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Microbiology ALL EXAM QUESTIONS

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Quiz on Microbiology ALL EXAM QUESTIONS, created by Sarah Wainer on 05/05/2014.
Sarah Wainer
Quiz by Sarah Wainer, updated more than 1 year ago
Sarah Wainer
Created by Sarah Wainer almost 10 years ago
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Question 1

Question
The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
Answer
  • decomposers
  • prokaryotes
  • pathogens
  • eukaryotes
  • fermenters

Question 2

Question
Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
Answer
  • microbes are found on dust particles
  • a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease

Question 3

Question
A fat is called____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bounded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens
Answer
  • unsaturated
  • polyunsaturated
  • monounsaturated
  • saturated
  • None of the choices are correct

Question 4

Question
The building blocks of an enzyme are
Answer
  • nucleotides
  • glycerol and fatty acids
  • monosaccharides
  • phosphate, glycerol and fatty acids
  • amino acids

Question 5

Question
ATP is best described as
Answer
  • an enzyme
  • a double helix
  • an electron carrier
  • the energy molecule of cells
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a prokaryote?
Answer
  • Its DNA is not encased in a membrane
  • It has a cell wall made of peptidoglycans or other distinct chemicals
  • it does not have membrane-bound organelles
  • Its DNA is wrapped around histones
  • All of these are characteristics of prokaryotes

Question 7

Question
Peptiodoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial
Answer
  • cell walls
  • cell membranes
  • capsules
  • smile layers
  • inclusions

Question 8

Question
The bacterial chormosome
Answer
  • is located in the cell membrane
  • contains all the cell's plasmids
  • is part of the nucleoid
  • forms a single linear strand of DNA
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 9

Question
The function of bacterial endospores is
Answer
  • to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants
  • reproduction and growth
  • protection of genetic material during harsh conditions
  • storage of excess cell materials
  • to act as sites for photosynthesis

Question 10

Question
Two major structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ___ and ___
Answer
  • pili, ribosome
  • fimbrae, capsules
  • lipoplysaccharides, techoic acids
  • actin filaments, phospholipid membranes
  • actin filaments, ribosomes

Question 11

Question
As a triage nurse in the ER, you begin the assessment of an elderly patient complaining of blood diarrhea and severe stomach cramps. You find the patient has a fever of 104 as well, and is show signs of dehydration. IV fluids are administered while further analysis of the patient continues Gram staining reveals the presence of gram-negative bacilli in the patient's stool. Thinking about the patient's spike in temperature, you understand now how this bacterium could cause a fever. WHich of the following is the correct explanation?
Answer
  • Gram-negative bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer which confers their ability to cause fever
  • Gram-negative bacteria have 2 periplasmic spaces which enhances their ability to cause fever
  • Gram-negative bacteria have teichoic acid in their outer membrane which confer their ability to cause fever
  • Gram-negative bacteria have lipoplysaccharide in their outer membrane, and the lipid portion confers their ability to cause fever

Question 12

Question
The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the mergence of eukaryotes. The eukaryotic mitochondrion most resembles a bacterial cell due to
Answer
  • an other membrane which is similar to the Gram-negative outer membrane
  • 70S ribosomes rather than 80S ribosomes
  • the presence of its own DNA molecule
  • all of the above
  • none of the above

Question 13

Question
Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells
Answer
  • nucleus
  • mitochondria
  • endoplasmic reticulum
  • lysosomes
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 14

Question
Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryotes glycocalyx
Answer
  • protection
  • adherence
  • movement
  • reception of chemical signals
  • all of the choices are functions

Question 15

Question
The site of ribosomal RNA synthesis is the
Answer
  • ribosome
  • nucleolus
  • nucleus
  • Golgi apparatus
  • Lysosome

Question 16

Question
You begin your 10 hour shit at the infusion center at the local cancer center. Mrs. Overrocker has be coming in every Wednesday at 10:00 am for the past 3 weeks for her infusion of chemotherapy. She complains that her mouth hurts. A visual examination reveals a white film covering the inside of her cheeks and her tongue. You swab the inside of her mouth for microscopic analysis. You look closely and see that some of the cells are producing filamentous structures called hyphae. A term referring to a yeast able to exist in a yeast or hyphal form is
Answer
  • dioecious
  • dimorphic
  • dichotomous
  • diurnal

