Question 1
Question
What are the two systems of measurements?
Question 2
Question
[blank_start]1[blank_end] Gy = [blank_start]100[blank_end] rad
[blank_start]1[blank_end] rad = [blank_start]1[blank_end] cGy
Answer
-
1
-
10
-
100
-
100
-
10
-
1
-
1
-
10
-
100
-
1
-
10
-
100
Question 3
Question
X-rays can ionize substances by removing electrons from their orbits. This process results in a free, [blank_start]negatively[blank_end] charged electron and leaves the remainder of the atom with a [blank_start]positive[blank_end] charge
Answer
-
negatively
-
positively
-
positive
-
negative
Question 4
Question
Laws of Bergonié and Tribondeau
1. Age. [blank_start]Younger[blank_end] cells are more sensitive than [blank_start]older[blank_end] ones.
2. Differentiation. [blank_start]Nonspecialized[blank_end] cells are more sensitive than [blank_start]highly complex[blank_end] ones.
3. Metabolic rate. Cells that use energy [blank_start]rapidly[blank_end] are more sensitive than those with a [blank_start]slower[blank_end] metabolism.
4. Mitotic rate. Cells that divide and multiply rapidly are [blank_start]more[blank_end] sensitive than those that replicate slowly.
Answer
-
Nonspecialized
-
Highly complex
-
highly complex
-
nonspecialized
-
rapidly
-
slowly
-
slower
-
faster
-
Younger
-
Older
-
older
-
younger
-
more
-
less
Question 5
Question
Nerve and cortical bone cells are insensitive to radiation.
Question 6
Question
Short term effects are observed within how much time of exposure?
Answer
-
3 months
-
3 years
-
30 months
-
30 years
Question 7
Question
Short term effects are associated with high doses greater than [blank_start]50[blank_end] cGy
Question 8
Question
Short-term effects can be further categorized according to the body system affected: central nervous system, gastrointestinal, and hematologic (blood-related) effects.
Question 9
Question
[blank_start]Somatic effects[blank_end]: Those that affect the body of the irradiated individual directly
[blank_start]Genetic effects[blank_end]: Occur as a result of damage to the reproductive cells of the irradiated person and may be observed as defects in the children or grandchildren of the irradiated individual
Answer
-
Somatic effects
-
Genetic effects
-
Genetic effects
-
Somatic effects
Question 10
Question
The time required for long-term effects to manifest is generally considered to be [blank_start]5[blank_end] to [blank_start]30[blank_end] years, with the greatest percentage occurring between [blank_start]10[blank_end] and [blank_start]15[blank_end] years
Answer
-
5
-
1
-
2
-
10
-
30
-
15
-
50
-
45
-
10
-
15
-
5
-
20
-
15
-
10
-
20
-
25
Question 11
Question
Genes that are expressed are said to be [blank_start]dominant[blank_end], and those that are not expressed are called [blank_start]recessive[blank_end]. Mutated genes are usually [blank_start]recessive[blank_end]
Answer
-
dominant
-
recessive
-
recessive
-
dominant
-
recessive
-
dominant
Question 12
Question
What is the most common method of dose reduction used by radiographers?
Question 13
Question
For occupationally exposed personnel, the upper effective dose (ED) limit is [blank_start]50[blank_end] mSv ([blank_start]5[blank_end] rem) per year. This limit applies to workers older than [blank_start]18[blank_end] years who are not pregnant, and it is assumed to be a whole-body dose. These limits apply to occupational exposure only
Answer
-
50
-
30
-
10
-
20
-
5
-
3
-
1
-
2
-
18
-
16
-
21
-
13
Question 14
Question
Patient dose is directly proportional to the [blank_start]mAs[blank_end]
Question 15
Question
The combination of high kVp and low mAs is referred to as what kind of exposure?
Question 16
Question
[blank_start]Shadow shields[blank_end]: Shields attached to the collimator
[blank_start]Contact shields[blank_end]: Shields placed on or near the patient
Answer
-
Shadow shields
-
Contact shields
-
Contact shields
-
Shadow shields
Question 17
Question
The [blank_start]top[blank_end] of the male shield is placed 0 to 1 inches inferior to the symphysis pubis. The [blank_start]lower[blank_end] edge of the female shield is placed 0 to 1 inches superior to the symphysis pubis.
