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Fragen in diesem Quiz (166)
1What is the maximum Takeoff and landing altitude for the B757? (without high altitude landing switch)
- A8400 ft
- B10.000 ft
- C14.000 ft
- DNo limit
2What indications can you expect when equipment smoke is present?
- Aone or both air conditioning packs switch to high flow
- Bone or both recirculation fans turn off
- Cthe overboard exhaust valve opens
- DAll Correct
3Leaving the aircraft in Burkina Faso for crew rest, 42°C OAT, electrical power on. Which procedure is required?
- ANo procedure required
- BTwo cabin doors open
- COne pack operating or equivalent ground
cooling - DTwo packs operating is minimum required
4The Engine anti ice operation is dependent upon engine bleed switch position
- ATrue
- BFalse
5The EICAS msg „ENG HIGH STAGE“ displays when...
- AEngine bleed air pressure is excessive
- BEngine bleed air temperature is excessive
- CThe engine is in high stage mode
- DThe engine bleed air valve is closed.
6The EICAS msg „ENG BLEED VALVE“ displays when...
- AEngine bleed air temperature is excessive
- BEngine bleed air pressure is excessive
- CThe engine is in high stage mode
- DThe engine bleed air valve is closed.
7The EICAS msg „PACK TEMP“ displays when...
- APack outlet temperature is excessive
- BPack internal temperature is excessive
- CPack controller fault
- DAll correct
8The EICAS msg „PACK OFF“ displays when...
- APack switched off“
- BPack internal temperature is excessive
- CPack controller fault
- DPack switched off and pack internal temperature is excessive
9“The _____ recirculation fan should NOT be turned off as this causes the overboard exhaust valve to open.”
- ALeft
- BRight
10The Zone Temperature controllers are set as follows: 22°C, 24°C, 25°C. What temperature will the packs output?
- A22°
- B24°
- C25°
- DNo way to tell
11Equipment Cooling System. What below describes the forward system?
- AOne supply fan and Left recirc fan operate in normal operation
- BTwo supply fans and Left recirc fan operate in normal operation
- COnly the L recirc fan operates in normal operation
- DL and R recirc fan operate in normal operation
12What is accomplished by pushing the Equip Cooling switch to ALTN?
- AActivates the alternate supply fan
- BActivates the Right recirc fan
- CActivates the Left recirc fan
- DOpens the overboard exhaust valve
13At what cabin altitude does the CABIN ALTITUDE light illuminate?
- A8500
- B10000
- C14000
14What can cause a PACK OFF light to illuminate when the selector is in AUTO?
- ALack of air to the pack
- BExcessive air flow
- CTrim air switch off
15What does the pack INOP light indicate?
- AExcessive pack temperature or controller fault.
- BLoss of zone temperature controller
- CExcessive trim air temp or pack valve
closed.
16What does it Indicate when the Isolation VALVE Light comes on?
- AValve and switch positions are not in agreement.
- BThe valve is open.
- CThe valve is closed.
17The Trim Air Switch is off. What cabin temperature do the packs attempt to maintain?
- A50°F ( 10°C)
- B75°F ( 24°C)
- CVariable, depending upon zone
requirement
18What altitude setting should be set on the LDG ALT selector during Cockpit preparation?
- A200 ft. below takeoff airport elevation.
- BDestination airport elevation.
- CCabin altitude as determined from
placard.
19During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output of the air conditioning packs?
- AThe zone requiring the coolest air.
- BThe zone requiring the warmest air.
- CThe zone with the warmest selection.
20One forward equipment cooling supply fan operates at a time. What causes the alternate fan to operate?
- AHigh temperature in the forward E/E compartment
- BPushing the Alternate equipment Cooling switch.
- CLow cooling air pressure.
21What limits are set by the AUTO RATE Control?
- ACruise altitude.
- BDifferential pressure.
- CCabin rates of climb and descent.
22What type of power is used for outflow valve actuation during auto control?
- AAC
- BDC and AC
- CDC
23When a pack selector is positioned to STBY N, what is the outlet temperature of the pack?
- AConstant moderate temperature
- BVariable, dependent upon zone
requirements. - CFull cold.
