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3. Performance

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Tema 1 Performances Quiz on 3. Performance, created by Jose Antonio Vazquez on 06/11/2018.
Jose Antonio Vazquez
Quiz by Jose Antonio Vazquez, updated more than 1 year ago
Jose Antonio Vazquez
Created by Jose Antonio Vazquez over 5 years ago
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Question 1

Question
119) In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with:
Answer
  • the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.
  • the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve.
  • the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve.
  • the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve.

Question 2

Question
145) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
  • Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.
  • The accelerate stop distance increases.
  • The accelerate stop distance decreases.

Question 3

Question
146) A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
Answer
  • reduced
  • substantially decreased
  • increased
  • unchanged

Question 4

Question
147) Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
Answer
  • VREF
  • VR
  • VMCA
  • V2

Question 5

Question
148) The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
Answer
  • 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
  • 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.
  • 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-engine turboprop aeroplanes.
  • 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.

Question 6

Question
149) A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
Answer
  • The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
  • The clearway does not equal the stopway.
  • The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
  • The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

Question 7

Question
151) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........
Answer
  • (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
  • (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
  • (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
  • (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.

Question 8

Question
154) The speed V2 is
Answer
  • that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
  • the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
  • the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
  • the take-off safety speed.

Question 9

Question
142) The speed VS is defined as
Answer
  • speed for best specific range.
  • stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.
  • safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.
  • design stress speed.

Question 10

Question
156) A higher outside air temperature
Answer
  • does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
  • reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
  • reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
  • increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

Question 11

Question
157) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?
Answer
  • The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
  • The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
  • V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
  • It may lead to over-rotation.

Question 12

Question
158) What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
Answer
  • Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
  • Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
  • Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.
  • Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

Question 13

Question
160) The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the :
Answer
  • TAS decreases.
  • glide angle increases.
  • IAS increases.
  • aircraft mass decreases.

Question 14

Question
161) The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:
Answer
  • 1.2VMCG.
  • 1.05VLOF.
  • 1.3V1.
  • 1.2Vs.

Question 15

Question
162) When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
Answer
  • the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
  • the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.
  • the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".
  • the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.

Question 16

Question
163) A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
Answer
  • very significantly decreased
  • increased
  • unchanged
  • decreased

Question 17

Question
349) A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?
Answer
  • Decrease / decrease.
  • Increase / decrease.
  • Increase / increase.
  • Decrease / increase.

Question 18

Question
153) Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
Answer
  • Configuration and mass.
  • Configuration and angle of attack.
  • Mass and altitude.
  • Altitude and configuration.

Question 19

Question
132) Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?
Answer
  • High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
  • Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
  • Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
  • Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.

Question 20

Question
122) The absolute ceiling
Answer
  • is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%
  • is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
  • is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
  • can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed

Question 21

Question
123) The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is reached:
Answer
  • at the service ceiling.
  • at the practical ceiling.
  • at the lowest possible altitude.
  • at the optimum cruise altitude.
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