Question 17

Question
The term chemoheterotroph refers to an organisms that
Answer
  • uses CO2 for its carbon source
  • must obtain inorganic compounds for its energy source
  • gets energy from sunlight
  • gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
  • does not need a carbon source

Question 18

Question
The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semi-permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carries and cell expenditure of energy is called
Answer
  • facilitated diffusion
  • diffusion
  • active transport
  • osmosis
  • endocytosis

Question 19

Question
When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed
Answer
  • pinocytosis
  • phagocytosis
  • facilitated transport
  • facilitated diffusion
  • exocytosis

Question 20

Question
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37 degree incubator, and on the shelf of a 50 degrees incubator. After incubation. there was no growth at 37 degrees and 50 degrees, slight growth out on the bench top, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?
Answer
  • halophile
  • mesophile
  • anaerobe
  • psychorophile
  • capnophile

Question 21

Question
The E. coli that normally live in human large intestine and produce vitamin K for the body to use would best be termed a ____ relationship
Answer
  • parasitic
  • saprobic
  • commensal
  • mutualistic
  • None of the choice is correct

Question 22

Question
The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called
Answer
  • binary fission
  • growth curve
  • generation time
  • death phase
  • culture time

Question 23

Question
The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores on inanimate objects is
Answer
  • disinfection
  • sterilization
  • antisepsis
  • sanitization
  • degermation

Question 24

Question
Microbial death occurs when there is
Answer
  • no movement
  • no reproduction
  • a change in appearance
  • a decrease in size
  • all of these occur

Question 25

Question
Ethylene oxide is
Answer
  • sporicidal
  • only effective with high heat
  • the active agent in household bleach
  • used as an antiseptic against anaerobes
  • a halogen

Question 26

Question
Enzymes are
Answer
  • broken down in reactions that require energy input
  • proteins that function as catalysts
  • Used up in chemical reactions
  • not need for catabolic reactions
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 27

Question
Each of the following is true of enzymes except
Answer
  • they can be used over and over
  • they may or may not require cofactors
  • their active site is specific to the substrate
  • they increases the activation energy of a reaction
  • all of the choices are true of enzymes

Question 28

Question
Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein, making it nonfunctional
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 29

Question
Enzymes that catalyze moving a phosphate from one substrate to another are called
Answer
  • phosphotransferases
  • oxidoreductases
  • decarbosylases
  • aminotransferases
  • ligases

Question 30

Question
Each of the following are denaturing agents except
Answer
  • high temperature
  • low temperature
  • high pH
  • low pH
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 31

Question
The breakdown of petiodglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetlyglucoasmine, and peptides is an example
Answer
  • anabolism
  • catabolism
  • phosphorylation
  • fermentation
  • synthesis

Question 32

Question
During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is
Answer
  • pryruvic acid
  • oxygen
  • nitrate
  • cytochorome c
  • FAD

Question 33

Question
In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate
Answer
  • ATP
  • ADP
  • pyruvic acid
  • oxygen
  • NAD

Question 34

Question
In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer
Answer
  • ADP
  • Glucose
  • carbon
  • hydrogen
  • carbon dioxide

Question 35

Question
Glycolysis
Answer
  • uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, and requires oxygen
  • uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, and requires oxygen
  • uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, and without using oxygen
  • uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, and without using oxygen
  • None of the choices are correct

Question 36

Question
The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins
Answer
  • glycolysis
  • the electron transport system
  • the Krebs cycle
  • fermentation
  • oxidative phosphorylation

Question 37

Question
The majority of reduced NAD is produced in
Answer
  • Glycolysis
  • Krebs Cycle
  • Electron tranport chain
  • photosynthesis
  • none of these are correct

Question 38

Question
Each NADH that Enter the electrons transport system gives rise to ____ ATP
Answer
  • 2
  • 3
  • 24
  • 36
  • 38

Question 39

Question
Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle enter the electron transport system and gives rise to ____ ATPs
Answer
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5

Question 40

Question
During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
Answer
  • electron transport
  • Krebs cycle
  • Glycolysis
  • processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle
  • All the phases produce the same number of ATP molecules

Question 41

Question
ATP syntase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphoylation
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
Fermentation
Answer
  • requires an organic electron acceptor
  • requires oxygen
  • only occurs in aerobic organisms
  • is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production
  • none of the choices are correct

Question 43

Question
Formation of peptide bounds between amino aids to build a polypeptide would be called
Answer
  • anabolism
  • phosphorylation
  • fermentation
  • exergonic
  • glycolysis

