Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.

With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.

With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.

Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.

Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.

Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.

Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

A modem terminates an analog local loop.

A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

A modem terminates a digital local loop.

A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.

This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.

This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.

This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.

Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.

The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.

Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.

The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

the MAC address of router interface e0

the MAC address of router interface e1

the MAC address of the server network interface

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

The number of collision domains would increase.

The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.

The number of collision domains would remain the same.

The number of collision domains would decrease.

The number of broadcast domains would decrease.

The number of broadcast domains would increase.

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.

Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.

In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.

Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.

Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.

If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

the MAC address of the router's E0 interface

the IP address of the router's E0 interface

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

to allow communication between different devices on the same network

to allow communication with devices on a different network

to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

Switch C, because it has the lowest priority

Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address

Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch

Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address

Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch

Switch D, because it has the highest priority

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

There are two broadcast domains in the network.

There are seven collision domains in the network.

There are four broadcast domains in the network.

There are six broadcast domains in the network.

There are four collision domains in the network.

There are five collision domains in the network.

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

when they detect no other devices are sending

when they receive a special token

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.

Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.

Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.

Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.

Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.

Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.

Router C will send a Router Selection message type.

Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.

A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.

A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.

A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.

Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

The port is currently configured for access mode.

VLANs have not been created yet.

An IP address must be configured for the port.

The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.

The "no shutdown" command has not been entered for the port.

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.

The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

port priority number and MAC address

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

an approach to wireless LAN communication

the process for root bridge selection

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.

Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.

Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.

Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

It creates a VLAN 999 interface.

It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.

It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

An additional broadcast domain will be created.

More collision domains will be created.

IP address utilization will be more efficient.

More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.

A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.

Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.

A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.

Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.

VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain.

Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

They allow logical grouping of users by function.

They can enhance network security.

They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.

They increase the size of collision domains.

They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.

They simplify switch administration.

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.

The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.

VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.

Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.

This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.

Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.

A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.

Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.

It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.

It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.

When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.

Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.

Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.

SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?

allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination

VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.

RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.

RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Quiz

CERTIFICACION

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Quiz starten

Fragen in diesem Quiz (286)

1Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
1. AWith a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
2. BWith a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
3. CWith a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
4. DWith a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
5. EWith a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
2What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
1. ARouter1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
2. BRouter1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
3. CRouter1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
4. DRouter1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
5. ERouter1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
6. FRouter1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
3Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
1. Atransport
2. Bnetwork
3. Cpresentation
4. Dsession
5. Eapplication
4Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
1. AA CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
2. BA modem terminates a digital local loop.
3. CA CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
4. DA modem terminates an analog local loop.
5. EA router is commonly considered a DTE device.
6. FA router is commonly considered a DCE device.
5Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?
1. A252
2. B253
3. C254
4. D255
6A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
1. Aapplication
2. Bpresentation
3. Ctransport
4. Dsession
5. Einternet
6. Fdata link
7After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
1. AExhibit A
2. BExhibit B
3. CExhibit C
4. DExhibit D
5. EExhibit E
6. FExhibit F
8A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
1. AThis is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
2. BThis is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
3. CThis is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
4. DThis is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
5. EThis is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
9A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
1. Asession
2. Btransport
3. Cnetwork
4. Ddata link
5. Ephysical
10Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
1. AThe transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
2. BThe data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
3. CPackets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
4. DPackets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
5. EThe presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

11Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?
1. Athe MAC address of router interface e0
2. Bthe MAC address of router interface e1
3. Cthe MAC address of the server network interface
4. Dthe MAC address of host A
12What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
1. AThe number of collision domains would remain the same.
2. BThe number of collision domains would decrease.
3. CThe number of collision domains would increase.
4. DThe number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
5. EThe number of broadcast domains would decrease.
6. FThe number of broadcast domains would increase.
13Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
1. ASpanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
2. BEstablishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
3. CSwitches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
4. DMicrosegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
5. EIn a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
6. FIf a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
14Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
1. Aapplication
2. Binternet
3. Cnetwork
4. Dtransport
15Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
1. Athe IP address of Switch 1
2. Bthe MAC address of Switch 1
3. Cthe IP address of Host C
4. Dthe MAC address of Host C
5. Ethe IP address of the router's E0 interface
6. Fthe MAC address of the router's E0 interface
16For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
1. Ato uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
2. Bto allow communication with devices on a different network
3. Cto differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
4. Dto establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
5. Eto allow communication between different devices on the same network
6. Fto allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
17Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?
1. ASwitch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
2. BSwitch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
3. CSwitch B, because it has the highest MAC address
4. DSwitch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
5. ESwitch C, because it has the lowest priority
6. FSwitch D, because it has the highest priority
18Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
1. AThere are two broadcast domains in the network.
2. BThere are four broadcast domains in the network.
3. CThere are six broadcast domains in the network.
4. DThere are four collision domains in the network.
5. EThere are five collision domains in the network.
6. FThere are seven collision domains in the network.
19In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
1. Awhen they receive a special token
2. Bwhen there is a carrier
3. Cwhen they detect no other devices are sending
4. Dwhen the medium is idle
5. Ewhen the server grants access
20A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
1. AUse a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
2. BAdd a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
3. CAdd two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
4. DImplement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
21Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.
Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)
1. ARouter C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
2. BRouter C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
3. CRouter C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
4. DRouter C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
5. ERouter C will send a Router Selection message type.
6. FRouter C will send a Source Quench message type.
22What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
1. AA CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.
2. BA CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.
3. CA CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.
4. DA CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.
23Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
1. AVLANs have not been created yet.
2. BAn IP address must be configured for the port.
3. CThe port is currently configured for access mode.
4. DThe correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
5. EThe "no shutdown" command has not been entered for the port.
24Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
1. Alearning
2. Blistening
3. Cdiscarding
4. Dforwarding
25VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?
1. AThe command is rejected.
2. BThe port turns amber.
3. CThe command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
4. DThe command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
26What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?
1. Apath cost
2. Blowest port MAC address
3. CVTP revision number
4. Dhighest port priority number
5. Eport priority number and MAC address
27In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?
1. Athe operation of VTP
2. Ba method of VLAN trunking
3. Can approach to wireless LAN communication
4. Dthe process for root bridge selection
5. EVLAN pruning
28Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?
1. ASwitch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
2. BSwitch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
3. CSwitch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
4. DSwitch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.
29What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
1. AIt creates a VLAN 999 interface.
2. BIt designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
3. CIt blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
4. DIt designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
30Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)
1. A802.1d
2. B802.1q
3. CVTP
4. DSAP
5. ESTP
31Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?
1. A32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
2. B32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
3. C32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
4. D32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78
32A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
1. AMore collision domains will be created.
2. BIP address utilization will be more efficient.
3. CMore bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
4. DAn additional broadcast domain will be created.
33What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)
1. AA higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.
2. BA more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.
3. CA more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
4. DBroadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.
5. EBroadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.
6. FVLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain.
7. GPort-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.
34Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?
1. A802.3ad
2. B802.1w
3. C802.1D
4. D802.1Q
35Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
1. AThey increase the size of collision domains.
2. BThey allow logical grouping of users by function.
3. CThey can enhance network security.
4. DThey increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
5. EThey increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
6. FThey simplify switch administration.
36A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
1. ASwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
2. BSwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
  SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
3. CSwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
  SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
4. DSwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
  SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
5. ESwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
37Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
1. Adiscarding
2. Blistening
3. Clearning
4. Dforwarding
5. Edisabled
38Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)
1. Ashow interface trunk
2. Bshow interface interface
3. Cshow ip interface brief
4. Dshow interface vlan
5. Eshow interface switchport
39Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
1. Aspanning-tree uplinkfast
2. Bspanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
3. Cspanning-tree backbonefast
4. Dspanning-tree mode mst
40All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?
1. AThe access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
2. BThe link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
3. CThe link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
4. DVTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
5. ESwitch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.
41Which WAN protocol is being used?
1. AATM
2. BHDLC
3. CFrame Relay
4. DPPP
42Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