24Refer to the picture above. What is the normal setting for item 1
- A100%
- BN
25Refer to the picture above, item 2. What would be the preferred setting during smoke in the cockpit?
- ARotated in the direction of the arrow
- BThe same setting as indicated on the
picture
26The passenger oxygen system is deployed automatically when the cabin altitude reaches:
- A12000 ft
- B14000 ft
- C15000 ft
27The crew can escape from the cockpit using the cockpit window Emergency pneumatic slide.
- ATrue
- BFalse
28With the EICAS computer selector in AUTO, what happens if the left EICAS computer fails?
- ALeft engine indications are blanked.
- BThe right computer controls both CRTs.
- CThe upper CRT is blanked.
29The lower EICAS display (STATUS display) shows what oxygen pressure?
- APassenger oxygen pressure.
- BCockpit crew oxygen pressure.
- CFlight attendant oxygen pressure
30The passenger oxygen system uses the same source as the cockpit crew?
- ATrue
- BFalse
31What powers the EEC
- Adedicated generators
- BThe hot battery bus
- CL main AC bus
- DR main AC bus
32What rotor turns the accessory gearbox?
- AN1
- BN2
- CN3
- DN4
33The EEC provides:
- AEPR overboost protection
- BN1 speed protection
- CN2 speed protection
- DN3 speed protection
34The ELC provides:
- AEPR overboost protection
- BN1 speed protection
- CN2 speed protection
- DN3 speed protection
35The pneumatic starter drives...
- AN1
- BN2
- CN3
- DEPS
36For how long can the air starter be operated (Normal Cycle)?
- A1 min
- B2 min
- C3 min
- D4 min
37What is the normal, and maximum re- engagement speed for the air starter?
- ANormal 0-20%, max 30%
- BNormal 0%, max 20%
- CNormal 20%, max 20%
- DNormal 0-20%, max 40%
38What type of ignition must be on in severe turbulence?
- AFLT
- BOFF
- CCONT
- DAUTO
39Where is the fuel flow measured?
- AAfter passing the engine fuel valve
- BBefore the second stage fuel pump
- CBetween the spar valve and engine fuel valve
- DIn between the fuel/oil cooler and the fuel filter
40How many oil pressure measurements are there per engine?
- AOne
- BTwo
- CFour
- DThree
41Up to what altitude can the APU supply electrical power?
- AMax operating altitude
- B17000‘
- C14000‘
- D35000‘
42Up to what altitude can the APU supply pneumatic power?
- AMax operating altitude
- B17000‘
- C14000‘
- D35000‘
43The APU selector has been inadvertently moved to OFF and the APU RUN light is still illuminated, how can the shutdown cycle be cancelled?
- AReturn the APU selector to ON.
- BPlace the APU selector to ON and cycle the
Battery switch OFF the ON. - CMove the APU selector to START and release
to ON
44Which is a true statement regarding the APU?
- AThe APU can supply only electrical power on the ground.
- BThe APU can supply electrical power for all normal loads plus bleed air for two air conditioning packs or start an engine.
- CThe APU should not be used to supply electric power and bleed air
45What action, if any, is required when starting the APU with battery power only?
- AThe DC fuel pump must be switched on prior to APU start.
- BThe left forward DC pump must be placed on.
- CNo action is required. The DC fuel pump starts
automatically.
46What is the position of the reversers when the 'REV' annunciations are not displayed?
- AStowed and locked.
- BIn transit.
- CExtended.
47What malfunction has occurred if the right eng. oil pr. light is on, the ‘R ENG OIL PRESS’ message is displayed and oil pressure on lower EICAS indicates normal for the R. eng.?
- ALow oil pressure.
- BHigh oil pressure.
- COil pressure switch fault.
48What occurs when the Fuel Control Switch is placed in the CUTOFF position?
- AFuel control valve closes.
- BFuel Shutoff valve closes.
- CEngine Fuel and Spar Valves close.
49What will occur if EGT exceeds the red line limit?
- APointer will change to amber.
- BPointer will remain white for takeoff.
- CMaximum exceedance value attained will be
displayed.
50What does the APU selector do when turned OFF?
- AOpens the APU bleed valve.
- BInitiates shutdown cooling cycle.
