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Karteikarten

Invasive Registry Self Assessment

hanxno Englisch 230 Karten

Karten in diesem Stapel (230)

  1. 1What short acting benzodiazapine is commonly used in the cath lab for sedation?midazolam (versed)
  2. 2What is a quick easy way to check a patient's clotting time after being given heparin?ACT
  3. 3How do ticlid and plavix act?They turn off platelet receptor sites
  4. 4What is the normal range of potassium in the blood?3.5 - 5.0
  5. 5Name some antiplatelet medications.ASA, ticlid, plavix
  6. 6How does heparin prevent clot formation?Prevents prothrombin conversion to thrombin. Combines with antithrombin.
  7. 7Constrictive pericarditis is best diagnosed by ___.echo
  8. 8Respiratory variation greater than 10 mmHg change with pulsus paradoxus greater than 10 mmHg are indications of ___.cardiac tamponade
  9. 9Physiology effects of tamponade include ___, ___, and ___.pulmonary vein compression;
    bulging septum;
    aortic compression.
  10. 10Pericardiocentisis as treatment of tamponade requires ___ needle placement.echo guided
  11. 11Coumadin inactivates ___.vitamin K
  12. 12Lovenox prevents factor X conversion to factor ___.XA
  13. 13Heparin prevents conversion of prothrombin to ___.thrombin
  14. 14Angiomax prevents conversion of prothrombin to ___ and prevents conversion of thrombin to ___.thrombin;
    fibrinogen
  15. 15ReoPro sits on ___ receptor sites and is the only drug in its class that ___.IIb/IIIa;
    dissolve clots
  16. 16The active agent in closure devises is ___.collagen
  17. 17An increase in lactic acid will ___ heart rate.increase
  18. 18Increases in pulmonary blood pressure (gas exchange) results in ___ blood velocity across the capillary bed and ___ O2 SAT.increased velocity;
    decreased O2 SAT
  19. 19COPD leads to enlarged alveoli which can ___ or ___ the alveoli capillaries.crush or occlude
  20. 20Endothelial cells secrete ___ causing vasodilation.nitric oxide
  21. 21Phase one of the clotting cascade results in ___ adhesion and ___ site activation.platelet to collegen;
    IIb/IIIa receptor
  22. 22Activated IIb/IIIa receptor sites allow ___ adhesion.platelet to platelet
  23. 23ASA inactivates ___ and ___.arachidonic acid;
    thromboxane A2
  24. 24Plavix stops ADP thus blocking ___ site preps.IIb/IIIa
  25. 25What would increase LVEDP and not LV pressure?LV MI
  26. 26What is the RV pressure of pulmonary stenosis?> 25 mmHg
  27. 27What is the RA pressure of tricuspid regurgitation?Increased RA pressure
  28. 28Does COPD increase or decrease PA pressure?increase
  29. 29What right heart pressures does COPD affect?COPD increases PCWP, PA, RV, and RA systolic and diastolic pressures
  30. 30MS ___ PA pressure.increases
  31. 31MR ___ PA pressure.increases
  32. 32Can PA systolic pressure ever be greater than RV systolic pressure?no
  33. 33MR, MS, and LV MI each ___ PCWP.increase
  34. 34Is LVEF = RVEF?yes
  35. 35Why is RVEDP different from LVEDP?vascular resistance
  36. 36Lidocaine can be used to treat ___.PVC's and v-tach
  37. 37Lidocaine acts on the heart's conduction system by ___.increasing the refractory period
  38. 38A right ventricular MI will cause an increase in ___ with no change in peak ejection pressure or PA pressure.RVEDP
  39. 39Tricuspid stenosis increases the pressure in which heart chamber?right atrium
  40. 40Where is an increase in RA pressure visible on a patient?JVD
  41. 41What would cause a LV systolic pressure increase?aortic stenosis
  42. 42Which blood chemistry test is used as a indicator for the use of a non-ionic contrast material rather than an ionic one?creatinine
  43. 43Which blood gas changes would be expected in a patient that has begun to hyperventilate in anticipation of a catheterization?increased pH; decreased CO2
  44. 44A ventricular gallop is associated with which heart sound?S3
  45. 45Interstitial pulmonary adema is associated with an advanced degree of ___.heart failure
  46. 46Based on the following data: O2 Consumption = 250 ml/min., AO = 21.0 vol. %, PA = 16.0 vol. %, BSA = 1.8 M2. What is the approximate cardiac output for the patient?5 L/min
  47. 47Based on the following data: O2 Consumption = 250 ml/min., AO = 21.0 vol. %, PA = 16.0 vol. %, BSA = 1.8 M2. What is the approximate cardiac index for the patient?2.77 L/min/m2
