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Jens Helfferich 90 Fragen 5.194 Aufrufe 5,0 (2 Bewertungen) Aktualisiert am 15 Jan 2017

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1In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:
1. Aan accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.
2. Ba damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system.
3. Cdesigned to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the antiskid system in order to prevent wheel blocking.
4. Da buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking.
2How is an electrical gyro kept erected?
1. AGravity
2. BLevelling and torque motors
3. CA nozzle integral within the outer gimbal ring
4. DPneumatic vanes
3The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which:
1. Asonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.
2. Bthe maximum operating temperature is reached.
3. Ca shock-wave appears on the upper surface.
4. Da "supersonic bell" appears on the upper surface.
4In case of grave and imminent danger what is the message you should transmit?
1. A7700
2. B7600
3. C7500
4. D1200
5What are the major errors of the turn and slip indicator?
1. ALooping error & real wander
2. BG-Lock
3. CGimbal Lock
4. DTopple & Regidity
6How is a drug and alcohol therapy called?
1. AAction Coping
2. BEnvironmental Capture
3. CComplacency
4. DDistress
7You are at 2000ft, outside temperature is at 6 C. At what altitude is the freezing level?
1. A5000ft
2. B4000ft
3. C6000
4. D2000ft
8Ground speed 360kts. You fly from 60N10E to 55N10E. How long does it take?
1. A50min
2. B60min
3. CYou will never reach 55N10E
4. D55min
9If the speed triples, what makes the lift?
1. A9x bigger
2. Bremain the same
3. C2x bigger
4. D3x bigger
10What is the sense of fuel cross-feed?
1. Aallows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
2. Ballow the unusable fuel elimination.
3. Callow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency
4. Dautomatically fill every tank up to the desired level.

11How can you increase the rigidity of a gyro?
1. AIncreasing RPM and mass
2. BIncrease diameter
3. CDecrease gyro's weight
4. DDecreasing RPM and mass
12What is real wander?
1. AWhen the gyro’s spin axis moves away from its fixed position in space
2. BThe apparent movement of a gyro due to earth rotation
3. CNone of the answers above
4. DAll of the answers above
13You follow a great circle route from BCN (43N) to NYC (42N). How varies as your true heading?
1. ADecreases
2. BIncreases
3. CRemains the same
4. DChanges by 180°
14During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a :
1. Anose-down followed by a nose-up attitude
2. Bnose-up attitude
3. Cnose-down attitude
4. Dconstant attitude
15What are your feelings in IMC during a forward acceleration?
1. ABank to the left
2. BPitch-up
3. CPitch-down
4. Dno changes
16If during a loss of all communication procedure you are on final and see a red flare on the runway, what do you do?
1. AContinue circling.
2. BNo not land, airport unsafe.
3. CContinue the approach.
4. DGive to another aircraft.
17What is the minimum cabin pressure / maximum cabin altitude for a commercial flight?
1. A10.000ft
2. B8.000ft
3. C12.000ft
4. D14.000ft
18'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following statements?
1. AThe gaining of environmental skills.
2. BThe tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is inappropriate to do.
3. CThe tendency for people to behave in different ways in different social situations.
4. DNone of the mentioned above.
19What is a turn and slip indicator?
1. ARate gyro
2. BBound gyro
3. CNone
4. DBoth
20The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the
1. Adevelopment of thermal lows
2. Bpresence of mountain waves and severe turbulences
3. Crisk of orographic thunderstorms
4. Dpresence of valley winds
21DOC 4444 (ICAO) - Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
1. ALess than 7.000kg MTOM
2. BLess than 136.000kg MTOM
3. CMore than 7.000kg MTOM
4. DMore than 136.000kg MTOM
22(ICAO Doc 8168): CAT C approach speeds are?
1. ABetween 91 and 120 knots.
2. BSpeed 90 knots or less.
3. CBetween 121 and 140 knots.
4. DBetween 141 knots and 165 knots.
23DOC 4444 (ICAO) - Medium (M) Category, are all aircraft types of:
1. A7.000kg – 136.000kg TOM
2. B0kg - 7.000kg TOM
3. C136.000+ kg TOM
4. Dthere are no Medium (M) Category in use.
24What organ is responsible for Gravity and linear acceleration?
