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3rd Lecture Exam Part 3

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Quiz on 3rd Lecture Exam Part 3, created by Sunny-ko on 11/04/2014.
Sunny-ko
Quiz by Sunny-ko, updated more than 1 year ago
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Created by Sunny-ko about 10 years ago
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Question 1

Question
The secondary stage of syphilis
Answer
  • is when the patient is no longer infectious to others.
  • occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
  • is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.
  • has no symptoms.
  • is when gummas develop in tissues.

Question 2

Question
During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?
Answer
  • primary
  • secondary
  • tertiary
  • latent
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 3

Question
Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?
Answer
  • primary
  • secondary
  • tertiary
  • latent
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 4

Question
Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all
Answer
  • obligate parasites requiring host cells.
  • curved rods.
  • transmitted by arthropod vectors.
  • spirochetes.
  • bacteria without cell walls.

Question 5

Question
Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that
Answer
  • are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues.
  • are sexually transmitted.
  • are caused by arthropod vectors.
  • are caused by Vibrio species
  • are respiratory tract infections.

Question 6

Question
Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their
Answer
  • feces
  • blood
  • urine
  • respiratory secretions
  • saliva

Question 7

Question
Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except
Answer
  • most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs
  • pathogen is a spirochete
  • infects kidneys, liver, brain, eyes
  • humans acquire it by contact with abraided skin or mucous membranes
  • can be transmitted by animal bites

Question 8

Question
Relapsing fever involves
Answer
  • soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii.
  • initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue.
  • late symptoms of vomiting, muscle aches, damage to liver, spleen, heart and kidneys.
  • human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis.
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 9

Question
The causative agent of Lyme disease is
Answer
  • Ixodes scapularis
  • Borrelia hermsii
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Ixodes pacificus
  • Leptospira interrogans

Question 10

Question
Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with
Answer
  • syphilis
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • relapsing fever
  • Lyme disease
  • leptospirosis

Question 11

Question
The Argyll Robertson pupil that is fixed and small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with
Answer
  • Lyme disease
  • leptospirosis
  • chlamydiosis
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • tertiary syphilis

Question 12

Question
The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the enzootic transmission cycle associated with
Answer
  • Lyme disease
  • leptospirosis
  • chlamydiosis
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • tertiary syphilis

Question 13

Question
Control of rodent populations is important for preventing
Answer
  • tick-borne relapsing fever
  • ornithosis
  • epidemic typhus
  • Q fever
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 14

Question
Lyme disease involves
Answer
  • early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck.
  • crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems.
  • people having contact with wooded or forested areas.
  • treatment with antimicrobics.
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 15

Question
The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose
Answer
  • chlamydiosis
  • syphilis
  • lyme disease
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • Q fever

Question 16

Question
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
Answer
  • capsule
  • neurotoxin
  • invasive enzymes
  • enterotoxin
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 17

Question
Cholera symptoms are
Answer
  • copious watery diarrhea
  • loss of blood volume
  • acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst
  • hypotension, tachycardia, shock
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 18

Question
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is
Answer
  • water and electrolyte replacement
  • antimicrobics
  • antitoxin
  • surgery
  • None of the choices are correct

Question 19

Question
An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is
Answer
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • Vibrio cholerae
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Helicobacter pylori

Question 20

Question
In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death
Answer
  • Vibrio vulnificus
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • Vibrio cholerae
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Helicobacter pylori

Question 21

Question
"Rice water stools" are associated with disease caused by this organism:
Answer
  • Vibrio vulnificus
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • Vibrio cholerae
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Helicobacter pylori

Question 22

Question
Helicobacter pylori causes
Answer
  • gastritis
  • duodenal ulcers
  • stomach ulcers
  • increased risk for stomach cancer
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 23

Question
Which is NOT a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
Answer
  • gram negative
  • produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
  • curved rods
  • lives in the stomach
  • produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

Question 24

Question
All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except
Answer
  • it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water.
  • it causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea.
  • it infects the stomach.
  • it produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea.
  • it has gram negative curved rods with darting motility.