- CCuts off fuel.
51Using Ground Air, what is the recommended minimum duct pressure for starting engines?
- A15 PSI
- B30 PSI
- C45 PSI
52Engine has no response to thrust lever movement. What is the appropriate checklist?
- AEngine EEC
- BEngine limit or surge or stall
- CEngine fire or severe damage or separation
- DEngine failure or shutdown
53During start, if the start valve fails to close automatically what will be the corresponding EICAS message?
- AStarter valve
- BStarter fail
- CStarter cutout
- DStarter auto fail
54When is the flight recorder automatically activated?
- AAfter both engines are started or inflight.
- BAfter either engine is started or inflight.
- CAfter the ACARS OUT time is recorded.
55What does pushing the Alert call Switch in the cockpit accomplish?
- ACalls all stations.
- BSounds a continuous warning chime
- CA warning siren sounds
56There is a smoke in the cabin and cockpit, you suspect that the Wi-Fi is on fire. What do you do?
- AAccomplish “Wi-Fi on fire” checklist
- BTurn off the Wi-Fi.
- CAccomplish “smoke, fire and fumes”
checklist - DNothing
57Does the HF radio sensitivity setting affect SELCAL reception?
- AYes
- BNo
58How many and what type of fire detectors are in each cargo compartment?
- AThree heat sensors
- BTwo fire detection loops
- CTwo smoke detectors
- DThree fire detection sensors
59What indicates a fault in one of the engine fire detection loops?
- AFire signal
- BEICAS advisory msg
- CStatus msg
- DBite test
60When is the fire bell inhibited?
- ANever
- BFrom nose gear strut extension to 400ft or
20 sec - CFrom 80kts to 400ft or 20 sec
- DBelow 200ft in an automatic landing
61Pulling the engine fire switch...
- ACloses the bleed air valve, trips the generator off, shuts off hydraulic fluid to the EDP, arms both fire ext bottles, silences the fire bell, closes engine fuel and spar valves
- BBleed air valve to low flow, trips the generator off, arms both fire ext bottles
- CCloses the bleed air valve, shuts off hydraulic fuel to the EDP, arms and discharges fire ext bottles
- DCloses the bleed air valve, trips the generator, arms the fire ext bottle
62A/C on ground with both engines shut down. APU shuts down automatically and APU fire ext bottle automatically discharged when APU fire detected.
- ATrue
- BFalse
63How long should you wait before discharging the second fire extinguisher bottle into an engine that continues to have an illuminated fire warning light?
- A10 sec
- B20 sec
- C30 sec
64During engine start the tower informs you that
“a fire is burning in the engine”. There is no fire indication in the cockpit. You...- APull the respective fire switch
- BAccomplish the “engine fire” checklist
- CAccomplish the “engine tailpipe fire”
checklist - DPull the respective fire switch and accomplish the “engine fire” checklist
65When is the fire bell inhibited?
- ANever
- BFrom nose gear ext to 400ft or 20 sec
- CFrom 80kts to 400ft or 20 sec
- DBelow 200ft in a automatic landing
66During ground engine start, most new caution and advisory alerts are inhibited
- ATrue
- BFalse
67Altitude alerting is inhibited in flight with all landing gear down and locked.
- ATrue
- BFalse
68How many „events“ does the EICAS event record switch store?
- AOne
- BTwo
- CThree
- DUnlimited
69The Takeoff configuration warning includes:
- ATrim and flaps
- BTrim, flaps, park brake, spoilers
- CTrim, flaps, park brake
- DTrim, flaps, park brake, spoilers, engine
parmeters
70The Predictive Windshear System (if installed) automatically, regardless of actual Weather Radar Control Panel settings, adjusts the antenna TILT and the system GAIN for optimum windshear detection
- ATrue
- BFalse
71What happens to the crew alerting messages when the Cancel Switch is pushed?
- AAll warning, caution and advisory messages disappear.
- BOnly caution and advisory messages disappear.
- COnly the most recent message disappears.
72During the Go-Around mode, what mode does the autothrottle annunciate?
- ATHR HOLD
- BEPR/N1
- CGA
73Is the runway alignment mode enunciated on ADIs?