  48. 48If T-wave sensing occurs in ventricular demand or synchronous pacing, what must be done to the programmable generator?Longer refractory period
  49. 49If a patient had a large S-wave in lead VI and a large R-wave in V5, you might suspect:LVH
  50. 50What is most likely indicated from the following oximetry samples? SVC, 70%, RV, 86% IVC, 71%, PA, 86% Hi RA, 78%, LA, 94% Mid RA, 86%, LV, 94% Low RA, 83%, AO, 94%ASD, L to R shunt
  51. 51On an ECG, which of the following may indicate a loose connection of a temporary pacing wire at the pulse generator spikes?Falling at irregular intervals
  52. 52An ___ will markedly elevate right ventricular systolic pressure.Infundibular stenosis
  53. 53An ___ may be caused by rapid accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac.atrioventricular gradient
  54. 54A patient has a cardiac output of 5 L/min. and a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. If stroke volume remains constant, what will be the effect of an increase in heart rate to 150 beats per minute? Cardiac output would:increase to 10 L/min
  55. 55Cardiac myxomas are usually located in the:left atrium
  56. 56Overdrive suppression of Torsade de Pointes and atrial flutter works by pacing the heart according to the following protocol:10-40 beats/minute faster than the intrinsic HR
  57. 57What is the BEST indicator of the exact moment the aortic and pulmonary valves open?Beginning of systolic rise on the arterial pressure.
  58. 58In an aortic pressure recording, a gradual upstroke with a prominent low anacrotic notch is indicative of:aortic stenosis
  59. 59A fall in pressure between the ___ and the ___ is characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?right ventricle; pulmonary artery
  60. 60In an aortic pressure recording, a rapid upstroke with a large pulse pressure is indicative of:aortic insufficiency
  61. 61What is MOST likely indicated by the following pressures: RV = 26/2, PA= 25/19, LA = mean of 18, LV = 142/8, AO = 145/75?mitral stenosis
  62. 62In cardiac tamponade, venous pressures ___ and arterial pressures ___.rise; fall
  63. 63What typically increases to compensate for constrictive diseases which impede filling?preload
  64. 64What is responsible for the second heart sound (S2)?closure of semilunar valves (pulmonic and aortic tricuspid valves)
  65. 65What may be considered the MOST common cause of confusion in determination of angina pectoris?indigestion
  66. 66The ___ catheter will not handle an injection of 36-55 cc's at a rate of 12-18 cc/second.Lehman
  67. 67The MOST commonly used scalpel blade used for the skin incision in preparation for a Sones technique of catheterization is the ___ blade.#15 blade
  68. 68What is a major advantage of using high mA settings during angiography?decreased pulse width duration
  69. 69The greatest problem associated with a femoral stick above the inguinal ligament is:a predisposition to inadequate compression and subsequent hematoma formation
  70. 70What are factors that can diminish the validity of ventriculography?catheter tip too close to mitral valve; PVC's
  71. 71A primary problem or complaint of the patient with mitral valve regurgitation is ___.shortness of breath
  72. 72What is the approximate peak time for troponin?12 hours
    (released 2-4 hours, persists up to 7 days)
  73. 73What is the approximate peak time for CK-MB?10-24 hours
    (back to normal 2-3 days)
  74. 74What is the approximate peak time for LDH?72 hours
    (back to normal 10 - 14 days)
  75. 75Appropriate pre-med for a catheterization patient with a history of dye allergies includes:benadryl;
    cimetadone;
    prednisone
  76. 76What anomaly is MOST commonly associated with inferior rib margin notching visible on a chest x-ray?coarctation of the aorta
  77. 77What is the resultant condition when PCWP pressure exceeds the oncotic pressure of the plasma proteins?interstitial pulmonary edema
    (@ 25mmHG)
  78. 78The MOST common effect of using a mA that is too low is ___.too few photons are generated
  79. 79Which inotropic agent predominately stimulates Beta 1 receptors?epinephrine
  80. 80Altering the ___ is NOT a mechanism of action for anti-tachycardia agents.parasympathetic response
  81. 81Some mechanisms of action for anti-tachycardia agents include:slowing sodium influx;
    slowing calcium influx;
