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scor2
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Fragen in diesem Quiz (50)
1An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration. The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth.
Which product meets all of these requirements?- ACisco Prime Infrastructure
- BCisco Identity Services Engine
- CCisco Stealthwatch
- DCisco AMP for Endpoints
2When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choosetwo.)
- Aauthentication server: Cisco Identity Service Engine
- Bsupplicant: Cisco AnyConnect ISE Posture module
- Cauthenticator: Cisco Catalyst switch
- Dauthenticator: Cisco Identity Services Engine
- Eauthentication server: Cisco Prime Infrastructure
3The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?
- ACertificate Trust List
- BEndpoint Trust List
- CEnterprise Proxy Service
- DSecured Collaboration Proxy
4Which API is used for Content Security?
- ANX-OS API
- BIOS XR API
- COpenVuln API
- DAsyncOS API
5Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two.)
- AThe attack is fragmented into groups of 16 octets before transmission.
- BThe attack is fragmented into groups of 8 octets before transmission.
- CShort synchronized bursts of traffic are used to disrupt TCP connections.
- DMalformed packets are used to crash systems.
- EPublicly accessible DNS servers are typically used to execute the attack.
6Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two.)
- AEnable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.
- BDefine security group memberships.
- CRevoke expired CRL of the websites.
- DUse antispyware software.
- EImplement email filtering techniques.
7Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?
- ASSL VPN
- BGET VPN
- CFlexVPN
- DDMVPN
8Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?
- Aasa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv
asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscXXXXXXXX
asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy - Basa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauth
asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXX
asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy - Casa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauth
asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscXXXXXXXX
asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy - Dasa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv
asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXX
asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy
- Aasa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv
9Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
- Amultiple context mode
- Buser deployment of Layer 3 networks
- CIPv6
- Dclustering
10Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?
- Atransparent
- Bredirection
- Cforward
- Dproxy gateway
11An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two.)
- Aasset inventory management
- Ballowed application management
- CActive Directory group policy management
- Dnetwork device management
- Ecritical device management
12Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
- AIP Blacklist Center
- BFile Reputation Center
- CAMP Reputation Center
- DIP and Domain Reputation Center
13Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
- AA new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
- BAn endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
- CA new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy
- DAn endpoint is profiled for the first time.
- EA new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
14Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?
- ACisco Security Intelligence
- BCisco Application Visibility and Control
- CCisco Model Driven Telemetry
- DCisco DNA Center
15Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two.)
- APatch for cross-site scripting.
- BPerform backups to the private cloud
- CProtect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint
- DInstall a spam and virus email filter.
- EProtect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.
16An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware.
Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransomware infection? (Choose two.)- AConfigure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on the network.
- BSet up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing access on the network.
- CConfigure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before allowing access on the network.
- DConfigure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the network
- ESet up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion
17Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?
- ASensitive data must remain onsite.
- BDemand is unpredictable.
- CThe server team wants to outsource this service.
- DESA is deployed inline.
18Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches
over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?- ADMVPN
- BFlexVPN
- CIPsec DVTI
- DGET VPN
19Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?
- AAMP
- BAnyConnect
- CDynDNS
- DTalos
20What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryptionoptions?
- AIt decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users
- BIt alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.
- CIt decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.
- DIt provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.
21What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?
- AMail Submission Agent
- BMail Transfer Agent
- CMail Delivery Agent
- DMail User Agent
22Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two.)
- Aaccounting
- Bassurance
- Cautomation
- Dauthentication
- Eencryption
23Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
- APaaS
- BXaaS
- CIaaS
- DSaaS
24What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?
- AEnable IP Layer enforcement
- BActivate the Advanced Malware Protection license
- CActivate SSL decryption.
- DEnable Intelligent Proxy.
25Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight viruses and malware? (Choose two.)
- ASophos engine
- Bwhite list
- CRAT
- Doutbreak filters
- EDLP
26How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?
- Aper policy
- Bin the Reporting settings
- Cin the Security Settings section
- Dper network in the Deployments section
27What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection
and Response?- AEPP focuses on prevention, and EDR focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.
- BEDR focuses on prevention, and EPP focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.
- CEPP focuses on network security, and EDR focuses on device security.
- DEDR focuses on network security, and EPP focuses on device security.
28On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus?
- Aapplication development
- Bwireless network
- Cdata center
- Dperimeter network
29Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?
- ASDN controller and the network elements
- Bmanagement console and the SDN controller
- Cmanagement console and the cloud
- DSDN controller and the cloud
30What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?
- ATraffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level within the interval.
- BTraffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.
- CTraffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval.
- DTraffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the
packet is unicast or broadcast.
31Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two.)
- Aput
- Boptions
- Cget
- Dpush
- Econnect
32In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?
- Ahypervisor
- Bvirtual machine
- Cnetwork
- Dapplication
33An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing.
Which outbreak control method is used to accomplish this task?- Adevice flow correlation
- Bsimple detections
- Capplication blocking list
- Dadvanced custom detections
34Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?
- ADMZ multiple zone mode
- Btransparent firewall mode
- Cmultiple context mode
- Drouted mode
35Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two.)
- ACisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS
- BCisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured
- CCisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises
- DCisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured
- ECisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured
36What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
- ACisco Umbrella
- BExternal Threat Feeds
- CCisco Threat Grid
- DCisco Stealthwatch
37What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?
- ACMX
- BWMI
- CPrime Infrastructure
- DTelemetry
38Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?
- Across-site scripting
- Bwater holing
- CDDoS
- Dbuffer overflow
39An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE.
Which CoA type achieves this goal?- APort Bounce
- BCoA Terminate
- CCoA Reauth
- DCoA Session Query
40Which command was used to display this output?
- Ashow dot1x all
- Bshow dot1x
- Cshow dot1x all summary
- Dshow dot1x interface gi1/0/12
41Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)
- ACheck integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
- BUse prepared statements and parameterized queries.
- CSecure the connection between the web and the app
- DWrite SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
- EBlock SQL code execution in the web application database login.
42How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?
- AIt delivers visibility and threat detection
- BIt prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.
- CIt assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers
- DIt facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.
43Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two.)
- ASIP
- Binline normalization
- CSSL
- Dpacket decoder
- Emodbus
44Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management Center?
- Aquality of service
- Btime synchronization
- Cnetwork address translations
- Dintrusion policy
45The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?
- ASDN controller and the cloud
- Bmanagement console and the SDN controller
- Cmanagement console and the cloud
- DSDN controller and the management solution
46What is a result of the configuration?
- ATraffic from the DMZ network is redirected.
- BTraffic from the inside network is redirected.
- CAll TCP traffic is redirected.
- DTraffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected.
47Which two services must remain as on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two.)
- ADDoS
- Bantispam
- Cantivirus
- Dencryption
- EDLP
48What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?
- AIt tracks flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied events.
- BIt provides stateless IP flow tracking that exports all records of a specific flow.
- CIt tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.
- DIts events match all traffic classes in parallel.
49Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?
- AFile Analysis
- BSafeSearch
- CSSL Decryption
- DDestination Lists
50Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
- Aphishing
- Bbrute force
- Cman-in-the-middle
- DDDOS
- Etear drop
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- Quiz am scor2, erstellt von Abd Ha am 21/04/2020.
- Autor
- Abd Ha
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 112
- Bewertung
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