Copy and Edit

PPL

Description

Quiz on PPL, created by mehdi mohaqeq on 07/05/2017.
mehdi mohaqeq
Quiz by mehdi mohaqeq, updated more than 1 year ago
mehdi mohaqeq
Created by mehdi mohaqeq about 7 years ago
67
1
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
The color of AIP supplement paper is................
Answer
  • Blue
  • Pink
  • Red
  • Yellow

Question 2

Question
In which chart you can find transition altitude?
Answer
  • Instrument approach
  • SID
  • STAR
  • All answers are correct

Question 3

Question
If the pilot is not able to make start up by first clearance:
Answer
  • May request another one during the validity of the flight plan.
  • Can make two more requests.
  • Is not allowing to request startup.
  • Shall cancel the flight plan.

Question 4

Question
Which statement is correct about Vx?
Answer
  • Max altitude gains at short distance.
  • Increase by altitude increase for piston engine aircraft.
  • Best angle of climb speed.
  • All answers are correct.

Question 5

Question
What is the takeoff distance for piston engine aircraft? Distance between starting point and LOF point = 2000’ Distance between LOF point and 50’ height = 500’
Answer
  • 2000’
  • 3000'
  • 500'
  • 2500'

Question 6

Question
To maintain climb airspeed following an increase in temperature the rate of climb is:
Answer
  • Reduced
  • Increase
  • Remain unchanged.
  • Unaffected

Question 7

Question
Compared to (Vx and Vy) at lower mass, (Vx and Vy) at higher mass will be:
Answer
  • Lower
  • Same
  • Higher
  • Vx higher and Vy lower.

Question 8

Question
f the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone?
Answer
  • No
  • Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft.
  • Yes
  • Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground.

Question 9

Question
Approach control service is provided for:
Answer
  • All arriving and departing controlled flights.
  • All arriving IFR traffic.
  • Traffic within the CTA.
  • All VFR traffic.

Question 10

Question
What is the purpose of ACAS?
Answer
  • Provide traffic and resolution advisory to pilot
  • Provide advice to ATC
  • Provide weather information
  • Receive information by ADS

Question 11

Question
Movement of helicopter/VTOL above the surface of an aerodrome is normally at a ground speed .................. .
Answer
  • More than 20Kt
  • 20Kt
  • Less than 20Kt
  • 37Km

Question 12

Question
An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall stop and hold at:
Answer
  • All runway holding positions.
  • At lighted stop bars.
  • All marking areas.
  • A and B are correct.

Question 13

Question
When operating under visual flight rules in class D airspace at altitudes above 10000 feet AMSL, you must maintain a vertical distance of at least ………. from clouds.
Answer
  • 1500 feet
  • 300 feet
  • 1000 feet
  • 1000 meters

Question 14

Question
What is the minimum clearance of Iranian ATS routes above the highest obstacle within the area concerned?
Answer
  • 2000 ft.
  • 1500 ft.
  • 1500 M
  • 2500 ft.

Question 15

Question
The lowest flight level for VFR is:
Answer
  • 200
  • 35
  • 45
  • 50

Question 16

Question
IMC is a meteorological condition....................
Answer
  • Equal to VMC
  • Less than minima for VMC
  • More than minima for VMC
  • B and C are correct

Question 17

Question
Steady red signal to an aircraft on the ground means:
Answer
  • Cleared to taxi.
  • Cleared for take-off.
  • STOP
  • Return for landing.

Question 18

Question
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
Answer
  • 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG=
  • 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 BR =
  • 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =
  • 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =

Question 19

Question
What does the METAR code "R24R/P1500" mean?
Answer
  • Snow clearance in progress on RUNWAY 24-Right, use runway length 1500 meters.
  • RVR RUNWAY 24-Right is below 1500 meters.
  • RVR RUNWAY 24-Right is above 1500 meters.
  • RVR RUNWAY 24-Right is 1500 meters.

Question 20

Question
The variable wind for wind direction is express when wind direction change …….... within last 10 min before observing weather.
Answer
  • 30° or more
  • 45° or more
  • 60° or more
  • 50° or more

Question 21

Question
Refer to METAR "OIII 151500Z 26010KT 0800 SN SCT035CB BKN100 00/M02 Q1015 A2988" what is the height of ceiling?
Answer
  • 1,000 ft.
  • 100 ft.
  • 3,500 ft.
  • 10,000 ft.