- AYes
- BNo
74After take-off, when may the autopilot be engaged?
- AAnytime.
- BOnly above 200 feet AGL.
- COnly after take-off flap retraction.
75What is one indication of Lateral or Vertical NAV mode engagement?
- AAnnunciation on both ADI's.
- BAnnunciation on both ADI's and HSI's
- CA chime sounds twice
76What is the ADI annunciation indicating that the autothrottle system is retarding the throttles during the landing flare?
- ARETARD
- BIDLE
- CTHR HOLD
77Which of the following effects does pushing down on the Autopilot disengage bar have?
- ADisengages command modes, but permits autopilot operation in in HDG SEL and FLCH
- BDisengages autopilots and prevents re- engagement.
- CDisengages autopilots only if a control wheel disengage switch is pushed at the same time
78How can the crew get the localizer and glideslope deviation scales displayed on the ADI's?
- ASelect an ILS frequency on the ILS tuning panel
- BSelect park on the ILS tuning panel
- CReset the ILS circuit breaker.
79What flight director mode is activated by placing a flight director switch ON while on the ground with no autopilots engaged?
- AV/S and HDG HOLD modes.
- BV/S and HDG SEL modes.
- CTake-Off mode.
80Which modes are affected by the Bank Limit Selector?
- AAll roll modes.
- BOnly HDG SEL mode.
- COnly LOC and APP modes.
81During take-off, when is the THR HOLD mode engaged?
- AAt lift off.
- BAt 80 kts.
- CAt 60 kts.
82What does the THR HOLD mode accomplish?
- AMoves throttles to hold take-off thrust.
- BMoves throttles to hold selected speed.
- CRemoves power from the autothrottle servo
system.
83What pitch mode is engaged by engaging the first autopilot in command, with neither Flight Director ON?
- AV/S
- BAlt hold
- CSPD
84What is the flight director roll command in TO mode after lift-off?
- ARunway track
- BRunway heading
- CLast ground track
- DLast heading
85Take-off. MCP altitude 1000ft. No roll or pitch mode selected. Aircraft levels off in ALT CAPT/ALT HOLD. Autothrottle mode will be?
- ATO
- BEPR
- CSPD
- DTHR HLD
86The Bus Tie system parallels engine generators but prevents any other sources to be paralleled.
- ATrue
- BFalse
87What bus powers most of the airplane fire detection systems?
- AHot battery bus
- BBattery bus
- CStandby DC bus
- DR main AC bus
88What bus powers the battery chargers?
- AGround handling bus
- BGround Service bus
- CL main AC bus
- DCpt xfer bus
89Standby power selector in BAT position. Which is true?
- AL main AC bus powers the stb DC bus
- BThe battery bus powers the stb DC bus
- CThe hot battery bus powers the stb DC bus
- DThe stb DC bus is unpowered
90The EICAS msg “GEN DRIVE” displays when...
- Aoil temp is high and oil pressure low
- Boil temp is high and/or oil pressure low
- Coil temp is high
- Doil pressure is low
91EICAS advisory msg “BUS ISOLATED” means:
- AThe bus tie breaker is open
- BThe bus tie breaker is closed
- CThe DC system is isolated
- DThe AC system is isolated
92What bus powers the L utility bus?
- AThe ground handling bus
- BThe R main AC bus
- CL DC bus
- DThe L main AC bus
93BAT switch OFF, standby power selector position BAT. Is the Standby AC bus powered?
- AYes
- BNo
- CMaybe
- DIf the L main bus is powered, then yes
94What normally powers the battery bus during cruise?
- AR DC bus
- BL DC bus
- CHot battery bus
- DStandby DC bus
95During Autoland, which bus powers the C A/P?
- AL main AC bus
- BThe battery standby system
- CL and R xfer busses
- DR main AC bus
96Up to what altitude can the APU supply electrical power?
- AMax operating altitude
- B17000‘
- C14000‘
97Pulling the engine fire switch...
