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12 month (2)

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12 moth study guide continued
Jesse Clark
Quiz by Jesse Clark, updated more than 1 year ago
Jesse Clark
Created by Jesse Clark about 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
"The chemical decomposition of a compound into one or more other substances by heat alone" is called ________________.
Answer
  • Pyrolysis
  • Sublimation
  • Combustibility
  • Fire

Question 2

Question
A flammable liquid has which of the following characteristics?
Answer
  • A flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit
  • A flashpoint above 100 degrees Fahrenheit
  • A flashpoint below 100 degrees Celsius
  • A flashpoint above 100 degrees Celsius

Question 3

Question
A liquid with a specific gravity of 1.4 ___________________
Answer
  • Is heavier than water and will sink.
  • Is lighter than water and will float.
  • Will mix readily with water.
  • It is impossible to predict how it will mix with water.

Question 4

Question
All matter that exist in a gaseous state will burn.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
All of the following are examples of mechanical heat sources except _____________.
Answer
  • Electromagnetic induction
  • Compression
  • Sparks caused by friction
  • Friction

Question 6

Question
All of the following are measurements of heat energy except __________.
Answer
  • Fahrenheit
  • British Thermal Units
  • Calories
  • Joules

Question 7

Question
All of the following are warning signs of backdraft except ______________.
Answer
  • Flames emerging from doors and windows
  • Lack of visible flames
  • Window glass appears as if it is being pulled in
  • Smoke puffing from the building

Question 8

Question
All of the following are warning signs of flashover except _______________.
Answer
  • Smoke churning in window glass
  • Flames licking overhead
  • Rapid buildup of heat in a room
  • Appearance of smoke or gases coming off all contents

Question 9

Question
An ignitable liquid must be atomized in order to burn.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 10

Question
Conditions that will cause a static electricity discharge include the following except ___________.
Answer
  • Contact and separation between similar solids
  • Flowing powders
  • Contact and separation between dissimilar solids
  • Flowing liquids and gasses

Question 11

Question
Factors that affect he rate in which a fire will grow include all of the following except ___________.
Answer
  • The ambient temperature outside the fire area
  • The amount of oxygen
  • The amount of fuel
  • The size of the space involved in fire

Question 12

Question
Firefighters need to have a working knowledge of combustion dynamics, chemistry, physics, and basic engineering principles in order to attack and control fire.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 13

Question
Flashover can be defined as occurring when a fire changes from being a fuel-controlled fire to a ventilation-controlled fire.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
In most cases, a fuel must be in a ______________ state to burn.
Answer
  • Gaseous
  • Solid
  • Liquid
  • Consumable

Question 15

Question
Match the item with the term below: Fire is affected by the amount of oxygen, fuel, space and insulation of ceilings and walls.
Answer
  • Growth
  • Ignition
  • Fully developed
  • Decay

Question 16

Question
Match the item with the term below: Fire is virtually free burning and has plenty of oxygen.
Answer
  • Fully developed
  • Ignition
  • Growth
  • Decay

Question 17

Question
Match the item with the term below: Fuel package has been mostly consumed and heat release rate drops.
Answer
  • Decay
  • Ignition
  • Growth
  • Fully developed

Question 18

Question
Match the item with the term below: Heat generated from the ignition now begins to cause heart transfer to surrounding combustibles.
Answer
  • Growth
  • Ignition
  • Fully developed
  • Decay

Question 19

Question
Match the item with the term below: In most cases, the fire is small and limited.
Answer
  • Ignition
  • Growth
  • Fully developed
  • Decay

Question 20

Question
Match the item with the term below: Small pockets of fire may still exist as the fuel slowly moves the point of total consumption.
Answer
  • Decay
  • Ignition
  • Growth
  • Fully developed

Question 21

Question
Matter can change from ________________ by heating or cooling, by applying pressure, or by releasing pressure.
Answer
  • one state to another
  • inorganic to organic
  • active to inactive
  • light to dark

Question 22

Question
Mechanical heat sources include friction and compression.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
Oil-soaked rags, discarded and reaching self-ignition temperature are examples of a(n)__________.
Answer
  • Exothermic reaction
  • Electrical heat source
  • Nuclear heat source
  • Endothermic reaction

Question 24

Question
One of the dangers associated with rollover is that fire can travel overhead and behind the firefighters and block their egress from the structure.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 25

Question
Regular firefighting gear provides a small degree of protection to the firefighter from radiation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
Specific gravity and vapor density measure the same basic principle and can be used interchangeably.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 27

Question
The amount of heat generated by electrical means depends on several variables including_____________.
Answer
  • All of these
  • A - The amount of electricity flowing through the conductor
  • B - The amount of resistance in the conductor
  • C - The density of the conductor
  • Both A and C

Question 28

Question
The amount of heat that a substance absorbs as the temperature of the substance increases is called___________.
Answer
  • Specific heat
  • Latent heat
  • Specific gravity
  • Spontaneous heating

Question 29

Question
The danger of backdraft increases dramatically as oxygen levels drop below_________.
Answer
  • 16%
  • 21%
  • 19%
  • 17%

Question 30

Question
The latent heat of vaporization is___________________.
Answer
  • The amount of heat that is absorbed by a liquid that passes to a gaseous form.
  • The amount of heat that a substance absorbs as the temperature increases.
  • The amount of thermal energy required to raise one unit mass of substance by one degree.
  • Not important to most fire extinguishment.