1. AThe otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus
2. BThe cochela
3. CThe semi-circular channels
4. DThe tympanic membrane
25Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration?
1. AThe sacculus and utriculus
2. BThe cochela
3. CThe entire vestibular apparatus
4. DThe Eustachian tube
26Angular accelerations are perceived by?
1. AThe sacculus and utriculus
2. BThe cochela
3. CThe semicircular canals
4. DThe seat of the pants feeling
27The eustachian tube is the passage way between the
1. Apharynx and inner ear
2. Bnose, pharynx and the external auditory canal
3. Csinuses and the pharynx
4. Dpharynx and the middle ear
28The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between
1. Afrontal, nose and maxillary sinuses
2. Bmiddle ear and external atmosphere
3. Csinuses of the nose and external atmosphere
4. Dnose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere
29What is the main use of the Eustachian tube?
1. ATo equalize pressure
2. BTo make the voice resonant
3. CTo enhance hearing capabilities
4. DAll abovc
30How is oxygen transported in the organism?
1. AHemoglobin in the red blood cells.
2. BWhite blood cells.
3. CPlasma.
4. DBlood fat.
31GS 300kts, you must be at 20000ft within the next 50NM. What is the rate of descent you have to keep?
1. A2.000ft/min.
2. B4.000ft/min.
3. C1850ft/min.
4. D2150ft/min.
32HDG 020°, RILPO 040°, Variation is 10W. What your QDR?
1. A220°
2. B240°
3. C230°
4. D040°
33You are at W40 and the sun is on the vertical. How long does it take the sun to get to W85?
1. A3h
2. B2h
3. C6h
4. Dmore than 24h
34On a Lambert Chart, scale 1 : 500000. How much is the distance of 10cm?
1. A50km
2. B5.000km
3. C50.000km
4. D5km
35Which are the data that goes to the Air Data Computer?
1. AP(static), P(dynamic), TAT
2. BP(static), P(dynamic), TAT, Radio Altitude, INS Position
3. CP(static), TAT
4. DP(dynamic), TAT
36What is a Standard Turn / Rate-1-Turn?
1. A3° / sec
2. B6° / sec
3. C1° / sec
4. D2° / sec
37What instrument measures low compressor rpm?
1. AN1
2. BN2
3. CEPR
4. DEGT
38What does the CSD?
1. AOrganize the Christopher Street Day
2. BEnsuring equal AC voltage from all generators.
3. CThe function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to drive the generator at a constant speed.
4. DKeep the starter-motor maintaining a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.
39Passing the transition altitude, how should you set the altimeter?
1. A1013hPa
2. B29.92hPa
3. CQRH
4. DQFE
40When Dew point is equal to OAT temperature, relative humidity is?
1. A100%
2. B0%
3. Cbetween 50-70%
4. Dlower than 50%
41What is a volume of air of nearly equal temperature and similar humidity (and origin)?
1. AAn air mass.
2. BA cyclone.
3. CA thermal low.
4. DAll above.
42How far focuses on 'the eye and when' at rest?
1. AInfinity
2. B0,75m
3. C0,50m
4. D2m
43What is the earth's circumference at N60°?
1. A10800nm
2. B21600nm
3. C21600km
4. D10800km
44When is wind shear more dangerous?
1. ALow level temperature inversions
2. BHeat high
3. CCold low
4. DCold air pool
45What is the main responsible for the major climatic changes on the earth?
1. ASolar radiation
2. BGravity
3. CPhases of the moon
4. DAurea borealis
46What are the marker frequencies?
1. AOM:400kHz, MM:1.300kHz, IM:3.000kHz.
2. BOM:400Hz, MM:1.300Hz, IM:3.000Hz.
3. COM:400MHz, MM:1.300MHz, IM:3.000MHz.
4. D75Hz
47The Beta Range of a propeller is used for:
1. ASpeed brake & deceleration
2. BReverse Operations on ground only
3. CGenerate more thrust
4. DThere is no Beta Range
48Calculate used fuel in kg: Distance: 1000nm, FF: 60l/min., Density: 0,8, Speed: 400km/h
1. A16667kg
2. B13334kg
3. C9000kg
4. D11250kg
49In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving is called :
1. Asomato-gravic illusion
2. Billusion of relative movement
3. Cautokinetic illusion
4. Dcognitive illusion
50Flight Planning: What is the MSA around the highest obstacle?