- ACloses the bleed air valve, trips the generator off, shuts off hydraulic fluid to the EDP, arms both fire ext bottles, silences the fire bell, closes engine fuel and spar valves
- BBleed air valve to low flow, trips the generator off, arms both fire ext bottles
- CCloses the bleed air valve, shuts off hydraulic fuel to the EDP, arms and discharges fire ext bottles
- DCloses the bleed air valve, trips the generator, arms the fire ext bottles
98In flight, the left engine is shut down. What electrical busses are lost?
- AOnly the respective utility bus.
- BOnly the two utility buses
- CBoth utility buses and the left DC bus
99When will moving the Battery switch OFF cause the APU to shut down?
- AOn the ground only
- BIn flight only
- COn the ground or in flight
100The APU can be used to power the left main AC bus while the right engine generator is powering the right main AC bus.
a) True- ATrue
- BFalse
101What causes the Standby power Bus OFF light to illuminate?
- ABattery charger failure.
- BLoss of left system power to standby buses.
- CLoss of power on either the standby AC or
DC bus or bat bus.
102With the APU supplying electrical power, what happens when the first engine is started?
- AThe engine powers both main AC buses.
- BThe engine powers its respective buses
only. - CNothing happens until the APU is shut
down
103What does the External Power AVAILBLE light indicate?
- AOnly the External power is plugged in
- BExternal power is plugged in and power
quality is acceptable. - CExternal power is in use on the main
airplane buses.
104Pushing the Generator Control switch off resets the fault trip circuitry.
- ATrue.
- BFalse.
105Which of the following will cause the Generator DRIVE light to illuminate?
- AClogged oil filter.
- BHigh generator load.
- CHigh oil temperature.
106A Generator Drive light can indicate low oil pressure.
- ATrue
- BFalse
107What normally powers the battery bus during cruise?
- AThe left main DC bus.
- BThe standby DC bus.
- CThe hot battery bus.
108Which bus is powered automatically when external power is plugged in and available?
- AStandby AC.
- BGround service bus.
- CGround handling bus.
109Which hydraulic systems power stabilizer trim?
- ALeft and Right.
- BLeft and Centre.
- CCentre and Right.
110What EICAS page displays the rudder, aileron and elevator position?
- AMaintenance.
- BStatus
- CEngine secondary
111How many actuators on each aileron panel position the ailerons?
- A1
- B2
- C3
112What is indicated by the AUTO SPDBRK light when the system is armed?
- AA fault exists which may cause an inflight extension.
- BThe speedbrake is armed and operating normally.
- CThe speedbrakes are not in the commanded position.
113What Stabilizer Trim condition exists when both stabilizer trim cutout switches are in the CUTOUT position?
- AHydraulic power is shut off.
- BElectric power is shut off.Only manual trim is available.
- COnly manual trim is available.
114What does the rudder trim reposition?
- AThe rudder ratio changer.
- BThe rudder trim tabs.
- CThe rudder neutral point
115How many degrees of bank are the flap manuevering speeds based on before initial buffet is encountered?
- A15
- B25
- C40
116Which of the following is one of the required conditions for automatic speedbrake extension with the speedbrake in the ARMED position?
- AApplication of wheel brake pressure.
- BBoth thrust levers at idle.
- COnly one thrust lever at idle.
117When are the leading edge slats extended to the landing position during normal flap extension?
- AFlaps 1.
- BFlaps 15.
- CFlaps 25.
118What is the purpose of the Flap Load Relief system?
- ARetract flaps from 30 to 25 when the flaps 30 airspeed limit is exceeded.
- BRelive "C" hydraulic system pressure to flap actuators when pressure is too high.
- CEnsure that trailing edge flaps extend before the leading edge flaps
119When weather radar displays are on the HSI, what color indicates the least precipitation intensity?
- ARed
- BYellow
- CGreen
120When does an altimeter OFF flag appear?
- AWhen the altimeter is in the backup pneumatic mode.
- BWhen the indications are unreliable.
- CWhen the altitude alert system is
inoperative.
121What should be done if the airplane is inadvertently moved during the IRS alignment?
- APosition the mode selector to ATT position.
- BTurn the mode selectors to OFF, then restart alignment.
- CPosition all mode selectors to ALIGN.
122Which instrument source select switch should be selected to alternate if the MAP flag is displayed on an HSI?
- AFMC switch.
- BEFI switch.
- CIRS switch.
