"The chemical decomposition of a compound into one or more other substances by heat alone" is called ________________.
Pyrolysis
Sublimation
Combustibility
Fire
A flammable liquid has which of the following characteristics?
A flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit
A flashpoint above 100 degrees Fahrenheit
A flashpoint below 100 degrees Celsius
A flashpoint above 100 degrees Celsius
A liquid with a specific gravity of 1.4 ___________________
Is heavier than water and will sink.
Is lighter than water and will float.
Will mix readily with water.
It is impossible to predict how it will mix with water.
All matter that exist in a gaseous state will burn.
All of the following are examples of mechanical heat sources except _____________.
Electromagnetic induction
Compression
Sparks caused by friction
Friction
All of the following are measurements of heat energy except __________.
Fahrenheit
British Thermal Units
Calories
Joules
All of the following are warning signs of backdraft except ______________.
Flames emerging from doors and windows
Lack of visible flames
Window glass appears as if it is being pulled in
Smoke puffing from the building
All of the following are warning signs of flashover except _______________.
Smoke churning in window glass
Flames licking overhead
Rapid buildup of heat in a room
Appearance of smoke or gases coming off all contents
An ignitable liquid must be atomized in order to burn.
Conditions that will cause a static electricity discharge include the following except ___________.
Contact and separation between similar solids
Flowing powders
Contact and separation between dissimilar solids
Flowing liquids and gasses
Factors that affect he rate in which a fire will grow include all of the following except ___________.
The ambient temperature outside the fire area
The amount of oxygen
The amount of fuel
The size of the space involved in fire
Firefighters need to have a working knowledge of combustion dynamics, chemistry, physics, and basic engineering principles in order to attack and control fire.
Flashover can be defined as occurring when a fire changes from being a fuel-controlled fire to a ventilation-controlled fire.
In most cases, a fuel must be in a ______________ state to burn.
Gaseous
Solid
Liquid
Consumable
Match the item with the term below: Fire is affected by the amount of oxygen, fuel, space and insulation of ceilings and walls.
Growth
Ignition
Fully developed
Decay
Match the item with the term below: Fire is virtually free burning and has plenty of oxygen.
Match the item with the term below: Fuel package has been mostly consumed and heat release rate drops.
Match the item with the term below: Heat generated from the ignition now begins to cause heart transfer to surrounding combustibles.
Match the item with the term below: In most cases, the fire is small and limited.
Match the item with the term below: Small pockets of fire may still exist as the fuel slowly moves the point of total consumption.
Matter can change from ________________ by heating or cooling, by applying pressure, or by releasing pressure.
one state to another
inorganic to organic
active to inactive
light to dark
Mechanical heat sources include friction and compression.
Oil-soaked rags, discarded and reaching self-ignition temperature are examples of a(n)__________.
Exothermic reaction
Electrical heat source
Nuclear heat source
Endothermic reaction
One of the dangers associated with rollover is that fire can travel overhead and behind the firefighters and block their egress from the structure.
Regular firefighting gear provides a small degree of protection to the firefighter from radiation.
Specific gravity and vapor density measure the same basic principle and can be used interchangeably.
The amount of heat generated by electrical means depends on several variables including_____________.
All of these
A - The amount of electricity flowing through the conductor
B - The amount of resistance in the conductor
C - The density of the conductor
Both A and C
The amount of heat that a substance absorbs as the temperature of the substance increases is called___________.
Specific heat
Latent heat
Specific gravity
Spontaneous heating
The danger of backdraft increases dramatically as oxygen levels drop below_________.
16%
21%
19%
17%
The latent heat of vaporization is___________________.
The amount of heat that is absorbed by a liquid that passes to a gaseous form.
The amount of heat that a substance absorbs as the temperature increases.
The amount of thermal energy required to raise one unit mass of substance by one degree.
Not important to most fire extinguishment.
The process of changing a solid directly to a gas is called__________.
Oxidation
Evaporation
There are two types of explosions: conflagration and detonation.
Two forms of nuclear energy are:
Fission and fusion
Alpha and Beta
Solar and radiant
Natural and man-made
Vapor density is the comparison of the density of a given vapor or gas to the density of__________.
Air
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Which choice is not part of the fire tetrahedron?
Extinguishing agent
Fuel
Chemical reaction
Which of the following is not one of the four stages of fire development?
Rollover
Incipient
Which of the following is true regarding lower explosive limits (LEL)?
A fuel vapor will not ignite at levels below the LEL.