Question 25

Question
Characteristics of rickettsias include
Answer
  • obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth.
  • arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors.
  • gram negative coccobacilli.
  • host cells are required for ATP metabolism.
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 26

Question
The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of
Answer
  • endothelial lining of blood vessels
  • gastrointestinal lining
  • dermis of the skin
  • stomach mucosa
  • urinary tract

Question 27

Question
Which is mismatched?
Answer
  • epidemic typhus – body louse feces
  • murine typhus – flea feces
  • rickettsial pox – mite bite
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever – tick bite
  • human ehrlichiosis – flea bite

Question 28

Question
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Answer
  • is seen in highest numbers along the west coast.
  • is transmitted by Ixodes ticks
  • has symptoms that include fever, headache and rash.
  • never has severe complications.
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 29

Question
All of the following pertain to erhlichiosis except
Answer
  • it is transmitted by Amblyomma and Ixodes ticks.
  • it causes infection of monocytes.
  • it causes infection of granulocytes.
  • has symptoms that include fever, headache, and muscle pains.
  • the disease is showing a decreased incidence.

Question 30

Question
Which is incorrect regarding Q fever?
Answer
  • transmitted by lice
  • pathogen produces resistant spores
  • humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread
  • causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia
  • is a zoonosis

Question 31

Question
Which is mismatched?
Answer
  • Rickettsia rickettsii – epidemic typhus
  • Coxiella burnetii – Q fever
  • Bartonella quintana – trench fever
  • Bartonella henselae – cat scratch disease
  • Rickettsia typhi – endemic (murine) typhus

Question 32

Question
The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except
Answer
  • gram negative
  • obligate parasites that need host cells for growth
  • elementary bodies are the infectious form
  • elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP
  • reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies

Question 33

Question
Chlamydia trachomatis causes
Answer
  • nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males.
  • cervicitis in females.
  • congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis.
  • ocular trachoma.
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 34

Question
Ornithosis is
Answer
  • caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae.
  • a zoonosis of certain types of birds
  • a mild, upper respiratory tract illness.
  • has humans as a reservoir for the pathogen.
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 35

Question
Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by
Answer
  • specific strains of Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Ureaplasma urealyticum
  • Mycoplasma hominis
  • Chlamydia psittaci
  • Chlamydia pneumoniae.

Question 36

Question
Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
Answer
  • has birds as a reservoir
  • common cause of primary atypical pneumonia
  • initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache
  • after 2 to 3 weeks develops into an unproductive cough and earache
  • is a bacterial cell without a cell wall

Question 37

Question
Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
Answer
  • develop a biofilm.
  • use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.
  • include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.
  • lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 38

Question
Gingivitis is
Answer
  • primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora.
  • erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion.
  • caused by Streptococcus mutans
  • also called NUG.
  • None of the choices are correct.

Question 39

Question
Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following?
Answer
  • nongonococcal urethritis
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
  • periodontal disease
  • Q fever
  • endemic typhus

Question 40

Question
All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except
Answer
  • fluoride
  • lysozyme in saliva
  • antibodies in saliva
  • refined sugar
  • genetics.

Question 41

Question
Treponema vincentii, Bacteroides forsythus, and fusobacteria synergistically are involved in which infection?
Answer
  • gingivitis
  • necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)
  • ornithosis
  • yaws
  • caries

Question 42

Question
Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws?
Answer
  • Syphilis is caused by a spirochete
  • Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stages.
  • Syphilis is sexually transmitted.
  • Syphilis is treated with antibiotics.
  • Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease.

Question 43

Question
Which of the following are other names for yaws?
Answer
  • bouba
  • frambesia tropica
  • patek
  • All of the choices are correct.
  • None of the choices are correct.