Question 22

Question
The acronym of an automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft is called:
Answer
  • ELT (AP)
  • ELT (AF)
  • ELT (AD)
  • ELT (S)

Question 23

Question
The amount of fuel required for VFR at day to the aerodrome of intended landing is:
Answer
  • Departure to Destination + at least 30 minutes at normal cruising altitude
  • Departure to Destination + at least 45 minutes at normal cruising altitude
  • Departure to Destination + 45 minutes
  • Departure to Destination + 30 minutes

Question 24

Question
If a flight crew member capacity is reduced due to lack of oxygen, what is the responsibility of pilot in command?
Answer
  • Continue to destination
  • Not continue beyond nearest suitable aerodrome
  • Continue to en-route alternate
  • Back to departure

Question 25

Question
A Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) of 300 m (1,000 ft) is applied:
Answer
  • Between FL290 and FL410
  • Between FL290 and FL410 inclusive
  • Between FL290 and FL410 exclusive
  • Above FL290

Question 26

Question
Who is authorized to change the aircraft radiotelephony call sign temporarily?
Answer
  • Pilot-in-Command
  • Operator
  • ATC unit
  • Dispatcher

Question 27

Question
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "I WOULD LIKE TO KNOW "or "I WISH TO OBTAIN"?
Answer
  • Confirm
  • Report
  • Acknowledge
  • Request

Question 28

Question
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee EP-ABC is correct?
Answer
  • Cherokee E-BC
  • Cherokee EP-BC
  • Cherokee BC
  • Cherokee E-ABC

Question 29

Question
What is the transponder code for radio communication failure?
Answer
  • 7200
  • 7600
  • 7500
  • 7700

Question 30

Question
What does H24 mean?
Answer
  • Continuously operation
  • Sunrise to Sunset.
  • Available 24 hours a day by prior notice only.
  • Aircraft handling available 24 hours a day.

Question 31

Question
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 ft when indicating an altitude?
Answer
  • Three five double zero.
  • Three five zero zero.
  • Three five hundred.
  • Three thousand five hundred.

Question 32

Question
The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:
Answer
  • 008° and 026° magnetic.
  • 080° and 260° true.
  • 080° and 260° magnetic.
  • 008° and 026° true.

Question 33

Question
An airport‘s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates:
Answer
  • There are obstructions on the airport.
  • That weather at the airport located in class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
  • The Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
  • The approach and landing operation can be made in VMC.

Question 34

Question
What is the purpose of the taxiway/runway hold position sign?
Answer
  • Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
  • Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
  • Denotes intersecting runways.
  • Denotes intersecting taxiways.

Question 35

Question
The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains:
Answer
  • Four modes, each 1024 codes.
  • Two modes, each of 4096 codes.
  • Four modes, each 4096 codes.
  • Three modes, each 4096 codes.

Question 36

Question
When a mode C interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is coded and transmitted. This vertical position is referred to:
Answer
  • The sub-scale of the altimeter.
  • Area QNH
  • 1013.2 hPa.
  • Area QFE.

Question 37

Question
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use.
Answer
  • Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12 o’clock positions.
  • A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector off center viewing.
  • Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.
  • A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements not exceed 10-degree sector that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.

Question 38

Question
You are required to uplift 40 US Gallons of AVGAS with specific gravity of 0.72. How many liters and kilograms is this?
Answer
  • 109 liters, 151 kg.
  • 182 liters, 131 kg.
  • 182 liters, 289 kg.
  • 151 liters, 109 kg.

Question 39

Question
A descent is planned from FL340 so as to arrive at FL100 at a distance 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a G/S of 280 kts and a rate of descent of 1200 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
Answer
  • 65 NM
  • 99 NM
  • 27 NM
  • 93 NM

Question 40

Question
Given: P.A: 10,000 ft / OAT: -20 °C / Calibrated Altitude: 12,000 ft / Altitude of ground station: 5,400 ft , Find True Altitude:
Answer
  • 9,000 ft
  • 10,000 ft
  • 11,300 ft
  • 12,500 ft

Question 41

Question
Given: P.A: 40,000 ft / Indicated Air Temperature: -10°C / Calibrated Air Speed: 350 kts , Find True Air Speed:
Answer
  • 624
  • 525
  • 425
  • 725