Question 44

Question
Building block molecules for biosythtic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 45

Question
A 67-year-old patent with sever sepsis undergoes a full infectious work-up upon admittance to the intensive care unit. Culture of urine, blood, sputum, and cerebral spinal fluid are obtained. The cultures do not yield a specific organisms, so further analysis of the sample is done to determine the characteristics of the microorganism. The metabolic processes are analyzed in the lab. The organisms is found to grow throughout the entire tube of broth media. Which of the following terms dest describes the oxygen requirement of this organism?
Answer
  • obligate aerobe
  • microaerophile
  • facultative anaerobe
  • obligate anaerobe

Question 46

Question
A 67-year-old patent with sever sepsis undergoes a full infectious work-up upon admittance to the intensive care unit. Culture of urine, blood, sputum, and cerebral spinal fluid are obtained. The cultures do not yield a specific organisms, so further analysis of the sample is done to determine the characteristics of the microorganism. The metabolic processes are analyzed in the lab. The organisms is found to grow throughout the entire tube of broth media. Which of the following terms dest describes the oxygen requirement of this organism?
Answer
  • obligate aerobe
  • microaerophile
  • facultative anaerobe
  • obligate anaerobe

Question 47

Question
A 67-year-old patent with sever sepsis undergoes a full infectious work-up upon admittance to the intensive care unit. Culture of urine, blood, sputum, and cerebral spinal fluid are obtained. The cultures do not yield a specific organisms, so further analysis of the sample is done to determine the characteristics of the microorganism. The metabolic processes are analyzed in the lab. Biochemical testing reveals that the organisms further reduces nitrate to produce nitrous oxide. Based upon this byproduct, which of the following is the most likely catabolic pathway utilized by this organism?
Answer
  • aerobic respiration
  • anaerobic respiration
  • fermentation
  • aerobic and anaerobic respiration, as well as fermentation, can all lead to the production of nitrous oxide

Question 48

Question
What is the maximum net yield of ATP from anaerobic respiration?
Answer
  • 2
  • 2-36
  • 36-38
  • 38-40

Question 49

Question
Which of the following macromolecules, when catabolized, COULD release carbon, sulfur and nitrogen
Answer
  • nucleic acids
  • proteins
  • carbohydrates
  • lipids
  • all of the above

Question 50

Question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a prokaryote
Answer
  • Its DNA is not encased in membrane
  • it has a cell wall made of peptidoglycans or other distinct chemicals
  • its does not have membrane-bound organelles
  • its DNA is wrapped around histones
  • all of these are characteristics or prokaryotes

Question 51

Question
According to the current taxonomy or organisms, which of the following is not considered a domain
Answer
  • Eukarya
  • Bacteria
  • Archaea
  • Protista
  • All of these part of the three domain system

Question 52

Question
Each ____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code fro production of one functional product
Answer
  • intron
  • exon
  • gene
  • operator
  • triplet

Question 53

Question
The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called
Answer
  • histones
  • amino acids
  • nucleotides
  • mRNA
  • polymerases

Question 54

Question
Base pairs in DNA are held together by ____ bonds
Answer
  • peptide
  • nonpolar covalent
  • polar covalent
  • hydrogen
  • sulfhydryl

Question 55

Question
The duplication of a cell's DNA is called
Answer
  • mitosis
  • replication
  • transcription
  • translation
  • mutation

Question 56

Question
During replication, each parent DNA strand sever as a ____for synthesis of new DNA strands
Answer
  • Copy point
  • Template
  • Comparison molecule
  • scaffold
  • reservior

Question 57

Question
Semi- conservative replication refers to
Answer
  • each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar
  • a purine always bonding to a pyrimindine
  • one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
  • the original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand compromising a new DNA molecule
  • None of the choices are correct

Question 58

Question
The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
Answer
  • primer
  • Okazaki fragments
  • template
  • rolling circle
  • replication fork

Question 59

Question
Helicase
Answer
  • unzips DNA
  • supercoils DNA
  • unwinds RNA
  • winds RNA
  • None of the choices is correct

Question 60

Question
Replication of DNA begins at a/an
Answer
  • guanine-cytosine rich area
  • uracil-adenine rich area
  • adenine-thymine rich area
  • adenine-cytosine rich area
  • guanine-adenine rich area