Question 44

Question
Hutchinson's teeth are
Answer
  • a symptom of untreated Lyme disease.
  • a symptom of untreated periodontal disease.
  • a symptom of ANUG.
  • a symptom of congenital syphilis.
  • a symptom of congenital Chlamydia trachomatis.

Question 45

Question
The tertiary stage of syphilis
Answer
  • is when gummas develop in tissues.
  • is when the patient is highly infectious to others.
  • occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
  • has no symptoms.
  • is when a chancre develops.

Question 46

Question
Which is incorrect about Lyme disease?
Answer
  • It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut.
  • Its reservoirs are mice and deer
  • It is transmitted by ticks.
  • It is nonfatal.
  • It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions.

Question 47

Question
Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification?
Answer
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis
  • Vibrio vulnificus gastroenteritis
  • Cholera
  • Lyme disease
  • Leptospirosis

Question 48

Question
Which is incorrect about Leptospirosis?
Answer
  • It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds.
  • A vaccine is not available.
  • Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.
  • It is a zoonosis.
  • Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease.

Question 49

Question
Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
Answer
  • enterotoxigeic strains of E. coli
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella dysenteriae
  • E. coli 0157:H7
  • enteroinvasive E. coli

Question 50

Question
Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires disease?
Answer
  • L. pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amebas.
  • The disease is communicable from person to person.
  • Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
  • . It is more common in males over 50 years of age.
  • Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano.

Question 51

Question
Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague?
Answer
  • Mice, voles and other rodents are primary long-term reservoirs.
  • Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today as in the Middle Ages
  • It is transmitted by flea vectors.
  • Less than 10 cases per year occur in the US.
  • The etiological agent is Yersinia pestis.

Question 52

Question
What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis?
Answer
  • improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin
  • eating unpasteurized dairy containing Listeria monocytogenes
  • handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae
  • therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile
  • living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens

Question 53

Question
Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene?
Answer
  • debridement of the wound
  • hyperbaric chamber
  • amputation of affected limb
  • rigorous cleansing of deep wounds
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 54

Question
Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by
Answer
  • debridement
  • wound cleansing
  • vancomycin for several weeks
  • withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 55

Question
Viruses have all the following except
Answer
  • definite shape
  • metabolism
  • genes
  • ability to infect host cells
  • ultramicroscopic size

Question 56

Question
Host cells of viruses include
Answer
  • human and other animals
  • plants and fungi
  • bacteria
  • protozoa and algae
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 57

Question
The core of every virus particle always contains
Answer
  • DNA
  • capsomers
  • enzymes
  • DNA and RNA
  • either DNA or RNA

Question 58

Question
Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except
Answer
  • type of nucleic acid
  • type of capsid
  • presence of an envelope
  • biochemical reactions
  • nucleic acid strand number

Question 59

Question
Which of the following represents a virus family name?
Answer
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Herpesviridae
  • Picornavirus
  • Enterovirus
  • Hepatitis B virus

Question 60

Question
Virus capsids are made from subunits called
Answer
  • envelopes
  • spikes
  • capsomeres
  • prophages
  • peplomers

Question 61

Question
Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
Answer
  • spike
  • capsomere
  • envelope
  • capsid
  • core

Question 62

Question
Which of the following is correct about viruses?
Answer
  • cannot be seen with a light microscope
  • are procaryotic
  • contain 70S ribosomes
  • undergo binary fission
  • can be grown on nutrient agar

Question 63

Question
All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they
Answer
  • gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.
  • gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.
  • contain special virus proteins.
  • help the virus particle attach to host cells.
  • located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

Question 64

Question
Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
Answer
  • envelope
  • capsomers
  • capsid
  • nucleic acid
  • genome

Question 65

Question
These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors
Answer
  • sheath
  • tail fibers
  • nucleic acid
  • capsid head
  • None of the choices are correct

Question 66

Question
Which is incorrect about prophages?
Answer
  • present when the virus is in lysogeny
  • formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
  • replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
  • cause lysis of host cells
  • occur when temperate phages enter host cells

Question 67

Question
T-even phages
Answer
  • include the poxviruses
  • infect Escherichia coli cells
  • enter host cells by engulfment
  • have helical capsids
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 68

Question
The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
Answer
  • penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release.
  • replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release.
  • adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release
  • assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption.
  • adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.