123From what source does the Captain's ADI normally receive attitude signals?
- ACenter IRS.
- BLeft IRS.
- CRight IRS.
124Which instrument switch controls the signal to the vertical speed indicator?
- AFMC.
- BEFI.
- CIRS.
- DADC
125How can data entered on the scratch pad line be completely cleared?
- APush the CLR key once.
- BPush the CLR key twice.
- CPush and hold the CLR key.
126How does the CDU identify an invalid entry by a crewmember?
- AAural warning (3 beeps).
- BFAIL light.
- CMessage on the scratch pad line.
127Which of the following is true regarding the ILS?
- AThe ILS can only be automatically tuned by the FMC for position updating.
- BThe ILS cannot be automatically tuned by the FMC.
- CThe ILS can only be automatically tuned by the FMC for an approach.
128Which of the following will always be displayed when the HSI is placed in the map mode?
- AActive route and tuned VOR and DME stations within the range selected.
- BAll navaids within the range selected.
- CAll navaids and geographic ref. points
within the range selected.
129What function does the RANGE selector have in the MAP and PLAN mode?
- ASelect the map range.
- BSelect the range to the next waypoint.
- CEnter the distance to the next waypoint.
130What additional information is displayed on the HSI when the ARPT switch on the HSI control Panel is on?
- ALocation of all airports in the data base.
- BRunway elevation for all airports in the
data base - CRunway direction for all airports in the data
base.
131The Engine anti-ice operation is dependent upon engine bleed switch position.
- ATrue
- BFalse
132The windows are protected from thermal shock when the switches are initially placed on.
- ATrue
- BFalse
133The Wing anti-ice operation is dependent upon engine bleed switch position.
- ATrue
- BFalse
134What is used to compute engine thrust limit corrections for engine anti-ice?
- AEngine anti-ice valve position
- BEngine bleed air switch position
- CEngine anti-ice switch position
135Wing Anti-ice is on, what will the Wing anti- ice valves do when the airplane lands?
- AClose.
- BRemain open until wing anti-ice is turned
off. - CClose only if an overheat condition exists.
136If the left engine anti-ice switch is blank and its VALVE light on, what is the condition of the Left Engine Anti-ice Valve?
- ASignaled open, and not open
- BSignaled closed, and not closed.
- CSignaled open, and is in transit.
137You are flying over the south Atlantic through the intertropical convergence zone. SAT is -54°C. Is aircraft icing possible?
- AAirframe Icing: yes, engine icing: yes
- BAirframe Icing: no, engine icing: no
- CAirframe Icing: no, engine icing: yes
- DAirframe Icing: yes, engine icing: no
138OAT is 4°C in Keflavík with light rain.
- AEngine anti ice must be on and a run up of 10 sec 60%N1 before takeoff must be accomplished
- BEngine anti ice must be on but a run up before takeoff is not required
- CEngine anti ice off and no run up
139What is the approximate center tank fuel capacity?
- A21.100kg
- B20.000kg
- C17.000kg
- D10.000kg
140How much fuel can be stored in the Center fuel tank with less than full wing tanks?
- A800kg
- B900kg
- C1000kg
- D1100kg
141When will the DC fuel boost pump start automatically?
- AWhen the APU is started with battery power only
- BWhen the left forward boost pump switch is commanded off and the APU is running.
- CWhen the left aft boost pump switch is commanded off and the APU is running.
142The FUEL CONFIGURATION light illuminates when there is more than 600 kilograms in the center tank with the center tank pumps off.
- ATrue
- BFalse
143The ‘LOW FUEL’ EICAS message displays when there is less than 1000 kilograms in either wing tank.
- ATrue.
- BFalse
144When will the Ram Air Turbine extend automatically?
- AWhen both engines fail in-flight.
- BWhen either engine fails
- CWhen center hydraulic system pressure is
low.
145What is indicated when one hydraulic pump "PRESS" light comes on?
- APump output pressure low
- BSystem pressure low.
- CPump output pressure high
146The Ram Air Turbine can be retracted in flight.
- ATrue
- BFalse
147Left and Right hydraulic system pressures are low. Is normal flap extension possible?