Question 61

Question
RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
Answer
  • has ribose
  • has uracil
  • is typically one strand of nucleotides
  • does not have thymine
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 62

Question
All of the following pertain to transcription except
Answer
  • occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm
  • occurs before translation
  • requires RNA polymerase
  • requires a template DNA strand
  • proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction of the growing mRNA molecule

Question 63

Question
Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA
Answer
  • has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon
  • as anticodon is complementary to a codon
  • contains a binding site for an amino acid
  • the initiator tRNA that bind to the P site has the anticodon UAC
  • initiator tRNA is bacteria carries tryptonphan

Question 64

Question
The following pertains to ribosomes during protein synthesis exceot
Answer
  • participate in both transcription and translation
  • participate only in translation
  • bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit
  • use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding
  • shift to the right along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next

Question 65

Question
Which of the following is not associated with a prokaryotic ribosome?
Answer
  • is a 70s
  • small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds
  • has a peptide (P) site
  • has an exit site
  • has an amino acid (A) site

Question 66

Question
which is incorrect about inducible operons
Answer
  • have genes turned off by a build up of end product
  • are often for catabolic pathways
  • are normally turned off
  • are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme
  • include the lac operon

Question 67

Question
The operon segment composed of the gene that codes fro a protein capable of repression the operon is called the
Answer
  • operator
  • structural locus
  • regulator
  • promoter
  • none of choices is correct

Question 68

Question
Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires
Answer
  • repressor alone bound to operator
  • substrate bound to repressor
  • substrate bound to promoter
  • corepressor and repressor binding to operator
  • none of the choices are correct

Question 69

Question
Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ____ from initiating transcription
Answer
  • RNA polymerase
  • DNA polymerase I
  • DNA polymerase III
  • mRNA
  • rRNA

Question 70

Question
A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a
Answer
  • point mutation
  • silent mutation
  • back mutation
  • missense mutation
  • nonsense mutation

Question 71

Question
A frame shift is caused by ____ mutations
Answer
  • missense and insertion
  • missense and nonsense
  • nonsense and deletion
  • deletion and insertion
  • insertion and nonsense

Question 72

Question
A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the pervious host to the current host. This is an example of
Answer
  • conjugation
  • generalized transduction
  • specialized transduction
  • reation of an Hfr cell
  • none of the choices is correct

Question 73

Question
The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by
Answer
  • conjugation
  • transposons
  • transformation
  • transduction
  • transmission

Question 74

Question
A 59-year-old female has been diagnosed with E. coli infection following the consumption of contaminated meat. THE patient is exhibiting a high fever, severe abdominal cramping, and diarrhea. As the RN, you provide supportive care and fluid resuscitation as ordered. You are familiar with the E. coli bacterium, and provide education to the patient and her family regarding the genetics of this bacterium. As the RN, you instruct the family that the transfer of genetic material can involve contact between 2 bacterial cells, DNA can pass from one cell to the other through a pilus during this process, which is called
Answer
  • transformation
  • conjugation
  • specialized transduction
  • generalized transduction

Question 75

Question
In gram-negative bacteria, like E. coli, the fertility factor is a plasmid possessed by the bacterium that will donate its DNA to a recipient cell. Which of the following statements, by the patient, demonstrates understanding of this plasmid?
Answer
  • "it is a large, double-stranded linear piece of DNA"
  • "it is found in F- cells only"
  • "it controls the process of transduction in bacterial cells"
  • "It encodes the information to create a pilus"

Question 76

Question
You also indicate to the patient that genetic information can be acquired by bacterial cells in other ways. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding these processes?
Answer
  • "transformation requires that formation of a pilus for genetic exchange to occur"
  • "transposition involves the transfer of genetic information to bacterial cells directly from their environment"
  • "Transfection is a phenomenon of prokaryotic cells"
  • Transduction involves the transfer of genetic information from a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell"

Question 77

Question
Virus capsids are made from subunits called
Answer
  • envelopes
  • spikes
  • capsomeres
  • prophages
  • peplomers

Question 78

Question
The core of every virus particles always contains
Answer
  • DNA
  • capsomeres
  • enzymes
  • either DNA or RNA
  • DNA and RNA

Question 79

Question
Viruses with ___ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with ___ sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message
Answer
  • Positive-, negative-
  • negative-, positive-
  • primary,secondary
  • secondary, primary
  • none of the choices are correct