Question 31

Question
The process of changing a solid directly to a gas is called__________.
Answer
  • Sublimation
  • Oxidation
  • Evaporation
  • Pyrolysis

Question 32

Question
There are two types of explosions: conflagration and detonation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
Two forms of nuclear energy are:
Answer
  • Fission and fusion
  • Alpha and Beta
  • Solar and radiant
  • Natural and man-made

Question 34

Question
Vapor density is the comparison of the density of a given vapor or gas to the density of__________.
Answer
  • Air
  • Oxygen
  • Nitrogen
  • Hydrogen

Question 35

Question
Which choice is not part of the fire tetrahedron?
Answer
  • Extinguishing agent
  • Fuel
  • Chemical reaction
  • Oxygen

Question 36

Question
Which of the following is not one of the four stages of fire development?
Answer
  • Rollover
  • Growth
  • Decay
  • Incipient

Question 37

Question
Which of the following is true regarding lower explosive limits (LEL)?
Answer
  • A fuel vapor will not ignite at levels below the LEL.
  • A fuel vapor below the LEL will ignite if exposed to an ignition source.
  • A fuel vapor must be at the LEL in order to ignite.
  • A fuel vapor above the LEL will always ignite if exposed to an ignition source.

Question 38

Question
Which of the following solids would be the easiest to ignite?
Answer
  • Wood saw dust
  • Wood shavings
  • A block of wood
  • Timber

Question 39

Question
Which statement about density is true?
Answer
  • As density increases, the amount of energy needed for ignition increases.
  • As density increases, the amount of energy needed for ignition decreases.
  • As density decreases, the flammability of the substance also decreases.
  • Density of an object has little effect on its ignition and flammable properties.

Question 40

Question
According to Boise Fire SOP 206.10, High Rise Operations (Initial Response) which engine will have the responsibility of establishing water supply?
Answer
  • Third
  • First
  • Second
  • Fourth

Question 41

Question
According to Boise SOP 206.10, High Rise Operations (Initial Response) which of the following equipment is NOT listed as part of the minimum to be brought in by the first arriving engine?
Answer
  • P-can
  • (2) 50' 2 1/2" hoselines with nozzle
  • (2) SCBA bottles
  • Standpipe Kit

Question 42

Question
According to Boise SOP 206.12 High Rise Operations (Elevator Use), once determined safe, what is the highest floor the elevator may be used to transport personnel and equipment prior to fire control?
Answer
  • The staging floor
  • The floor below the fire
  • The floor above the fire
  • There are no limits on how high the elevator may be used

Question 43

Question
According to Boise SOP 206.12, High Rise Operations (Elevator Use), never overload an elevator as a general rule _____ firefighters plus equipment shall constitute a full load.
Answer
  • 6
  • 2
  • 4
  • 8

Question 44

Question
According to SOP 206.10, what group of resources constitutes the "Fire Attack Group" during a high rise operation?
Answer
  • First and second-in engines and first-in truck
  • First-in engine and Battalion Chief
  • First and second-in engines
  • First two engines, first two trucks and Battalion Chief

Question 45

Question
According to training guide "High Rise", the basic fire attack approach is a __________ ft stretch from ______________.
Answer
  • 150', the floor below
  • 150', two floors below
  • 250', the floor below
  • 250', two floors below

Question 46

Question
According to training guide, "High Rise", who would be a good choice for "Standpipe control"?
Answer
  • A driver/operator from the fire attack group
  • A firefighter from the fire attack group
  • A driver/operator from the third-in engine (company assigned to lobby)
  • A company officer from the fire attack group

Question 47

Question
Each BFD company carries a 2 1/2" smooth bore nozzle with an 1 1/8" solid stream tip for high rise operations. Approximately how many gpm does this tip provide when supplied at 50psi?
Answer
  • 250
  • 180
  • 325
  • 400

Question 48

Question
What piece of equipment is required when stacking a charged 2 1/2" line?
Answer
  • A 1 1/2" to 2 1/2" increaser
  • A 2" reducer
  • A 1 1/2" gated wye
  • A 50 psi fog nozzle