Question 42

Question
- If the maximum allowable crosswind component for a given aeroplane is 20 Kts and the reported surface wind is 210°/30 Kts . Is it possible to land on RWY 16L?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
Given True course: 327° TAS: 520kts / W/V: 250° (T)/90 kts / Calculate the true heading and ground speed.
Answer
  • 317°,492 kts
  • 186°,444 kts
  • 123°,420 kts
  • 325°,370 kts

Question 44

Question
Given: P.A & Calibrated Alt.: 10,000 ft / OAT: +15° C , What is true altitude?
Answer
  • 9,260 ft
  • 10,750 ft
  • 8,480 ft
  • 11,830 ft

Question 45

Question
What is the pressure altitude, if outside air temperature is – 36 °C and density altitude equals 31,000 ft?
Answer
  • 32,000 ft
  • 33,000 ft
  • 30,000 ft
  • 29,000 ft

Question 46

Question
Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
Answer
  • Air pressure increases.
  • Altitude decreases.
  • Altitude increases.
  • Relative humidity decreases.

Question 47

Question
The effect of hypoxia to vision:
Answer
  • Can only be detected when smoking tobacco.
  • Is usual stronger on the cones
  • Is stronger on the rods.
  • Does not depend on the level of illumination.

Question 48

Question
A condition where there is insufficient oxygen in your body because there is not enough oxygen in the air is referred to as:
Answer
  • Anemic hypoxia.
  • Hypoxic hypoxia.
  • Hyperventilation
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning.

Question 49

Question
Signs of stress include:
Answer
  • Perspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
  • Lowering of the blood pressure.
  • Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
  • Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.

Question 50

Question
Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
Answer
  • High
  • Low
  • Shallow
  • None of above.

Question 51

Question
If you look directly at an object at night, you will see it?
Answer
  • Less clearly because there are no as many cones as rods.
  • Less clearly because the fovea is a night blind spot.
  • More clearly because it is focused in the fovea.
  • More clearly because rods see better in the dark.

Question 52

Question
After consuming alcohol heart rate and blood pressure may …………….. while ……………… your central nervous system.
Answer
  • Decrease - depressing
  • Decrease - stimulating
  • Increase – depressing
  • Increase - stimulating

Question 53

Question
When the pressure altitude is lower than true altitude:
Answer
  • Altimeter setting and temperature above than standard
  • Altimeter setting or temperature below than standard
  • Altimeter setting or temperature above than standard
  • Altimeter setting and temperature below than standard

Question 54

Question
Which instrument show how fast the ambient pressure increase or decrease?
Answer
  • Altimeter
  • Airspeed indicator
  • VVI
  • A & B & C are correct

Question 55

Question
What is the change in airspeed indicator when static port be clogged but Pitot tube be open?
Answer
  • Increase during descend
  • Increase during ascend
  • Decrease during descend
  • Drop to zero

Question 56

Question
What information sense by turn coordinator?
Answer
  • roll-yaw
  • yaw-bank
  • Bank & roll
  • roll & pitch

Question 57

Question
Which of the following airspeeds is identified by color coding on an airspeed indicator?
Answer
  • The maximum gear operating or extended speed.
  • The maximum structural cruising speed.
  • The maximum maneuvering cruising speed.
  • The stalling speed for all altitudes and configurations.

Question 58

Question
When an altimeter setting is not available at a departure airport, the sensitive altimeter should be set to indicate:
Answer
  • The elevation of the departure airport corrected to mean sea level.
  • Pressure altitude corrected nonstandard temperature.
  • The elevation of the departure airport.
  • 29.92" hg.

Question 59

Question
Due to its conception, the altimeter measures a:
Answer
  • Temperature altitude.
  • Density altitude.
  • Pressure altitude.
  • True altitude in flight.

Question 60

Question
If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a warm air mass into colder air:
Answer
  • IAS increases.
  • TAS increases.
  • TAS decreases
  • IAS decreases.

Question 61

Question
A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon: 1) Bank angle 2) Airplane speed 3) Airplane weight The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
Answer
  • 2,3
  • 1,2,3
  • 1,2
  • 1,3

Question 62

Question
What is the value of magnetic dip at the south magnetic pole?
Answer
  • 360°
  • 180°
  • 90°
  • 0°

Question 63

Question
The "Useful Load" is:
Answer
  • TOW - fuel mass.
  • BEW plus fuel load.
  • Basic empty weight plus Usable Fuel Load.
  • Ramp weight minus Dry Operating Mass.