A fuel vapor below the LEL will ignite if exposed to an ignition source.
A fuel vapor must be at the LEL in order to ignite.
A fuel vapor above the LEL will always ignite if exposed to an ignition source.
Which of the following solids would be the easiest to ignite?
Wood saw dust
Wood shavings
A block of wood
Timber
Which statement about density is true?
As density increases, the amount of energy needed for ignition increases.
As density increases, the amount of energy needed for ignition decreases.
As density decreases, the flammability of the substance also decreases.
Density of an object has little effect on its ignition and flammable properties.
According to Boise Fire SOP 206.10, High Rise Operations (Initial Response) which engine will have the responsibility of establishing water supply?
Third
First
Second
Fourth
According to Boise SOP 206.10, High Rise Operations (Initial Response) which of the following equipment is NOT listed as part of the minimum to be brought in by the first arriving engine?
P-can
(2) 50' 2 1/2" hoselines with nozzle
(2) SCBA bottles
Standpipe Kit
According to Boise SOP 206.12 High Rise Operations (Elevator Use), once determined safe, what is the highest floor the elevator may be used to transport personnel and equipment prior to fire control?
The staging floor
The floor below the fire
The floor above the fire
There are no limits on how high the elevator may be used
According to Boise SOP 206.12, High Rise Operations (Elevator Use), never overload an elevator as a general rule _____ firefighters plus equipment shall constitute a full load.
6
2
4
8
According to SOP 206.10, what group of resources constitutes the "Fire Attack Group" during a high rise operation?
First and second-in engines and first-in truck
First-in engine and Battalion Chief
First and second-in engines
First two engines, first two trucks and Battalion Chief
According to training guide "High Rise", the basic fire attack approach is a __________ ft stretch from ______________.
150', the floor below
150', two floors below
250', the floor below
250', two floors below
According to training guide, "High Rise", who would be a good choice for "Standpipe control"?
A driver/operator from the fire attack group
A firefighter from the fire attack group
A driver/operator from the third-in engine (company assigned to lobby)
A company officer from the fire attack group
Each BFD company carries a 2 1/2" smooth bore nozzle with an 1 1/8" solid stream tip for high rise operations. Approximately how many gpm does this tip provide when supplied at 50psi?
250
180
325
400
What piece of equipment is required when stacking a charged 2 1/2" line?
A 1 1/2" to 2 1/2" increaser
A 2" reducer
A 1 1/2" gated wye
A 50 psi fog nozzle
What size of hose should be used initially in fighting a high rise fire?
2 1/2"
1"
1 3/4"
3"
When preparing to make entry on the fire floor, the Nozzleman should open his nozzle until _____________________.
Standpipe control communicates that the pressure is set
He feel it has "burped" enough air out of the line
There has been sufficient time for any debris from the standpipe to flow out through the nozzle
He has flooded the stairwell below him
Which of the following is NOT a type of pressure regulating device?
Pressure relieving
Pressure restricting
Pressure reducing
Pressure controlling
According to the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, which of the following would cause a life safety rope to be removed from service?
Exposure to chemicals or abrasion
Used in an actual life safety operation
Overloaded or shocked
Prior to the adoption of the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, which was a common practice regarding rope use in the fire service?
Using rope interchangeably for life safety purposes and utility purposes.
Storing rope on the exterior of a fire apparatus with no protection from the elements.
Using rope without regard to usage history or life span limits.
What is the safety factor of a life safety rope.
15:1
10:1
5:1
20:1
Which is the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services?
NFPA 1983
NFPA 1980
NFPA 1975
NFPA 1982
After a life safety rope has been “downgraded,” it is most usually used as a ________.
Utility rope
Dynamic kernmantle rope
Running end
Round turn knot
All equipment hoisted by utility ropes should have _____________________.
A tag line attached
Many knots of assorted variety
A carabiner attached
Padding to protect the equipment
If the manufacturer’s instructions cannot be found, synthetic rope may be washed using cold water and a mild detergent in a diluted solution.
Match the item with the correct choice below: Becket bend
Ties the ends of two ropes
Used with an open end to slide the hitch over
Tied after the primary knot
Used to tie to an object without an open end
Match the item with the correct choice below: Bight
The rope brought back upon itself to lay side-by-side
A twist in the rope with the standing part continuing in the same direction
A loop where the stand part continues in the direction it came from
Match the item with the correct choice below: Clove hitch—closed
Ties the ends of two ropes together
Match the item with the correct choice below: Clove hitch—open
Match the item with the correct choice below: Loop
A loop where the standing part continues in the direction it came from
Match the item with the correct choice below: Overhand (safety knot)
Match the item with the correct choice below: Round turn
Match the item with the correct choice below: Running end
The rest of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, etc.