Question 18
Question
The greatest risks for spontaneous abortion, fetal death, and significant birth defects exist when significant levels of exposure occur during what trimester of pregnancy?
Answer
-
First trimester
-
Second trimester
-
Third trimester
Question 19
Question
The ED limit of whole body radiation for a pregnant worker is 30 mSv over a 9 month period
Question 20
Question
Short-term, predictable radiation effects typically occur as a result of:
Answer
-
High doses of radiation exposure, such as those received in radiation therapy
-
Low doses of radiation, such as those received in diagnostic imaging
-
Occupational radiation exposure
-
Low-dose exposure during pregnancy
Question 21
Question
The term radiation sickness refers to:
Answer
-
Occupational radiation effects
-
Congenital illness owing to genetic effects
-
Short-term gastrointestinal effects
-
Any stochastic effect
Question 22
Question
What is the federal agency governing workplace safety in the United States?
Question 23
Question
The three components that must be present for a fire to burn are a flammable substance (fuel), oxygen, and heat.
Question 24
Question
Hospital fires can be traced to what cause(s)?
Answer
-
Spontaneous combustion
-
Open flames
-
Cigarette smokers
-
Electricity
Question 25
Question
[blank_start]Class A[blank_end]: Involves solid common combustibles, such as paper or wood
[blank_start]Class K[blank_end]: Involves cooking media, for example oils and animal fats
[blank_start]Class D[blank_end]: Involve certain combustible solids, such as metal alloys
[blank_start]Class C[blank_end]: Involve electrical equipment or wiring
[blank_start]Class B[blank_end]: Involve flammable liquids or gases
Answer
-
Class A
-
Class K
-
Class D
-
Class C
-
Class B
-
Class K
-
Class A
-
Class D
-
Class C
-
Class B
-
Class D
-
Class C
-
Class B
-
Class A
-
Class K
-
Class C
-
Class B
-
Class A
-
Class K
-
Class D
-
Class B
-
Class A
-
Class K
-
Class C
-
Class D
Question 26
Question
Dry chemical extinguisher is suitable for what classification(s) of fire?
Answer
-
Class A
-
Class B
-
Class C
-
Class D
-
Class K
Question 27
Question
Which of the following is not a typical component of a spill kit?
Answer
-
Nitrile gloves
-
Mop
-
Kitty litter
-
Plastic bags
Question 28
Question
Latex gloves should be used when cleaning up hazardous materials.
Question 29
Question
What federal agency is concerned with the safe disposal of hazardous waste?
Question 30
Question
[blank_start]Ergonomics[blank_end]: The study of the human body in relation to the working environment
[blank_start]Body mechanics[blank_end]: The principles of proper body alignment, movement, and balance
Answer
-
Ergonomics
-
Body mechanics
-
Body mechanics
-
Ergonomics
Question 31
Question
The body is most stable when the center of gravity is [blank_start]nearest[blank_end] the center of the base of support.
Question 32
Question
Bending and twisting the back while lifting is a common cause of back strain
Question 33
Question
The most common injury reported by health care workers are muscoskeletal disorders
Question 34
Question
80% of sonographers experience some form of work related injury, usually in the form of RMIs and RSIs affecting the shoulder, arm, or wrist.