    altering sympathetic response
  82. 82"Waveform damping" can be indicated by a:systolic pressure drop
  83. 83"Waveform damping" may be caused by ___ in the ___.contrast media;
    pressure tubing
  84. 84"Waveform damping" may represent restriction of ___ due to total or ___.coronary blood flow;
    partial occlusion
  85. 85In x-rays, mA effects ___.exposure
  86. 86In x-rays, kV effects ___.contrast
  87. 87In x-rays, mA has the greatest influence over ___.ultimate density of the film
  88. 88Which electrolyte imbalance aggravates digitalis toxicity?hypokalemia
    (low potassium)
  89. 89Which medication inhibits sodium reabsorption causing an increase in urine output?lasix
    (furosemide)
  90. 90What is a MAJOR indication for the administration of sodium bicarbonate?metabolic acidosis
  91. 91Rapid injection of procainamide may cause ___.hypotension
  92. 92Nifedipine is what class of drug?calcium channel blocker
  93. 93The most common effect of using a pulse width that is too slow is ___.blurring
  94. 94The electrical current that determines the number of photons generated by an x-ray tube is called the ___.milliamperage, mA
  95. 95The anode produces ___ within the x-ray tube.photons
  96. 96Cesium-iodide is commonly used as a the ___ for an image intensifier.fluorescent coating
  97. 97How many cc's of contrast should be placed in a 20 cc syringe when prepping the PTCA balloon catheter?10 cc
  98. 98Which of the following is purely contraindicated for the use of inta-aortic counterpulsation?AI
  99. 99What are some typical side effects of thrombolytics?internal bleeding,
    allergic reactions,
    reperfusion arrhythmias (when given for MI)
  100. 100What are some contraindications for the use of thrombolitycs?CPR,
    pregnancy,
    recent CVA
  101. 101The threshold for an implantable pacemaker can be described as:the minimum amount of mA required to elicit a ventricular response
  102. 102The first derivative of the LV pressure is a measure of ___.myocardial contractility
  103. 103The most common mechanism of tachycardia is ___.re-entry
  104. 104Can a NIH catheter be introduced by an over-the-wire method?No, NIH has no end hole
  105. 105The amount of stretch inherent in balloon materials is described as ___.compliance
  106. 106A commonly seen complication following a transvenous pacemaker implant is ___.lead dislodgement
  107. 107Which leads are commonly affected by an anterior infarction?I, aVL, V1, V2, V3, V4
  108. 108The BEST location for an IVC filter is ___.below the renal veins
  109. 109Which view of the heart is provided by leads V3 and V4?anterior wall
  110. 110In the presence of a L to R VSD, a mixed venous blood sample can BEST be obtained from where?RA
  111. 111Reprogramming the ___ can override a DDD pacemaker induced tachycardia.atrial refractory period
  112. 112When the device settings for intra-aortic counter pulsation are properly set, the systemic BP should ___ and the diastolic BP should ___.systolic decreased; diastolic increased
  113. 113One complication of mechanical heart valves is ___.hemolytic anemia
  114. 114Proper inflation of an intra-aortic counter pulsation balloon results in ___.increased coronary perfusion
  115. 115Which temporary pacemaker adjustment would change the unit from the demand mode to the asynchronous mode?decrease pacer sensitivity
  116. 116Under normal functioning circumstances, what is considered a normal MEAN BP range for systemic circulation?70 - 105 mmHg
  117. 117Oxygen capacity is defined as:Hgb x 1.36 x 10
  118. 118In the AP projection, which structure is the most posterior?LA
  119. 119Which artery usually lies in the posterior interventricular groove?The distal right coronary artery/PDA
  120. 120Where is the MAJOR component of vascular resistance generated?arterioles
  121. 121What activity is associated with the arterial dicrotic notch?isometric relaxation
  122. 122What is a typical finding during cardiac catheterization for a patient with suspected hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?decreased LV compliance; normal systolic function
  123. 123What disease state is MOST commonly associated with reduced upstroke velocity in arterial pressure tracing?aortic stenosis
  124. 124The degree of cyanosis in TOF is chiefly determined by what?pulmonary vascular resistance