- AYes
- BNo
148The Ram Air Turbine provides adequate hydraulic power down to...
- A200
- B160
- C130
- D80
149Right and Center Hydraulic system pressure low. Is stabilizer trim available?
- ANo
- BYes, at 50% of normal rate
- CYes, at 25% of normal rate
- DYes, at normal rate
150Is pressurization of the hydraulic reservoirs monitored?
- AYes
- BNo
151Your colleague on the flight deck inadvertently operates the alternate trim switches during cruise with C autopilot selected. What happens?
- AThe airplane enters an attitude stabilizing
mode - BThe autopilot disconnects
- C‘UNSCHD STAB TRIM’ EICAS msg
appears - DNothing happens
- AThe airplane enters an attitude stabilizing
152Following the loss of which hydraulic system in-flight, results in the longest landing distance used?
- AL with the loss of all hydraulic fluid
- BR with the loss of all hydraulic fluid
- CC with the loss of all hydraulic fluid
153Compared to a normal dry runway landing. How much longer is your landing distance following a loss of R and L hydraulic systems? (approx.)
- AThe landing distance doubles
- BThe landing distance increases 50%
- CThe landing distance increases 25%
- DNearly same landing distance
154What powers the normal brake system?
- AThe Right hydraulic system
- BThe Left hydraulic system
- CThe Center hydraulic system
- DThe Right and Left hydraulic system
155What powers the landing gear extension and retraction during normal operation?
- AThe Right hydraulic system
- BThe Left hydraulic system
- CThe Center hydraulic system
- DThe Right and Left hydraulic system
156What powers the landing gear down during alternate gear extension?
- AThe Right hydraulic system
- BThe Left hydraulic system
- CThe Center hydraulic system
- DGravity
157Aircraft on ground. The accumulator pressure is in the amber band. This means:
- AThe hydraulic pressure in the accumulator is rather low
- BNo parkbrake is available
- CNothing
- DPark brake is available but the
accumulator should be serviced
158What does the message „BRAKE SOURCE“ indicate?
- AThe brakes are inop
- BBoth the normal and the alternate brake
system pressures are low. - CThe normal brake system pressure is low
- DThe alternate brake system pressure is
low
1596. What is accomplished by pushing the „reserve brakes“ switch
- AIt provides reserve hydraulic fluid to the right system electric pump. Pump pressure is then supplied exclusively to the normal brakes system
- BThe reserve brake system is activated
- CStandpipe hydraulic fluid from the left system is used to power the alternate
brake system - DPushing the switch does not accomplish
anything
160What message appears when the parkbrake valve does not open when the parkbrake is released?
- A„Brake valve“
- B„Parking brake valve“
- C„Antiskid“
- DNo message
161What is true regarding the autobrake system?
- A(A) - RTO provides the same braking power as Max AUTO.
- B(B) - RTO provides the same braking power as Max Manual
- C(C) - RTO commands max braking only when T/O is aborted above 85 kts groundspeed
- DBoth B and C are correct
162The Takeoff configuration warning includes:
- ATrim and flaps
- BTrim, flaps, park brake, spoilers
- CTrim, flaps, park brake
- DTrim, flaps, park brake, spoilers, engine
parmeters
163RTO initiated at 100 kts durning t/o in KEF. Takeoff weight is 95.0T. Temperature is 0°C. Max manual braking with full reverse thrust. What is the brake cooling time?
- AIn the caution zone so takeoff has to be delayed
- BIn the fuse plug melt zone
- C66 min
- D36 min
164When will the AUTO BRAKES light be illuminated?
- AWhen the selector is in the DISARM position.
- BWhen the selector is in the OFF position.
- CWhen the auto brakes system is operating.
165When does the alternate brake system operate?
- AWhen right hydraulic pressure to normal brakes is low.
- BWhen the antiskid controller detects a fault in the normal brakes.
- CWhen the MAX AUTO setting is selected for autobrakes.
166When will the landing gear lever lock release?
- AWhen the main gear tilts.
- BWhen the main and nose gear struts
extend. - CWhen the main gear struts are
compressed.
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- Quiz am ALLT, erstellt von Kristjan Bergsteinsson am 28/02/2017.
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 77
- Bewertung
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