Question 35
Question
MSDS documents are likely to be needed in the event of:
Answer
-
Fall
-
Fire
-
Chemical spill
-
Electrical problem
Question 36
Question
[blank_start]Pathogens[blank_end]: Disease causing organisms
[blank_start]Normal flora[blank_end]: Beneficial organisms
Answer
-
Pathogens
-
Normal flora
-
Normal flora
-
Pathogens
Question 37
Question
[blank_start]Anaerobes[blank_end]: Bacteria that will not grow in the presence of oxygen
[blank_start]Obligate aerobes[blank_end]: Bacteria that require oxygen to grow
[blank_start]Facultative organisms[blank_end]: Bacteria that can adapt and grow under oxygenated and non-oxygenated conditions
Answer
-
Anaerobes
-
Obligate aerobes
-
Facultative organisms
-
Obligate aerobes
-
Anaerobes
-
Facultative organisms
-
Facultative organisms
-
Anaerobes
-
Obligate aerobes
Question 38
Question
Endospores are a resistant form of the bacterium that is produced within the cell when environmental conditions are unfavorable
Question 39
Question
Microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing disease are referred to as:
Answer
-
Pathogens
-
Endospores
-
Microbial flora
-
Parasites
Question 40
Question
Bacteria can be classified or grouped based on:
Answer
-
Staining
-
Oxygen requirements
-
Shape
-
All of the bove
Question 41
Question
Microorganisms classified as acid-fast are a type of:
Answer
-
Virus
-
Bacteria
-
Rickettsiae
-
Protozoa
Question 42
Question
HAI stands for an infection that was formerly referred to as:
Answer
-
Multi-drug resistant
-
Nosocomial
-
Epidemic
-
Blooborne
Question 43
Question
The most complete source of information about infectious diseases in the United States is the:
Question 44
Question
The risk of contracting HIV from a needle stick injury is:
Question 45
Question
What organization studies, collects, and compiles infection data from every country in the world and makes this information available worldwide?
Question 46
Question
Nosocomial infections occur [blank_start]48[blank_end] hours after being admitted to the hospital
Question 47
Question
Which of the following hepatitis virus(es) are transmitted through food and water contaminated with feces?
Answer
-
Hepatitis A
-
Hepatitis B
-
Hepatitis C
-
Hepatitis D
-
Hepatits E
Question 48
Question
Hepatitis [blank_start]B[blank_end] is more infectious than hepatitis [blank_start]C[blank_end]
Question 49
Question
There is only a vaccine for hepatits [blank_start]A[blank_end] and [blank_start]B[blank_end]; none for [blank_start]C[blank_end]
Answer
-
A
-
B
-
C
-
D
-
E
-
B
-
A
-
C
-
D
-
E
-
C
-
A
-
B
-
D
-
E
Question 50
Question
Which of the following terms best describes assertive behavior?
Answer
-
Forceful
-
Persuasive
-
Firm
-
Argumentative
Question 51
Question
Deaf patients and hearing impaired patients differ in that deaf patients:
Answer
-
Will not respond to sounds outside their field of vision
-
May use ASL as their primary means of communication
-
Often move socially within a deaf community
-
All of the above
Question 52
Question
The onset of chronic conditions is most common during which of the following life stages?
Answer
-
Adolescence
-
Young adult
-
Middle adult
-
Old adult
Question 53
Question
What is the order in which people deal with dying?
1. [blank_start]Denial[blank_end]
2. [blank_start]Anger[blank_end]
3. [blank_start]Bargaining[blank_end]
4. [blank_start]Depression[blank_end]
5. [blank_start]Acceptance[blank_end]
Answer
-
Denial
-
Anger
-
Bargaining
-
Depression
-
Acceptance
Question 54
Question
[blank_start]Attitude[blank_end]: A state of mind, an opinion, or a feeling often revealed by body position, tone of voice, or other nonverbal signals
[blank_start]Manners[blank_end]: Are customs that express respect and are sometimes referred to as the oil that makes daily contacts run smoothly
[blank_start]Ethnic[blank_end]: Characteristics of individuals were originally identified by specific areas of the globe
[blank_start]Culture[blank_end]: Is determined by language and by the customs commonly observed
Answer
-
Attitude
-
Manners
-
Ethnic
-
Culture
-
Manners
-
Attitude
-
Ethnic
-
Culture
-
Ethnic
-
Attitude
-
Manners
-
Culture
-
Culture
-
Attitude
-
Manners
-
Ethnic
Question 55
Question
Age specific communication
Neonate and Infant: Birth to [blank_start]1 year[blank_end]
Toddler: [blank_start]1[blank_end] to [blank_start]2[blank_end] years
Preschooler: [blank_start]3[blank_end] to [blank_start]5[blank_end] years
School age: [blank_start]6[blank_end] to [blank_start]12[blank_end] years
Adolescent: [blank_start]13[blank_end] to [blank_start]18[blank_end] years
Young adult: [blank_start]19[blank_end] to [blank_start]45[blank_end] years
Middle adult: [blank_start]46[blank_end] to [blank_start]64[blank_end] years
Late adult: [blank_start]65[blank_end] to [blank_start]79[blank_end] years