The part of the rope used to tie the knot itself
The part of the rope above or below the knot
Match the item with the correct choice below: Standing end
Match the item with the correct choice below: Working end
Natural fiber ropes are especially resistant to abrasion.
Natural fiber ropes need to be bigger in order to be stronger.
Polyester rope has a relatively low stretch under a load, but does not hold up well if a shock load is applied.
Rope made from Manila, sisal, or cotton is termed ____________________________.
Natural fiber rope
Synthetic fiber rope
Utility grade rope
Nominative strength rope
Ropes should be inspected after every use. It is recommended that ropes have a usage and inspection card.
Static (low stretch) rope is used in most fire department applications.
Synthetic material ropes are stronger than natural fiber ropes because each continuous fiber is the same length.
Which of the following is not a recommended method for drying a rope?
Put it in a dryer on "gentle" cycle
Lay it flat over a ladder
Hang it from the hose tower
Suspend it across bar joists
Channel announcement will be preempted by radio traffic?
Dispatch can tell that it’s your radio that is transmitting anytime you key the mic.
Does channel announcement work in all zones and on all channels?
No, only Zones A, B, and C
Yes
No, only Zone C
For the clearest communication the microphone should be held 1 to 2 inches from your mouth (no SCBA mask).
How can I reset my radio after an accidental activation of the EMER button?
Both of these are correct
Press the emer button a 2nd time
Turn the radio off and then back on
Neither of these are correct
How long do you need to press the EMER button to send an emer alert to Dispatch?
2 seconds
1 second
4 seconds
5 seconds
How long does will your radio transmit when EMER is activated?
Indefinitely
10 seconds
15 seconds
How many channels are there in each zone?
Up to 16
Up to 10
Up to 12
Up to 14
I quickly press the select button on the face of the radio and the radio does not respond. Why not?
Because buttons must be held for two seconds to activate
The radio is malfunctioning
The radio is set to the wrong zone
In Zone C all of the channels are on the 700MHz trunked system except:
FIRE-16
1A-FIRE-9
1A-ARFF-14
1A-M/A-15
It doesn’t matter which portable radio I use that is assigned to my apparatus.
Scenario: A firefighter loses consciousness, falls down, and inadvertently keys his mic, essentially tying up the talk group he was operating on. How long will that firefighter’s radio tie up the channel with its open mic?
60 seconds
30 seconds
45 seconds
The term simplex means that a radio transmission goes from one radio to another.
What clues tell you that you are on a channel that is on the 700MHz trunked system?
Channel name is preceded by "1A"
Signal strength indicator is present
No simplex icon
None of these
What does 1A stand for?
The Ada County 700MHz trunked system
The Ada County 700Mhz simplex system
The Ada County 700Mhz VHF analog system
What does Dispatch need to hear from you if you have had an accidental activation of the EMER button?
unit id, accidental emer activation, and "Code-4"
unit id, accidental emer activation
accidental emer activation, and "Code-4"
unit id and "Code-4"
What does the home button do?
Returns the radio to Zone C, 1A-Dispatch
Return the radio to Zone A, 1A-Dispatch
Returns the radio to Zone C, 1C-Dispatch
Returns the radio to Zone A, 1A-Dispatch
What zone do we primarily operate in on a day to day basis?
Zone C
Zone A
Zone D
Zone G
What zone does Boise Police primarily operate in on a day to day basis?
When the APX7000 is turned off and then back on, what zone and channel will it default to?
The last zone selected prior to powering off and whatever the channel selector is set to when powered on
Zone C, 1A Dispatch
Zone A, 1A Dispatch
The last zone and channel selected prior to powering off
When wearing an SCBA mask, the clearest communication will be by placing the microphone 1 to 2 inches in front of the SCBA regulator.
Which of the following is NOT a feature available on a 700MHz trunked channel?
Radio to radio communications
Talk permit tone
"Emer" activation
Unique radio identifier is transmitted with radio transmission
Which of the following will the keypad lock NOT disable?
Emer button
Keypad buttons
Channel selector knob
Home button
Which term correctly refers to the radio mounted in your apparatus?
Mobile
Portable
Base
Will the other memebers of my crew receive the radio transmission from my radio after I have pressed the EMER button?
No, it transmits on a separate channel
Your radio should always be set to (high/low) power.