1. A1000ft above, 25nm radius.
2. B500ft above, 25nm radius.
3. C1000ft above, 10nm radius.
4. D500ft above, 10nm radius.
51Given: FL050, ONH 1000. What is the true altitude?
1. A4610ft
2. B5.390ft
3. C5.000ft
4. DYou can' calculate it with the figures given.
52Name the degrees of freedom of an artificial horizon:
1. ARoll and Pitch
2. BRoll and Yaw
3. CRoll, Pitch & Yaw
4. DYaw & Pitch
53How to read-back after station change?
1. AStation, Call-Sign, Altitude, Position, (SID or STAR).
2. BStation, Altitude, Position, (SID or STAR), Call-Sign
3. CStation, Altitude, Call-Sign, Position, (SID or STAR).
4. DCall-Sign, Altitude, Station, Position, (SID or STAR).
54How do air masses flow with in a cyclone?
1. AThey converge and rise
2. BThey diverge and sink
3. CThey converge and sink
4. DThey diverge and rise
55What is the ISA-Temp at 19.000ft?
1. A-23°C
2. B-56,5°C
3. C-21°C
4. D+23°C
56How many hours prior to Take-Off has a flight plan to be filed?
1. A1h
2. B2h
3. C1,5h
4. D0,5h
57Flying through a Jet-Stream. Where are the most severe turbulences to be expected?
1. AOn the cold side, right below the core
2. BOn the warm side, right below the core
3. COn the cold side, right above the core
4. DOn the warm side, right above the core
58How has the sink rate to be change in tail-wind conditions?
1. AHigher sink rate due to higher Ground Speed
2. BLower sink rate due to lower Ground Speed
3. CNo change
4. DLower sink rate due to higher Ground Speed
59At which location does coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
1. AAt the equator.
2. BAt the poles.
3. COver Canada.
4. DAt 60°N / 60°S
60Explain the semi-circular rules:
1. A0° – 179°: odd FL, 180 – 359: even FL
2. B0° – 179°: even FL, 180 – 359: odd FL
3. C001° – 180°: even FL, 181° – 360°: odd FL
4. D001° – 180°: odd FL, 181° – 360°: even FL
61Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability?
1. AThe horizontal tailplane.
2. BThe fusselarsch.
3. CThe wings.
4. DThe engines.
62For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the?
1. ARatio of the external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass.
2. BRatio of the internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass.
3. CIt's always 10:1.
4. DNone above.
63Myopia is?
1. AWhen the optical image forms in behind of the retina; we are talking about short-sightedness
2. BWhen the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about long-sightedness
3. CWhen the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about short-sightedness
4. DWhen the optical image forms in behind of the retina; we are talking about long-sightedness
64How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?
1. AIt decreases from south to north and strengthens in winter.
2. BIt decreases from south to north and weakens in winter.
3. CIt increases from south to north and strengthens in winter.
4. DIt increases from south to north and weakens in winter.
65Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?
1. AIt is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions.
2. BIt is lower in polar regions than in equatorial regions.
3. CIt's equal.
4. DIt's always 56,5°C.
66A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
1. A5%
2. B2%
3. C10%
4. D3%
67Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
1. Aa chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
2. Bnot less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
3. Ca chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
4. Dsometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
68How does the stall speed chance with 25° bank?
1. A1,1x higher
2. B1,3x higher
3. CRemains the same
4. D1,2x higher
69You are on RWY 25, Wind 270/15, what is your x-wind?
1. A5kts
2. B10kts
3. C15kts
4. D30kts
70The transition level:
1. AShall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
2. BShall be the highest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
3. CShall be the lowest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
4. DShall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
71The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
1. A3.000ft
2. B1.000ft
3. C5.000ft
4. DFL100
72What is the minimum thickness of the transition layer?