  125. 125For what condition is the Fontan procedure an appropriate surgical correction?tricuspid atresia
  126. 126What condition is associated with different blood pressures in the upper and lower extremities?coarctation of the aorta
  127. 127Medical treatment with anti-inflammatory agents is most common for what condition?constrictive pericarditis
  128. 128A multipurpose catheter is considered primarily to be a ___ heart catheter.right
  129. 129Which method of measuring cardiac output is least desirable in the detection of a shunt?thermodilutuion
  130. 130Which approach is necessary to perform transseptal left heart catheterization?right femoral vein
  131. 131What is the formula for calculating systemic vascular resistance?mean AO - mean RA divided by CO
  132. 132Which cardiac output should be used to calculate valve regurgitation?Fick
  133. 133Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload?PCWP
  134. 134Which balloon is used for valvuloplasty?Inoue
  135. 135Aortic stenosis demonstrates a pressure that is elevated in the left ventricle and a pressure that is lower in the ___.Aortic arch
  136. 136If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and a bruit is present, what should be suspected?Pseudoaneurysm
  137. 137An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0 cm can be a finding for what pathology?Aortic aneurysm
  138. 138Back pain not relieved with nitroglycerin, morphine or oxygen and is not associated with EKG changes can indicate ___.aortic dissection
  139. 139Which stent is self expanding?Wallstent
  140. 140A catheter is 2.66 mm. What French size is it?8F
  141. 141In relation to a coronary lesion, where should the wire be placed?3-4 cm distal
  142. 142Which lesion is best addressed with a rotoblador?a calcified lesion
  143. 143Which catheter should be used to cannulate an LAD with a high takeoff?Amplatz
  144. 144Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include the:head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the clavicular head
  145. 145If the patient complains of pain down the leg when attempting to cannulate the right femoral artery, which way do you move the needle?medial
  146. 146Coronary arteries perfuse best during ___.diastole
  147. 147What is the purpose of the IABP?Increase coronary perfusion, decrease afterload.
  148. 148A common complication of a rotoblador is ___.distal embolization
  149. 149AN IMA catheter most nearly resembles a ___.JR4
  150. 150What is the recommended rate of burr rotation when using a rotoblador?180,000 - 210,000
  151. 151Over tightening of the touhy bourst will ___.prevent balloon inflation or deflation
  152. 152The best device for management of an acute thrombus in a vessel is ___.angiojet
  153. 153Which device employs the use of sterile heparinized saline to evacuate thrombus?angiojet
  154. 154Calcified lesions are best managed with which device?cutting balloon
  155. 155What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?CO = HR x SV
  156. 156Stroke volume is:related to preload
  157. 157Preload is most impacted by:increased filling volumes
  158. 158A patient with chronic, untreated hypertension would demonstrate:increased afterload
  159. 159Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by?Radius of the vessel
  160. 160The formula for BP is:BP = CO x SVR
  161. 161What component of a PCWP indicates Mitral Insufficiency?v-wave
  162. 162RV waveforms indicating greater than normal pressure indicate what pathologies?Pulmonary Hypertension or Pulmonic Stenosis
  163. 163An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?RV infarct
  164. 164If the RV waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?JVD
  165. 165What is the most common cause of Pulmonic Stenosis?Congenital anomalies
  166. 166The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far back from the distal tip of the swan?30 cm
  167. 167When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ___ and the temp change is measured in the ___RA, PA
  168. 168After the transducer is zeroed it falls onto the floor. The pressure being read off the transducer is now reading _____higher
  169. 169A pressure gradient from the LV to the aorta indicates:aortic stenosis
  170. 170LVEDP is hemodynamically measured on the waveform at:the ventricular upstroke where it coincides with the EKG r-wave.