Question 64

Question
By adding the payload to the Dry operating weight, we get:
Answer
  • Ramp weight.
  • Takeoff weight.
  • Zero fuel weight.
  • Landing weight.

Question 65

Question
What can be said about the temperature in the lower stratosphere?
Answer
  • The temperature is constant.
  • The temperature is increasing.
  • The temperature is decreasing.
  • The temperature is first increasing and then decreasing.

Question 66

Question
A vertical separation of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two flight level Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
Answer
  • More than 1000 ft.
  • It remains 1000 ft.
  • Less than 1000 ft.
  • Without QNH information, it cannot be determined.

Question 67

Question
Which statement is correct concerning wind direction in the northern hemisphere?
Answer
  • Friction deflects the wind toward areas of higher pressure.
  • Wind always flows directly from areas of high to areas of low pressure.
  • Wind flows clockwise around high pressure areas and counterclockwise around low pressure areas.
  • Wind flows clockwise around low pressure areas and counterclockwise around high pressure areas.

Question 68

Question
What types of clouds precipitation and visibility are usually associated with unstable air?
Answer
  • Layered clouds shower and poor visibility
  • Cumuliform clouds, rain showers and poor visibility
  • Continuous precipitation and poor visibility
  • Cumuliform clouds rain showers and good visibility outside of shower areas

Question 69

Question
Steady rain preceding a front is an indication of:
Answer
  • A broad area of frontal discontinuity
  • Cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence
  • A rapidly approaching cold front with cumuliform type clouds
  • An approaching warm front with associated stratus and little or no turbulence

Question 70

Question
Nimbostratus a gray or dark massive cloud layer, belongs to which family of clouds?
Answer
  • High clouds
  • Middle clouds
  • Low clouds
  • Clouds with extensive vertical development

Question 71

Question
What is the embedded thunderstorms?
Answer
  • Thunderstorms have been visually sighted
  • Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line
  • Thunderstorms are predicated to develop in stable air mass
  • Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen

Question 72

Question
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Answer
  • Roll cloud
  • Continuous updraft
  • Frequent lightning
  • Beginning of rain at the surface

Question 73

Question
Which of the following would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Answer
  • Warming from below
  • Cooling from below
  • Decrease in water vapor
  • Sinking of the air mass

Question 74

Question
A wing is said to be tapered if:
Answer
  • It is inclined upwards from root to tip.
  • The chord at the wingtip is less than the chord at the root.
  • The incidence at the tip is less than at the root.
  • The camber is increased at the wingtip.

Question 75

Question
As air flows into the converging section of a venturi:
Answer
  • Static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow decreases.
  • Static pressure increases, velocity decreases, mass flow is constant.
  • Static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow is constant
  • Static pressure decreases, velocity decreases, mass flow decreases.

Question 76

Question
The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
Answer
  • Parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
  • Parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.
  • Induced drag is equal to zero.
  • Induced drag is lowest.

Question 77

Question
What effect on induced drag does entering ground effect have?
Answer
  • Increase
  • Decrease
  • Remain the same.
  • Induced drag will increase, but profile drag will decrease.

Question 78

Question
Indicated stalling speed ……………. with varying temperature.
Answer
  • Varies
  • Remains constant
  • Decreases
  • Increase

Question 79

Question
The effects of CG position on longitudinal static stability and control response will be:
Answer
  • Forward movement of the CG will reduce stability and increase control response.
  • Forward movement of the CG will reduce control response and increase stability.
  • Rearward movement of the CG will increase stability and reduce control response.
  • Rearward movement of the CG will reduce stability and control response.

Question 80

Question
Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:
Answer
  • Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
  • Force produced perpendicular to the relative wind.
  • Reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air over a curved surface and acting perpendicular to the mean surface.
  • Partial vacuum produced on top of the wing.

Question 81

Question
For a certain amount of lift to be created:
Answer
  • There are only one certain airspeed and one certain angle of attack.
  • There are different combination of airspeed and angle of attack.
  • There is one certain airspeed.
  • There is one certain angle of attack.

Question 82

Question
The most efficient type of flap is the:
Answer
  • Fowler flap.
  • Slotted flap.
  • Split flap.
  • Plain flap.