1. A1.000ft
2. B5.000ft
3. C2.000ft
4. D3.000ft
73At which altitude is the TA in Germany?
1. A5.000ft
2. B10.000ft
3. C3.000ft
4. D1.000ft
74Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:
1. A21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
2. B78% oxygen, 21% nitrogen, 1% other gases
3. C88% oxygen, 11% nitrogen, 1% other gases
4. D21% oxygen, 1% nitrogen, 78% other gases
75In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:
1. AA Transformer Rectifier Unit
2. BAn inverter
3. CA Constant Speed Drive
4. DA starter coil
76Name the correct action to be taken when landing on a contaminated runway?
1. APositive Touchdown, Max. Reverser, Speed Brake
2. BLand as always
3. CGentle Touchdown, Max. Reverser, Speed Brake
4. DYou can't land on a contaminated runway.
77The corrective action for dutch roll is?
1. AUse firm but gentile aileron
2. BDescent
3. CMore thrust
4. DAilerons neutral
78Lightning is most likely to happen at temperatures?
1. AForm +5 to -5°C OAT
2. BForm +15 to +5°C OAT
3. CForm -15 to -25°C OAT
4. DOnly below -50°C OAT
79If the turbine bypass valve on an aircycle machine opens, it produces?
1. AWarmer air.
2. BColder air.
3. CDry air.
4. DSmoke.
80The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by?
1. AThe Pupil
2. BThe Iris
3. CThe Retina
4. DThe Blind Spot
81The fuel system boost pumps are used to:
1. Aavoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
2. Bavoid the bubbles accumulation.
3. Cfeed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
4. Dfeed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.
82When assessing an individuals risk in developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may contribute:
1. obesity, 2. distress, 3. smoking, 4. family history, 5. sport
1. A1 & 2 are correct
2. B1, 2 & 4 are correct
3. C1,2,3 & 4 are correct
4. DAll are correct
83At which wind speed does steam fog disappear?
1. AWind speeds of more than 15kt
2. BWind speeds of more than 30kt
3. CWind speeds of more than 5kt
4. DIt disappears always one hour after sunrise
84The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of about?
1. A1 – 1,5h / day
2. B1,5 – 2,5h / day
3. C3h / day
4. D0,5h / day
85You depart at 0900L, flight time is 9:00hrs. You cross 9 time-zones. At what time are you going to land?
1. A0900L
2. B2100L
3. C1800L
4. D1200L
86When flying an approach in a strong gusty headwind, Vref should be adjusted by?
1. A½ headwind and full gust factor
2. BFull headwind and ½ gust factor
3. C½ headwind and ½ gust factor
4. DFull headwind and full gust factor
87At ISA -34°C, your pressure altimeter?
1. AOver-reads
2. BUnder-reads
3. CReads correct
4. DIs not usable
88What is the CSD Unit (Constant Speed Drive Unit) for?
1. ADrive the generator at a constant speed. That the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
2. BThat the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.
3. CProduce equal AC voltage from all generators.
4. DIt varies generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
89How do the indications of instruments change, if your pitot tube becomes blocked in steady horizontal flight?
1. Ano change.
2. Bit over-reads.
3. Cit under-reads
4. DIt reads zero.
90Holding Speeds:
1. AFL000-FL140: 230kts, FL140-FL200: 240kts, FL200-FL340: 265kts, FL340+: Mach .83
2. BFL000-FL140: 220kts, FL140-FL200: 230kts, FL200-FL340: 255kts, FL340+: Mach .73
3. CFL000-FL140: 240kts, FL140-FL200: 240kts, FL200-FL340: 265kts, FL340+: Mach .83
4. DFL000-FL140: 250kts, FL140-FL200: 260kts, FL200-FL340: 275kts, FL340+: Mach .73

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Beschreibung: Keine Gewähr auf Vollständigkeit.
Autor: Jens Helfferich
Sprache: Deutsch
Aufrufe: 5.194
Verlauf: Erstellt am 2 Mär 2014 · aktualisiert am 15 Jan 2017
Bewertung: 5,0 von 5 · 2 Bewertungen
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