Question 49

Question
What size of hose should be used initially in fighting a high rise fire?
Answer
  • 2 1/2"
  • 1"
  • 1 3/4"
  • 3"

Question 50

Question
When preparing to make entry on the fire floor, the Nozzleman should open his nozzle until _____________________.
Answer
  • Standpipe control communicates that the pressure is set
  • He feel it has "burped" enough air out of the line
  • There has been sufficient time for any debris from the standpipe to flow out through the nozzle
  • He has flooded the stairwell below him

Question 51

Question
Which of the following is NOT a type of pressure regulating device?
Answer
  • Pressure relieving
  • Pressure restricting
  • Pressure reducing
  • Pressure controlling

Question 52

Question
According to the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, which of the following would cause a life safety rope to be removed from service?
Answer
  • All of these
  • Exposure to chemicals or abrasion
  • Used in an actual life safety operation
  • Overloaded or shocked

Question 53

Question
Prior to the adoption of the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, which was a common practice regarding rope use in the fire service?
Answer
  • All of these
  • Using rope interchangeably for life safety purposes and utility purposes.
  • Storing rope on the exterior of a fire apparatus with no protection from the elements.
  • Using rope without regard to usage history or life span limits.

Question 54

Question
What is the safety factor of a life safety rope.
Answer
  • 15:1
  • 10:1
  • 5:1
  • 20:1

Question 55

Question
Which is the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services?
Answer
  • NFPA 1983
  • NFPA 1980
  • NFPA 1975
  • NFPA 1982

Question 56

Question
After a life safety rope has been “downgraded,” it is most usually used as a ________.
Answer
  • Utility rope
  • Dynamic kernmantle rope
  • Running end
  • Round turn knot

Question 57

Question
All equipment hoisted by utility ropes should have _____________________.
Answer
  • A tag line attached
  • Many knots of assorted variety
  • A carabiner attached
  • Padding to protect the equipment

Question 58

Question
If the manufacturer’s instructions cannot be found, synthetic rope may be washed using cold water and a mild detergent in a diluted solution.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 59

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Becket bend
Answer
  • Ties the ends of two ropes
  • Used with an open end to slide the hitch over
  • Tied after the primary knot
  • Used to tie to an object without an open end

Question 60

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Bight
Answer
  • The rope brought back upon itself to lay side-by-side
  • A twist in the rope with the standing part continuing in the same direction
  • A loop where the stand part continues in the direction it came from

Question 61

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Clove hitch—closed
Answer
  • Used to tie to an object without an open end
  • Used with an open end to slide the hitch over
  • Tied after the primary knot
  • Ties the ends of two ropes together

Question 62

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Clove hitch—open
Answer
  • Used with an open end to slide the hitch over
  • Tied after the primary knot
  • Used to tie to an object without an open end
  • Ties the ends of two ropes

Question 63

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Loop
Answer
  • A twist in the rope with the standing part continuing in the same direction
  • The rope brought back upon itself to lay side-by-side
  • A loop where the standing part continues in the direction it came from

Question 64

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Overhand (safety knot)
Answer
  • Tied after the primary knot
  • Used with an open end to slide the hitch over
  • Used to tie to an object without an open end
  • Ties the ends of two ropes

Question 65

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Round turn
Answer
  • A loop where the standing part continues in the direction it came from
  • A twist in the rope with the standing part continuing in the same direction
  • The rope brought back upon itself to lay side-by-side

Question 66

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Running end
Answer
  • The rest of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, etc.
  • The part of the rope used to tie the knot itself
  • The part of the rope above or below the knot

Question 67

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Standing end
Answer
  • The part of the rope above or below the knot
  • The rest of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, etc.
  • The part of the rope used to tie the knot itself

Question 68

Question
Match the item with the correct choice below: Working end
Answer
  • The part of the rope used to tie the knot itself
  • The rest of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, etc.
  • The part of the rope above or below the knot

Question 69

Question
Natural fiber ropes are especially resistant to abrasion.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 70

Question
Natural fiber ropes need to be bigger in order to be stronger.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 71

Question
Polyester rope has a relatively low stretch under a load, but does not hold up well if a shock load is applied.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 72

Question
Rope made from Manila, sisal, or cotton is termed ____________________________.
Answer
  • Natural fiber rope
  • Synthetic fiber rope
  • Utility grade rope
  • Nominative strength rope

Question 73

Question
Ropes should be inspected after every use. It is recommended that ropes have a usage and inspection card.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 74

Question
Static (low stretch) rope is used in most fire department applications.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 75

Question
Synthetic material ropes are stronger than natural fiber ropes because each continuous fiber is the same length.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 76