Question 69

Question
The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is
Answer
  • adsorption to the host cells
  • injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
  • host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins
  • assembly of nucleocapsids
  • replication of viral nucleic acid

Question 70

Question
Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during
Answer
  • replication
  • assembly
  • adsorption
  • release
  • penetration

Question 71

Question
Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
Answer
  • live lab animals
  • embryonated bird eggs
  • primary cell cultures
  • continuous cell cultures
  • blood agar

Question 72

Question
In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.
Answer
  • nucleus, cytoplasm
  • cytoplasm, cell membrane
  • cell membrane, cytoplasm
  • cytoplasm, nucleus
  • nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

Question 73

Question
Host range is limited by
Answer
  • type of nucleic acid in the virus
  • age of the host cell
  • type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
  • size of the host cell
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 74

Question
The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called
Answer
  • lysogeny
  • budding
  • plaques
  • cytopathic effects
  • pocks

Question 75

Question
Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
Answer
  • lysogeny
  • budding
  • plaques
  • cytopathic effects
  • pocks

Question 76

Question
Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called
Answer
  • lysogeny
  • budding
  • plaques
  • cytopathic effects
  • pocks

Question 77

Question
Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called
Answer
  • latent
  • oncogenic
  • prions
  • viroids
  • delta agents

Question 78

Question
Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?
Answer
  • inclusions in the nucleus
  • multinucleated giant cells.
  • inclusions in the cytoplasm
  • cells round up
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 79

Question
Uncoating of viral nucleic acid
Answer
  • does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication
  • involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid
  • occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle
  • occurs before replication
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 80

Question
Infectious protein particles are called
Answer
  • viroids
  • phages
  • prions
  • oncogenic viruses
  • spikes

Question 81

Question
Infectious naked strands of RNA are called
Answer
  • viroids
  • phages
  • prions
  • oncogenic viruses
  • spikes

Question 82

Question
Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is
Answer
  • caused by a chronic latent virus
  • initiated by an oncogenic virus
  • caused by a viroid
  • a spongiform encephalopathy of humans
  • also called "mad cow disease".

Question 83

Question
Satellite viruses are
Answer
  • also called viroids
  • dependent on other viruses for replication
  • the cause of spongiform encephalopathies
  • significant pathogens of plants
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 84

Question
All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except
Answer
  • viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria
  • many antiviral drugs block viral replication
  • many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects
  • interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections
  • All of the choices are correct.

Question 85

Question
The capsomers are made of
Answer
  • DNA
  • RNA
  • Lipids
  • Protein
  • Carbohydrate

Question 86

Question
Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered
Answer
  • simple viruses
  • complex viruses
  • naked viruses
  • viroids
  • incomplete viruses

Question 87

Question
The nucleocapsid consists of
Answer
  • the capsomers assembled into the capsid
  • the nucleic acid of the virus only
  • the nucleic acid along with the capsid
  • the envelope and capsid
  • the envelope, nucleic acid and caspid

Question 88

Question
Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present?
Answer
  • envelope
  • nucleic acid
  • capsid
  • capsomers
  • None of the choices are optional parts of a virus

Question 89

Question
When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means
Answer
  • the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.
  • the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane.
  • the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid.
  • the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host.
  • the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.

Question 90

Question
All of the following are characteristics of viruses except
Answer
  • they can be crystallized.
  • they often have a geometric capsid
  • they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids
  • they can cause fatal diseases.
  • they can cause mild diseases.
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