  171. 171Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of:cardiac tamponade
  172. 172Signs of LV failure include:orthopnea, pulmonary congestion, decreased exercise tolerance
  173. 173Equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP are found in:Restrictive Pericarditis
  174. 174Signs of Right Heart Failure include:JVD
  175. 175If a patient demonstrates a systemic blood flow of 4 L/min and a pulmonary blood flow of 16 L/min, what is the shunt direction and shunt flow?L to R, 4:1
  176. 176What is Flamm's equation?3 SVC + IVC divided by 4
  177. 177The formula used to calculate MAP isSystolic + 2(Diastolic) divided by 3
  178. 178What are the four anomalies associated with Tetrology of Fallot?pulmonic stenosis, overriding aorta, RV hypertrophy, VSD
  179. 179Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large ventricular septal defect over which a large, single great vessel arises?Truncus arteriosus
  180. 180If the shunt ratio on a patient is measuring 5:1, what does that tell you?There is a left to right shunt
  181. 181What does RAD stand for?Radiation Absorbed Dose
  182. 182Which component of the x-ray system converts light rays into images?The image intensifier
  183. 183What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive?5 REM
  184. 184Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?0.5 mm
  185. 185What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source?6 feet
  186. 186In an x-ray tube the cathode is ___ and the anode is ___Cathode is negative
    Anode is positive
  187. 187Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?Lateral
    (the greatest distance from AP)
  188. 188What converts x-rays into an image?The image intensifier
  189. 189The contrast that is best for a patient is:Low osmolality
  190. 190Radiolucent means:x-rays are permitted to pass through
  191. 191Radiopaque means:x-rays are NOT permitted to pass through
  192. 192Reopro works on:IIb/IIIa receptors
  193. 193Heparin potentiates the action of:antithrombin
  194. 194Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by the action of:thrombin
  195. 195There are ___ known pathways to initiate the clotting cascade.2
  196. 196Aspirin inhibits the release of ___ from the platelet.Arachadonic Acid
  197. 197Which agent is not an antiplatelet?Heparin
  198. 198If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?fluids to hydrate, consider pre-procedure hydration
  199. 199If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given?protamine
  200. 200Which medicine is most commonly given with SVT?Adenosine
  201. 201If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4, contrast volume should be minimized.true
  202. 202Lidocaine converts from 2GM in 500cc to:4mg in 1cc;
    (2000mg in 500cc);
    (2000/500 = 4)
  203. 203Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of:400mg in 250cc
    (1600 x 250 divided by 1000)
    (1.6 x 250)
  204. 204The best short acting medication/anxietyolitic to sedate a patient is:versed/midazolam
  205. 205The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is:nitroglycerin
  206. 206Amiodarone is used to treat:atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
  207. 207The labs that best evaluate kidney function are:creatinine, creatinine clearance, GFR
  208. 208What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?nitroglycerin
  209. 209Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing ___ post contrast administration.renal failure
  210. 210Which EKG rhythm is most likely to become lethal?Mobitz II
  211. 211Which EKG rhythm has asynchronous p-waves and r-waves, each recorded at their intrinsic rate?3rd degree heart block
  212. 212What arrhythmia presents with a saw-tooth pattern?atrial flutter
  213. 213An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVf. What type of infarct would you suspect?inferior wall
  214. 214An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, AVf. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?RCA
  215. 215How do you test the defibrillator?Discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)
  216. 216What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the t-wave?You can put the patient into v-fib
  217. 217In a 1st degree heart block, where is the conduction delay?AV node
  218. 218What is the normal PR interval?0.12 - 0.20
  219. 219If a patient is attached to the monitor, v-tach is the rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do?unsynchronized cardioversion
  220. 220A patient is on the monitor in a SVT, BP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB. What should you do?Do immediate synchronized cardioversion
  221. 221A common complication of placing a pacing electrode/wire is:perforation,
    pericardial effusion,
    tamponade
  222. 222A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses in the ventricle, and inhibits QRS complexes is a:DVI
  223. 223A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses in both chambers, and triggers OR inhibits is a:DDD
  224. 224A pacing generator that paces in the atria, senses in the atria, and inhibits pacing is a:AAI
  225. 225What are the two primary vessels used in adult cardiac catheterization?radial and femoral
  226. 226Which of the following are the MOST common catheter positions for performing an initial VT study?HRA HIS RVA CS
    (test answer may be HRA HIS RVOT RVA)
  227. 227Which two of the seven major zones of the left ventricle are NOT visualized in a 30 degree RAO LV angiogram?posterior and septal
  228. 228Which of the following represents the greatest risk of complication during ventriculography?air or thrombus embolism
  229. 229For which of the following purposes is a Fogarty catheter used?stripping clots
  230. 230When doing a right heart catheterization on a patient with LBBB, which of the following is appropriate?Insertion of a temporary pacemaker prior to right heart catheterization.

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Karteikarten am Invasive Registry Self Assessment, erstellt von hanxno am 10/04/2013.
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