power demands from the A/C systems.
  • In-Flight Electrical power demands
  • Main engine start in flight at 22Kft

Question 15

Question
Identify two drawbacks of the Fly By Wire systems in the list below.
Answer
  • They require the use of hydraulic systems to provide power to the actuators.
  • They require the use of digital computers.
  • They require a high degree of redundancy.
  • High development cost and high system clearance effort.

Question 16

Question
Which of the following statements are true for all types of Fly By Wire FCS
Answer
  • Force feedback depends on thrust and flap setting.
  • Aircraft response is tailored by the Flight Control Computers based on flight phase and system availability
  • A mechanical back-up system is required to control the aircraft after a total FBW system failure.
  • Configuration changes are easy to implement in comparison with mechanically signaled FCS.

Question 17

Question
What is the main disadvantage of the Electro Mechanical Actuator for its application in Primary FCS?
Answer
  • They require local hydraulic pumps that make the design heavy and complex.
  • They have a slow response to input commands
  • If there is a mechanical jamming, control surface remains in the last commanded position.
  • The mechanical signaling circuit is prone to jamming

Question 18

Question
What is the purpose of the self sealing fuel tanks? (choose one)
Answer
  • They reduce the risk of fire in hot areas around the fuel tanks by minimizing fuel leakage in case of a thread impact.
  • They avoid projectile penetration.
  • The avoid fuel tank explosion sealing the tank after projectile impact.

Question 19

Question
What are the two main factors to be considered in the selection of foams?
Answer
  • Density
  • Conductivity
  • Color
  • Resistance to fuel exposure

Question 20

Question
Which are the key features of the Solid State Power Controller?
Answer
  • Electronic component based on power semiconductors
  • Remote control/monitor capability
  • Mechanical trip device activated by the heating

Question 21

Question
Why large aircrafts generally use Hydraulic Powered Actuation Systems? (MASI12)
Answer
  • High hydro-mechanical stiffness and associated high frequency response is relevant for flight control actuation. Additional typical factors are good response time, efficiency, reliability and robustness of hydro-mechanical systems when compared with another systems.
  • High hydro-mechanical stiffness and associated high frequency response is relevant for flight control actuation. Additional typical factors are response time and efficiency but not reliability and robustness, when compared with another Systems.
  • Stiffness and response time are equivalent to electrically powered actuators, as EHAs, that intrinsically does not use hydraulics but purely consist in an electrical actuators, and are .. used in latest aircaft developments aircraft. Additional factors are response time, efficiencym reliability and robustness of hydro-mechanical systems when compared with another systems

Question 22

Question
GPS accurate depends on:
Answer
  • The last time from initial position.
  • The integration with the Inertial Navigation System
  • The air temperature
  • The number of satellites in view and the proper geometry.

Question 23

Question
The TACAN system is a military radio navigation aid that:
Answer
  • is able to provide absolute bearing and slant range to the ground station.
  • Provides geographical coordinates based on the integration of measured accelerations.
  • Provides a range function fully compatible with the one provided by DME.
  • Provides a bearing function based in the difference in phase of two pair of reference and 
variable phase signals. One of 15 Hz and another of 135 Hz.

Question 24

Question
Flight Management System computes aircraft position based on
Answer
  • Their own integrated pòsition sensors.
  • The pilot manual inputs.
  • Available aircraft navigation sensors with priority on their accuracy.
  • GPS only.

Question 25

Question
VOR receiver cockpit incorporates the following function
Answer
  • Course Deviation Indicator (CDI), which is a horizontal needle that moves laterally along a row of dots, each dot representing two degrees.
  • Omni Bearing Selector (OBS) which appears as a rotating latitude dial which provides for bearing selection.
  • Omni Bearing Selector (OBS) which appears as a rotating azimuth dial which provides for bearing selection
  • TO/FROM Indicator informs whether the aircraft bearing is “to” or “from” the VOR.

Question 26

Question
Low and High RNAV routes are identified into the Aeronautical Chart by the letter:
Answer
  • “L” and “H” respectively.
  • “T” and “Q” respectively.
  • “V” and “J” respectively
  • “RNAV T” and “RNAV Q” respectively.

Question 27

Question
The three components of PBN concepts are
Answer
  • Navigation application, Navigation Specification and Navigation Monitoring and Alerting
  • Navigation application, Navigation Specification and Navigation Infrastructure
  • Navigation Specification, Airspace Definition and System Performances.
  • Navigation application, Navigation Specification and Global Navigation Constellation.

Question 28

Question
Which of the following guidance systems are used in air to air missiles?
Answer
  • IR passive sensor.
  • UV passive senso
  • Active radar guidance.
  • Laser/GPS guidance.

Question 29

Question
Which sentence better suits the definition of Jettison?
Answer
  • Uncommanded release of not armed weapons
  • Uncommanded release of armed weapons
  • Commanded release of armed weapons.
  • Commanded release of not armed weapons.