Question 80

Question
In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's ____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's ___
Answer
  • nucleus, cytoplasm
  • cytoplasm, cell membrane
  • cell membrane, cytoplasm
  • cytoplasm, nucleus
  • nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

Question 81

Question
Host range of a virus is limited by
Answer
  • type of nucleic acid in the virus
  • age of the host cell
  • type of host cell receptors on the cell membrane
  • size of the host cell
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 82

Question
The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota
Answer
  • before birth, in urtero
  • during and immediately after birth
  • when a child first goes to school
  • when an infant get its first infectious disease
  • during puberty

Question 83

Question
Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called
Answer
  • opportunistic pathogens
  • normal biota
  • indigenous biota
  • true pathogens
  • micropathogens

Question 84

Question
Virulence factors include all the following except
Answer
  • capsules
  • ribosomes
  • exoenzymes
  • endotoxins
  • exotoxins

Question 85

Question
The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
Answer
  • prodromal stage
  • convalescent stage
  • incubation period
  • period of invasion
  • none of choices is correct

Question 86

Question
Which is mismatched
Answer
  • secondary infection- infection spread to several tissue sites
  • mixed infection- several agents established at infection site
  • acute infection- rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms
  • local infection-pathogen remains at or near entry site
  • toxemia- pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

Question 87

Question
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the petidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
Answer
  • lactic acid
  • hydrochloric acid
  • lysozyme
  • histamine
  • bile

Question 88

Question
A properly functioning immune system is responsible for
Answer
  • surveillance of the body
  • recognition of foreign material
  • destruction of foreign material
  • all of the above choices are correct
  • only recognition of foreign material and destruction of foreign material are correct

Question 89

Question
The main function of the reticuloendothelial system is to provide
Answer
  • surveillance cells
  • a connection between tissues and organs
  • filtration of extracellular fluid
  • filtration of blood
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 90

Question
During what process are hyprochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication
Answer
  • inflammation
  • phagocytosis
  • interferon production
  • complement production
  • bradykinin

Question 91

Question
which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins
Answer
  • complement
  • albumin
  • interferon
  • histamine

Question 92

Question
The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called
Answer
  • antibodies
  • sensitized T cells
  • activated macrophages
  • plasma cells
  • bursa cells

Question 93

Question
Lymphocytes
Answer
  • posses MHC antigens for recognizing self
  • have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens
  • gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self
  • develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 94

Question
Cytotoxic T cells
Answer
  • are activated by antigens
  • lack specificity for antigens
  • secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells
  • secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 95

Question
Edward Jenner's work involved
Answer
  • inoculation of dried pus from small pox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity
  • development of passive immunotherapy
  • development of an immunization to protect people again cowpox
  • immunization using a related, less pathogenic organisms to give protection agains a more pathogenic one
  • all of the choices are correct

Question 96

Question
Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
Answer
  • contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules
  • are always genetically engineered
  • contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses
  • confer passive immunity
  • utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen

Question 97

Question
Selctive toxicity refers to
Answer
  • damage to pathogenic organisms
  • damage to prokaryotic cell membranes
  • damage to the target organisms but not host cells
  • damage to nucleic acids
  • none of the choices are correct

Question 98

Question
Joseph is a 6-year-old male presenting to your pediatric office with chickenpox. He had had his infection for about 1 week, and his mom is concered about Joseph's 8- year-old sister, Judith, because she had a long painful infection of chickenpox 2 years before. Of note, Joseph was not vaccinated against chickenpox when he was younger, because his mom did not think it was that serious of a virus and she wanted to spare him the extra injection. Which of the following explanations tells you why Joseph became infected with chickenpox in the first place?
Answer
  • he should not have been infected because he had passive natural immunity from breastfeeding as a baby.
  • His mother should have had gamma globulin administered so he would have had passive artificial immunity.
  • There is no way he could have been protected from the infection, since he did not recieve active artificial immunity through the form of a vaccine
  • he probably has a primary immunodeficiency disease, otherwise there is no reason humans should be infected with chickenpox

Question 99

Question
The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include
Answer
  • bacterial chromosomal mutations
  • synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
  • prevention of drug entry into the cell
  • alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
  • All of the choices are correct

Question 100

Question
A superinfection results from
Answer
  • build up of a dug to toxic levels in patient
  • the wrong drug administered to patient
  • an immune system reaction to the drug
  • decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species
  • all of the choices are correct
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