Question 83

Question
What should the pilot do to increase rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius of turn?
Answer
  • Shallow the bank and decrease airspeed.
  • Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
  • Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
  • Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.

Question 84

Question
If an increase in power tends to make the nose of the aircraft rise, this is the result of the:
Answer
  • Thrust line being below the center of gravity.
  • Center of lift being ahead of the center of gravity.
  • Center of lift and center of gravity being collocated.
  • Center of gravity being ahead of the center of lift.

Question 85

Question
Which of the following is considered as primary flight control?
Answer
  • Elevator
  • Dorsal fin.
  • Slats
  • Spoilers

Question 86

Question
During skidding turn to the right what is relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force and load factor?
Answer
  • Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
  • Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
  • Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is increased.
  • Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is decreased.

Question 87

Question
VOR operates in................... and on Frequency between...................
Answer
  • UHF - 108.00 through 117.95 MHz
  • UHF - 108.00 through 117.95 kHz
  • VHF - 108.00 through 117.95 MHz
  • VHF - 108.00 through 117.95 kHz

Question 88

Question
Civil aircraft can use TACAN facility, just by using it's:
Answer
  • Distance
  • Direction
  • A+B
  • Heading

Question 89

Question
If the magnetic bearing changes from 090° to 100° in 2.5 minutes elapsed time, the time to the station would be:
Answer
  • 12 minutes.
  • 15 minutes.
  • 18minutes.
  • 22 minutes

Question 90

Question
When flying on a radial to the station the positive identification of station passage is by:
Answer
  • Fluctuating of CDI.
  • Changing TO/FROM flag.
  • OFF flag indication.
  • All answers are correct.

Question 91

Question
Flying in the vicinity of CB clouds and using ADF:
Answer
  • The ANT position of the function switch should be used when listening for NDB identification.
  • Strong static emitted from the CB may cause the ADF needle to deflect towards the CB.
  • The static emitted from the CB will fade soon after you have passed it.
  • All answers are correct.

Question 92

Question
What is the minimum lateral distance to intercept R-060° when an aircraft flying on R-052° and DME indicator shows 60NM to station?
Answer
  • 6 NM
  • 7 NM
  • 8 NM
  • 9 NM

Question 93

Question
Specific fuel consumption for piston engine aircraft is defined as the:
Answer
  • Designed fuel consumption for a given RPM.
  • Mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.
  • Quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions.
  • Maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.

Question 94

Question
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburetor, the low temperature that causes carburetor ice is normally the result of:
Answer
  • Compression of air at the carburetor venture.
  • Low volatility of aviation fuel.
  • Vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburetor.
  • Freezing temperature of the air entering the carburetor.

Question 95

Question
In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is:
Answer
  • Enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.
  • Weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
  • Prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
  • Correct for variations in the fuel air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.

Question 96

Question
Why is it considered good practice to fill the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day?
Answer
  • To force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines.
  • To prevent moisture from condensing by eliminating air from the tanks.
  • To prevent expansion of fuel by eliminating air from the tanks.
  • A & C are correct.

Question 97

Question
The use of carburetor heat:
Answer
  • Enriches the Fuel/air mixture because the heated air is denser than the outside air that had been entering the cylinder.
  • Enriches the Fuel/air mixture because the heated air is less dense than the outside air that had been entering the cylinder.
  • Will not enrich the fuel/air mixture.
  • The fuel/air mixture to become leaner.

Question 98

Question
An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
Answer
  • Control the carburetor inlet air flow.
  • Control the cylinder head temperature.
  • Assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.
  • Control the fuel temperature.

Question 99

Question
Vortices from large aircraft in flight sink at a rate of about:
Answer
  • 200 to 300 feet per minute.
  • 300 to 400 feet per minute.
  • 400 to 500 feet per minute.
  • 900 to 1000 feet per minute.

Question 100

Question
What is the characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?
Answer
  • Best angle of climb.
  • Maximum range and maximum glide distance.
  • Maximum endurance.
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

Overgrowth
rachi3470
Radio Terminology
Paul Jamrozy
Test 1
Bogdan Cojocaru
PPL Technical Practice 2
kiwi_cam
job
sooma nan
PPL Technical Practice 4
kiwi_cam
PPL Technical Practice 3
kiwi_cam
Overgrowth
EMI D
PPL General Knowledge
avramov.e
Command Words
Mr Mckinlay
PSBD TEST 1
Mwebaze Green
Browse Library