Question 30

Question
What is a DIRCM?
Answer
  • Metal-coated dielectric fibers that, when dispensed in large numbers, can produce strong radar echoes.
  • A flare that burns with an IR wavelength similar to the target aircraft IR signature.
  • Infrared countermeasure system that tracks and directs energy towards the threat.
  • A decoy attached to a thin cable, which can gradually be reeled out behind the aircraft, to confuse an enemy and draw his radar, or the seeker of an approaching radar guided missile.

Question 31

Question
Which of the following characteristics are true for IR Missile Approach Warning?
Answer
  • It is a passive sensor.
  • It detects the IR emission from the missile body and plume.
  • Farther detection range than UV Missile Approach Warning.
  • Only one sensor provides full coverage.

Question 32

Question
When the IR seekers of a modern short range missile acquire the target IR emissions…
Answer
  • There are no short range missiles with IR seeker
  • Can detect the IR emissions before or after it is fired
  • Always detects the IR emissions before it is fired.
  • Always detects the IR emissions after it is fired.

Question 33

Question
Which of the following list of elements completely define a UAS? :
Answer
  • Air Vehicle and Ground Segment.
  • UAV + GCS.
  • AV + COMMs + AMS + GCS
  • None of them.

Question 34

Question
The payload capacity of a UAS is based on the available:
Answer
  • Weight, volume and power on the AV.
  • Number of different payloads that can be integrated.
  • Its growth potential (HW & SW) to manage multi-payloads
  • Volume, weight and power both on ground and onboard

Question 35

Question
3. Military RPAs traffic which does not comply with ICAO rules and procedures is termed (choose one):
Answer
  • Operational Air Traffic
  • Governmental Air Traffic
  • General Air Traffic.
  • State aircrafts.

Question 36

Question
Which category of ground segment architecture implicity requests handover capability?
Answer
  • Portable
  • Distributed
  • Deployable
  • None of them.

Question 37

Question
From the point of view of technology development in UAS, what are considered the main challenge UAS integration:
Answer
  • Navigation and ATC communication
  • Regulation and social acceptance.
  • Data Links reliability and Sense and Avoid capability
  • Data Links and Navigation.

Question 38

Question
In the Continuous Wave radar transmission method, which of the following target information is/are provided by the Doppler effect?
Answer
  • Speed of the target
  • Presence of the target
  • Relative bearing of the target

Question 39

Question
Frequency-modulated radars transmit a wave that continuously changes in frequency about a center frequency. Using frequency modulation, the range to a target is determined by using which of the following methods?
Answer
  • By comparing the frequency of the transmitted signal with the returned frequency from the target
  • By comparing the magnitude of the transmitted pulses with the magnitude of returned pulses
  • By comparing the velocity of the received energy with the velocity of the transmitted energy
  • By measuring the doppler shift that occurs in the returning signal

Question 40

Question
Which of the following flight conditions are optimal for SAR image generation?
Answer
  • Straight and level flight, high constant speed, direct to target.
  • Straight flight, low speed, direct to target.
  • Straight and level flight, high constant speed, target approximately at 90º (270º) bearing from ground track (own aircraft course).
  • Orbit (circular) flight path centered in the target, maximum roll of 5º.

Question 41

Question
Select the correct answer(s): the waveguide runs…
Answer
  • should be always pressurized using dedicated compressors
  • must have a minimum air density, to avoid arcing effects during radar transmission.
  • admit structural stress, so they can be used to support other structures in the airframe
  • should be designed to minimize the number of joints, bends and turns, to reduce insertion loss.

Question 42

Question
The TAWS mode 7 provides:
Answer
  • Protection against descent below minimum height.
  • Windshear caution and warning.
  • Protection against altitude lost after take-off.
  • Landing gear up advisory.

Question 43

Question
Enhanced GPWS modes are based on:
Answer
  • The use of aircraft inertial navigation system
  • The use of aircraft roll altitude signal.
  • The use of terrain elevation databases.
  • The use of embedded GPS receivers

Question 44

Question
Pulsed doppler radar
Answer
  • he radial speed measurement is ambiguous
  • the range measurement is ambiguous
  • monopulse techniques can not be applied
  • a coherent transmitter is required

Question 45

Question
Select from the following set of sentences concerning the Auxiliary Systems, the sentence(s) you believe are true:
Answer
  • The CVR installation includes an automatic means to stop the recorder and prevent the erasure feature from functioning within 10 minutes after crash impact.
  • The CVR records a time reference for synchronization with the FDR data. 

  • The ELT cannot be manually activated by the pilots.
  • The Passenger Address transmission can be activated only through the Audio Management System

Question 46

Question
Select, from the following set of sentences concerning COMSEC/TRANSEC, the sentence(s) that you believe are true
Answer
  • Aircraft wirings carrying back signals should always be electromagnetically protected to avoid its “contamination” with red signals.
  • The integrity of messages is best protected when using analogic transmission techniques
  • Protected radio modes always rely on the availability of precise time data from a GPS receiver.
  • COMSEC keys cannot be edited in flight by the Pilot Non-Flying
  • Communication in the civil ATC band (118-137 MHz) provides secure authentication of the calling party.