Question
Which of the following is not a recommended method for drying a rope?
Answer
  • Put it in a dryer on "gentle" cycle
  • Lay it flat over a ladder
  • Hang it from the hose tower
  • Suspend it across bar joists

Question 77

Question
Channel announcement will be preempted by radio traffic?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 78

Question
Dispatch can tell that it’s your radio that is transmitting anytime you key the mic.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 79

Question
Does channel announcement work in all zones and on all channels?
Answer
  • No, only Zones A, B, and C
  • Yes
  • No, only Zone C

Question 80

Question
For the clearest communication the microphone should be held 1 to 2 inches from your mouth (no SCBA mask).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 81

Question
How can I reset my radio after an accidental activation of the EMER button?
Answer
  • Both of these are correct
  • Press the emer button a 2nd time
  • Turn the radio off and then back on
  • Neither of these are correct

Question 82

Question
How long do you need to press the EMER button to send an emer alert to Dispatch?
Answer
  • 2 seconds
  • 1 second
  • 4 seconds
  • 5 seconds

Question 83

Question
How long does will your radio transmit when EMER is activated?
Answer
  • Indefinitely
  • 5 seconds
  • 10 seconds
  • 15 seconds

Question 84

Question
How many channels are there in each zone?
Answer
  • Up to 16
  • Up to 10
  • Up to 12
  • Up to 14

Question 85

Question
I quickly press the select button on the face of the radio and the radio does not respond. Why not?
Answer
  • Because buttons must be held for two seconds to activate
  • The radio is malfunctioning
  • The radio is set to the wrong zone

Question 86

Question
In Zone C all of the channels are on the 700MHz trunked system except:
Answer
  • FIRE-16
  • 1A-FIRE-9
  • 1A-ARFF-14
  • 1A-M/A-15

Question 87

Question
It doesn’t matter which portable radio I use that is assigned to my apparatus.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 88

Question
Scenario: A firefighter loses consciousness, falls down, and inadvertently keys his mic, essentially tying up the talk group he was operating on. How long will that firefighter’s radio tie up the channel with its open mic?
Answer
  • 60 seconds
  • 10 seconds
  • 30 seconds
  • 45 seconds

Question 89

Question
The term simplex means that a radio transmission goes from one radio to another.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 90

Question
What clues tell you that you are on a channel that is on the 700MHz trunked system?
Answer
  • All of these
  • Channel name is preceded by "1A"
  • Signal strength indicator is present
  • No simplex icon
  • None of these

Question 91

Question
What does 1A stand for?
Answer
  • The Ada County 700MHz trunked system
  • The Ada County 700Mhz simplex system
  • The Ada County 700Mhz VHF analog system

Question 92

Question
What does Dispatch need to hear from you if you have had an accidental activation of the EMER button?
Answer
  • unit id, accidental emer activation, and "Code-4"
  • unit id, accidental emer activation
  • accidental emer activation, and "Code-4"
  • unit id and "Code-4"

Question 93

Question
What does the home button do?
Answer
  • Returns the radio to Zone C, 1A-Dispatch
  • Return the radio to Zone A, 1A-Dispatch
  • Returns the radio to Zone C, 1C-Dispatch
  • Returns the radio to Zone A, 1A­-Dispatch

Question 94

Question
What zone do we primarily operate in on a day to day basis?
Answer
  • Zone C
  • Zone A
  • Zone D
  • Zone G

Question 95

Question
What zone does Boise Police primarily operate in on a day to day basis?
Answer
  • Zone A
  • Zone C
  • Zone D
  • Zone G

Question 96

Question
When the APX7000 is turned off and then back on, what zone and channel will it default to?
Answer
  • The last zone selected prior to powering off and whatever the channel selector is set to when powered on
  • Zone C, 1A Dispatch
  • Zone A, 1A Dispatch
  • The last zone and channel selected prior to powering off

Question 97

Question
When wearing an SCBA mask, the clearest communication will be by placing the microphone 1 to 2 inches in front of the SCBA regulator.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 98

Question
Which of the following is NOT a feature available on a 700MHz trunked channel?
Answer
  • Radio to radio communications
  • Talk permit tone
  • "Emer" activation
  • Unique radio identifier is transmitted with radio transmission

Question 99

Question
Which of the following will the keypad lock NOT disable?
Answer
  • Emer button
  • Keypad buttons
  • Channel selector knob
  • Home button

Question 100

Question
Which term correctly refers to the radio mounted in your apparatus?
Answer
  • Mobile
  • Portable
  • Base

Question 101

Question
Will the other memebers of my crew receive the radio transmission from my radio after I have pressed the EMER button?
Answer
  • No, it transmits on a separate channel
  • Yes

Question 102

Question
Your radio should always be set to (high/low) power.
Answer
  • True
  • False
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