Old adult: [blank_start]80[blank_end] years and older
Answer
-
1 year
-
2 years
-
1
-
2
-
2
-
4
-
3
-
5
-
5
-
6
-
6
-
7
-
12
-
13
-
13
-
14
-
18
-
17
-
19
-
18
-
45
-
40
-
46
-
41
-
64
-
65
-
65
-
66
-
79
-
80
-
80
-
81
Question 56
Question
[blank_start]Virion[blank_end]: A fully developed viral particle made up of genetic material
[blank_start]Prion[blank_end]: Smallest and least understood of all pathogens
[blank_start]Fomite[blank_end]: An object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms
[blank_start]Vector[blank_end]: An arthropod in whose body an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious to a new host
[blank_start]Vehicle[blank_end]: Any medium that transports microorganisms
Answer
-
Virion
-
Prion
-
Fomite
-
Vector
-
Vehicle
-
Prion
-
Virion
-
Fomite
-
Vector
-
Vehicle
-
Fomite
-
Virion
-
Prion
-
Vector
-
Vehicle
-
Vector
-
Virion
-
Prion
-
Fomite
-
Vehicle
-
Vehicle
-
Virion
-
Prion
-
Fomite
-
Vector
Question 57
Question
What is the classification and mode of transmission for the following respiratory diseases?
Giardiasis: [blank_start]Protozoan[blank_end] / [blank_start]Vehicle, contact[blank_end]
Whooping cough: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Droplet[blank_end]
Pneumonia, thrush in infants: [blank_start]Fungus[blank_end] / [blank_start]Droplet[blank_end]
Salmonellosis: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Vehicle, contact[blank_end]
Tuberculosis: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Airborne[blank_end]
Infectious diarrhea: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Vehicle, contact[blank_end]
Mumps: [blank_start]Virus[blank_end] / [blank_start]Droplet[blank_end]
Strep throat: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Droplet[blank_end]
Poliomyelitis: [blank_start]Virus[blank_end] / [blank_start]Vehicle, contact[blank_end]
Diphtheria: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Droplet[blank_end]
Answer
-
Protozoan
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Virus
-
Fungus
-
Fungus
-
Fungus
-
Protozoan
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Virus
-
Fungus
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Virus
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Virus
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Bacterium
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Virus
-
Protozoan
-
Bacterium
-
Fungus
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Virus
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Droplet
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Airborne
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Droplet
-
Airborne
-
Airborne
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Droplet
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Droplet
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Airborn
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Droplet
-
Vehicle, contact
-
Airborne
Question 58
Question
What is the classification for the following genitourinary tract diseases?
Cystitis, nephritis: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end]
Herpes: [blank_start]Virus[blank_end]
Gonorrhea: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end]
Syphilis: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end]
Answer
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Fungus
-
Protozoan
-
Virus
-
Bacterium
-
Fungus
-
Protozoan
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
Question 59
Question
What is the classification and mode of transmission for the following skin diseases?
Chicken pox, shingles: [blank_start]Virus[blank_end] / [blank_start]Contact[blank_end], [blank_start]Airborne[blank_end]
Surgical wound infection: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Contact[blank_end]
Blisters: [blank_start]Virus[blank_end] / [blank_start]Contact[blank_end]
Boils, wound infection: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Contact[blank_end]
Ringworm, athlete's foot: [blank_start]Fungus[blank_end] / [blank_start]Contact[blank_end]
Measles: [blank_start]Virus[blank_end] / [blank_start]Airborne[blank_end]
Answer
-
Virus
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Virus
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Virus
-
Fungus
-
Virus
-
Protozoan
-
Bacterium
-
Virus
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Contact
-
Vehicle
-
Droplet
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Vehicle
-
Vector
-
Vector
-
Contact
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Vehicle
-
Contact
-
Airborne
-
Vehicle
-
Vector
-
Contact
-
Vehicle
-
Vector
-
Airborne
-
Contact
-
Airborne
-
Vector
-
Droplet
-
Airborne
-
Contact
-
Vehicle
-
Vector
Question 60
Question
What is the classification and mode of transmission for the following blood diseases?