Question 47

Question
Assume you receive a requirement from the French Air Force to install a protected communication system operating in the UHF band. Select those response(s) which fulfill that requirement:
Answer
  • One V/UHF transponder qualified for SINCGARS operation and one antenna.
  • One V/UHF radio fitted with embedded COMSEC, plus one control unit and one tuneable antenna.
  • One V/UHF radio qualified for HAVE QUICK
  • One V/UHF transponder qualified for PR4G standard with embedded COMSEC device
  • One V/UHF radio and an external SELCAL cryptographic device

Question 48

Question
Select, from the following set of sentence concerning the Aeronautical Telecommunication Network (ATN), the sentence(s) you believe are true
Answer
  • Subnetworks are, along with Intermediate Systems (IS) (or ATN routers) and End Systems (ES), one of the parts of the ATN modl, and have to be designed according to the protocol layers of the ATN model.
  • ATN is only defined for OSI (Open System Interconnection) reference model.
  • The ATN/OSI model became the standard solution because this solution was highly supported by the industry.
  • Context Management (CM), Flight Information Services (FIS) and Controller Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC) are three examples of ATN applications.

Question 49

Question
Select, from the following set of sentences concerning the Satellite Communications Systems (SATCOM), the sentence(s) you believe are true
Answer
  • Provision of broadband high speed data solutions (as the ones available in business jets to provide internet connections, VPN, etc.) in SATCOM systems is typically supported by means of communications in the L-band.
  • n military SATCOM systems, airborne terminals usually follow an standardization process before integration
.
  • In current civil SATCOM systems, terminals and antennas are not standardized, and each service provider has its own terminals, which has been identified as a potential problem for interoperability in the development of future communication services.
  • Current satellite communication systems provide enough communication capacity to the operational concept defined in the context of the Future Communication Infrastructure (FCI), as proved by different studies performed by EUROCONTROL and FAA in the joint Action Plan 17 (AP17), and therefore development of new services is not a priority in the medium term.

Question 50

Question
From the following set of sentences concerning the future communication infrastructure that at this moment is under development (SESAR programme, European ATM Masterplan / NextGen – FAA), the sentence(s) you believe are true
Answer
  • Communications systems for airport surface (AeroMACS) is bases on optical fiber connections because of the high bandwidth that this kind of connections is able to provide.
  • Use of software defined radio along with multiband antennas has being proposed as an alternative to provide a flexible airborne architecture.
  • Satellite communication systems (SATCOM) for ATS services will be progressively replaced by the most reliable new terrestrial datalinks and finally will be disabled in 2020 when these terrestrial datalinks will be fully operative.
  • Air forces of all countries in the European Union signed a cooperative agreement in March 2012 to use for ATC communications the Shared ATC System (SAS) with the virtual military ATC center created in the Maastrich Up

Question 51

Question
Select, from the following set of sentences, concerning the High Frequency (HF)communication system, the sentence(s) that you believe are true:
Answer
  • The range for HF communications is mainly due to the low attenuation of the ground wave at these frequencies. 


  • The range for HF communications is mainly due to the ability of radio signals at these frequencies of having reflections at the ionized levels of the atmosphere.
  • Lowest usable frequency (LUF) is higher at night.
  • Maximum usable frequency (MUF) is highly dependent on the cycle of solar activity.

Question 52

Question
The Design Eye Position (DEP):
Answer
  • Is taken into account in the Flight Deck design process and is adjusted for different anthropometric population
  • Is a point fixed in relation to the airplane structure at which the pilot’s eyes should be located when seated at the normal position
  • Is taken into account in the Flight Deck internal components arrangement and is not in relation with Forward Fuselage Design.

Question 53

Question
The HUD/HMD: 

Answer
  • Symbology have to be very similar to the Head-Down PFD from consistency point of view to reduce flight crew workload.
  • Selection of De-clutter function removes essential symbology from the HUD and the following symbols will be affected: Attitude, Speed, Altitude, and Heading.
  • Is able to present Enhanced Vision System image of the real world in order to enable pilots to fly with greater confidence and safety under the most challenging visual conditions.

Question 54

Question
The main advantage of electronic ink displays (e-ink) versus conventional LCD or plasma displays is:
Answer
  • The power consumption is very lower (only during updating slot).
  • better color and grayscale
  • are faster.

Question 55

Question
The Human Factors Engineering goals are:
Answer
  • To entirely prevent and predict flight crew error.
  • To maximize the ability of the flight crew operate the airplane.
  • To minimize flight crew error occurrence and manage its effec

Question 56

Question
The following requirements must be considered in a Flight Crew Alerting System:
Answer
  • Emergency alert condition shall require immediate corrective action by the crew
  • Red Warning Messages shall remain presented until the causative condition has been corrected in order to reduce workload.
  • The colour of the Advisory signal shall be aviation yellow.

Question 57

Question
Choose a System Operation lesson learned:
Answer
  • It is possible to specify hard and fast rules to be applied when operating a system.
  • Experience and expertise are crucial to select the most effective method of operation.
  • System operation syllabus and training must provide an expert knowledge of system operation.
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