Malaria: [blank_start]Protozoan[blank_end] / [blank_start]Vectors[blank_end]
Typhoid fever: [blank_start]Bacterium[blank_end] / [blank_start]Vehicle[blank_end], [blank_start]contact[blank_end]
Answer
-
Protozoan
-
Virus
-
Fungus
-
Bacterium
-
Bacterium
-
Protozoan
-
Fungus
-
Virus
-
Vectors
-
Vehicle
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Vehicle
-
Airborne
-
Vectors
-
Droplet
-
Contact
-
Airborne
-
Droplet
-
Vectors
Question 61
Question
Put the cycle of infection in order
1. [blank_start]Infectious organisms[blank_end]
2. [blank_start]Reservoir of infection[blank_end]
3. [blank_start]Portal of exit[blank_end]
4. [blank_start]Susceptible host[blank_end]
5. [blank_start]Port of entry[blank_end]
6. [blank_start]Transmission of disease[blank_end]
Answer
-
Infectious organisms
-
Reservoir of infection
-
Portal of exit
-
Susceptible host
-
Port of entry
-
Transmission of disease
Question 62
Question
[blank_start]Passive Immunity[blank_end]: Occurs following an injection of performed antibodies to a particular infection
[blank_start]Acquired immunity[blank_end]: Occurs when an individual develops antibodies to a particular organism as a result of either infection or immunization
[blank_start]Natural resistance[blank_end]: Provided by mechanical barriers of intact skin and mucous membranes
Answer
-
Passive Immunity
-
Acquired immunity
-
Natural resistance
-
Acquired immunity
-
Passive immunity
-
Natural resistance
-
Natural resistance
-
Acquired immunity
-
Passive immunity
Question 63
Question
Patients on antibiotics are least susceptible to healthcare associated infections
Question 64
Question
[blank_start]Disinfection[blank_end]: The destruction of pathogens by using chemical materials
[blank_start]Sterilization[blank_end]: Treating items with heat, gas, or chemicals to make them germ free
Answer
-
Disinfection
-
Sterilization
-
Sterilization
-
Disinfection
Question 65
Question
Health care workers and visitors entering the room of an infectious person under airborne precaution must wear masks that can filter particles that are [blank_start]1[blank_end] microns in size.
Question 66
Question
Patients under airborne precautions are placed in rooms with positive airflow
Question 67
Question
No special air circulation is required in rooms containing patients under droplet precautions
Question 68
Question
Under the system of protective precautions, the radiographer who positions the patient is the "dirty" member of the team
Question 69
Answer
-
Supine
-
Prone
-
Lithotomy
-
Knee-chest
-
Trendelenburg
-
Semi-fowler's
-
Fowler's
-
Sims'
-
Lateral
Question 70
Question
It is important to check the patient chart for I&O orders when patients:
Answer
-
Arrive in the imaging department
-
Are ready to leave the imaging department
-
Request a drink of water
-
Are receiving intravenous fluids
Question 71
Question
Which of the following positions is considered safe for a patient who is nauseated and may vomit?
Answer
-
Sims'
-
Prone
-
Trendelenburg
-
Lateral recumbent
Question 72
Question
The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to:
Question 73
Question
It is most comfortable for a patient with abdominal pain to be positioned:
Question 74
Question
Which position is helpful when treating patients suffering from shock?
Answer
-
Trendelenburg
-
Fowler's
-
Semi-fowler's
-
Supine
Question 75
Question
Decubitus ulcers is also known as bed-sores