1. AThis switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
2. BThis switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
3. CThis switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
4. DThis switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
43Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
1. ABroadcasts only use network layer addressing.
2. BA broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
3. CA broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
4. DBroadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
5. EBroadcast frames are never sent to switches.
44Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
1. AIt has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
2. BIt is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
3. CIt has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
4. DIt has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
45Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)
1. AVTP
2. B802.1q
3. CIGP
4. DISL
5. E802.3u
46Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
1. A1 through 1001
2. B2 through 1001
3. C1 through 1002
4. D2 through 1005
47Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
1. AWhen a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.
2. BUnknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
3. CBroadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
4. DPorts between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.
48Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)
1. ASwitch A - Fa0/0
2. BSwitch A - Fa0/1
3. CSwitch B - Fa0/0
4. DSwitch B - Fa0/1
5. ESwitch C - Fa0/0
6. FSwitch C - Fa0/1
49How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
1. AThe ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
2. BSwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
  SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
3. CSwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
  SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access
  SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
4. DSwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
  SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
  SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
  SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
  SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
50A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.
What causes this behavior?
1. Atrunk mode mismatches
2. Ballowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
3. Cnative VLAN mismatches
4. DVLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
51Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
1. ARSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
2. BRSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
3. CRSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
4. DRSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
5. ERSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
6. FRSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
52At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
1. Aphysical
2. Bdata link
3. Cnetwork
4. Dtransport
53What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
1. Asource MAC address
2. Bsource IP address
3. Csource switch port
4. Ddestination IP address
5. Edestination port address
6. Fdestination MAC address
54Which statement is true?
1. AThe Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
2. BVLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
3. CThe MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
4. DSwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
55Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)
1. Adedicated bandwidth
2. Badded security
3. Cprovides segmentation
4. Dallows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
5. Econtains collisions
56Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
1. Aping address
2. Btracert address
3. Ctraceroute address
4. Darp address
57Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?
1. Arouting loops, hold down timers
2. Bswitching loops, split horizon
3. Crouting loops, split horizon
4. Dswitching loops, VTP
5. Erouting loops, STP
6. Fswitching loops, STP
58Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
1. AHost E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
2. BRouter1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
3. CRouter1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
4. DThe FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
5. ERouter1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
6. FThe FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
59Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
1. AIt is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
2. BIt modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
3. CIt includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
4. DIt is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
5. EIt is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.
60Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
1. ASwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
2. BSwitchA, Fa0/1, root
3. CSwitchB, Gi0/2, root
4. DSwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
5. ESwitchC, Fa0/2, root
6. FSwitchD, Gi0/2, root
61The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?
1. AHost B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
2. BThe switch interface connected to the router is down.
3. CHost B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.
4. DThe switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
5. EThe switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.
62Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
1. ASwitch1
2. BSwitch2
3. CSwitch3
4. DSwitch4
63What is one benefit of PVST+?
1. APVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
2. BPVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
3. CPVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
4. DPVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
64Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
1. Atransparent
2. Bauto
3. Con
4. Ddesirable
5. Eblocking
6. Fforwarding
65How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?
1. Aone
2. Btwo
3. Csix
4. Dtwelve
66Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
1. A802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
2. B802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
3. C802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
4. D802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
5. E802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
67The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
1. AAll ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
2. BThirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
3. CThe bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
4. DAll interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
5. EAll designated ports are in a forwarding state.
6. FThis switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
68At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
1. ASwitch3, port fa0/1
2. BSwitch3, port fa0/12
3. CSwitch4, port fa0/11
4. DSwitch4, port fa0/2
5. ESwitch3, port Gi0/1
6. FSwitch3, port Gi0/2
69Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
1. Aconverged
2. Bredundant
3. Cprovisioned
4. Dspanned
70What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
1. Atransparent
2. Bauto
3. Cdesirable
4. Dclient
5. Eforwarding
6. Fon
71Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
1. ARSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
2. BRSTP defines new port roles.
3. CRSTP defines no new port states.
4. DRSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
5. ERSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
72Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)
1. AMultiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
2. BA hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5.
3. CFastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.
4. DFastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
5. EFastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
6. FInterface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.
73Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
1. Athe switch with the highest MAC address
2. Bthe switch with the lowest MAC address
3. Cthe switch with the highest IP address
4. Dthe switch with the lowest IP address
74What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
1. AVLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
2. BVLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
3. CVLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
4. DVLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
5. EVLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
6. FVLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.
75Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.
What will happen in this scenario?
1. A802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
2. BVLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
3. CA native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
4. DVLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.
76A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
1. AThis design will function as intended.
2. BSpanning-tree will need to be used.
3. CThe router will not accept the addressing scheme.
4. DThe connection between switches should be a trunk.
5. EThe router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
77A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?
1. AThe Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
2. BThe link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
3. CAt least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.
4. DPort FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
5. EA router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.
78Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?
1. ACheck the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
2. BCheck the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
3. CCheck the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
4. DCheck the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
79
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
1. A192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
2. B192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
3. C192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
4. D192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
5. E192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
80Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?
1. A172.16.16.0
2. B172.16.0.0
3. C172.16.24.0
4. D172.16.28.0
81Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?
1. A::1
2. B::
3. C2000::/3
4. D0::/10
82You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
1. A10.188.31.0/26
2. B10.188.31.0/25
3. C10.188.31.0/28
4. D10.188.31.0/27
5. E10.188.31.0/29
83What are three features of the IPv6 protocol?
1. Aoptional IPsec
2. Bautoconfiguration
3. Cno broadcasts
4. Dcomplicated header
5. Eplug-and-play
6. Fchecksums
84Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
1. Aipv6 local
2. Bipv6 host
3. Cipv6 unicast-routing
4. Dipv6 neighbor
85What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?
1. Aglobal unicast
2. Banycast
3. Cmulticast
4. Dunspecified address
86What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
1. ANIC
2. BBIA
3. COUI
4. DVAI
87Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?
1. A255.255.255.0
2. B255.255.254.0
3. C255.255.252.0
4. D255.255.248.0
88What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
1. A10.0.0.0 /21
2. B10.0.0.0 /22
3. C10.0.0.0 /23
4. D10.0.0.0 /24
89Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
1. Aanycast
2. Bbroadcast
3. Cmulticast
4. Dpodcast
5. Eallcast
90Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
1. AThere are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
2. BA single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
3. CEvery IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
4. DThe first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
5. ELeading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
91A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?
1. A192.168.1.56/26
2. B192.168.1.56/27
3. C192.168.1.64/26
4. D192.168.1.64/27
92All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)
1. ANetwork A - 172.16.3.48/26
2. BNetwork A - 172.16.3.128/25
3. CNetwork A - 172.16.3.192/26
4. DLink A - 172.16.3.0/30
5. ELink A - 172.16.3.40/30
6. FLink A - 172.16.3.112/30
93The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?
1. A8
2. B6
3. C30
4. D32
5. E14
6. F16
94What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
1. AAddresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
2. BOnly the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
3. CThe NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
4. DA conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
95Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
1. Areduces routing table entries
2. Bauto-negotiation of media rates
3. Cefficient utilization of MAC addresses
4. Ddedicated communications between devices
5. Eease of management and troubleshooting
96What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?
1. AB514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
2. BB514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
3. CB514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
4. DB514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
97All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)
1. AThe subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
2. BThe subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.
3. CThe IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
4. DThe IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
5. EThe LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
6. FThe LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.
98Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
1. AGlobal addresses start with 2000::/3.
2. BLink-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
3. CLink-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
4. DThere is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
5. EIf a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
99The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
1. Ano broadcast
2. Bchange of source address in the IPv6 header
3. Cchange of destination address in the IPv6 header
4. DTelnet access does not require a password
5. Eautoconfiguration
6. FNAT
100An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
1. AIP address: 192.168.20.14
  Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
  Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
2. BIP address: 192.168.20.254
  Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
  Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
3. CIP address: 192.168.20.30
  Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
  Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
4. DIP address: 192.168.20.30
  Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
  Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
5. EIP address: 192.168.20.30
  Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
  Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
101Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
1. A0.0.0.240
2. B255.255.255.252
3. C255.255.255.0
4. D255.255.255.224
5. E255.255.255.240
102How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?
1. A24
2. B4
3. C8
4. D16
103What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)
1. Aenable dual-stack routing
2. Bconfigure IPv6 directly
3. Cconfigure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
4. Duse proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
5. Estatically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
6. Fuse DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
104In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?
1. A172.16.0.0 /16
2. B172.16.0.0 /20
3. C172.16.0.0 /24
4. D172.32.0.0 /16
5. E172.32.0.0 /17
6. F172.64.0.0 /16
105How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?
1. Aby appending 0xFF to the MAC address
2. Bby prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE
3. Cby prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
4. Dby inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address
5. Eby prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes
106What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?
1. A172.1.0.0/22
2. B172.1.0.0/21
3. C172.1.4.0/22
4. D172.1.4.0/24
  172.1.5.0/24
  172.1.6.0/24
  172.1.7.0/24
5. E172.1.4.0/25
  172.1.4.128/25
  172.1.5.0/24
  172.1.6.0/24
  172.1.7.0/24
107Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
1. A2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
2. B2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
3. CFEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
4. D2004:1:25A4:886F::1
108Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
1. Aone-to-many communication model
2. Bone-to-nearest communication model
3. Cany-to-many communication model
4. Da unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
5. Ethe same address for multiple devices in the group
6. Fdelivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
109A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
1. A255.255.255.0
2. B255.255.255.128
3. C255.255.252.0
4. D255.255.255.224
5. E255.255.255.192
6. F255.255.248.0
110A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)
1. Ahost A IP address: 192.168.1.79
2. Bhost A IP address: 192.168.1.64
3. Chost A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
4. Dhost B IP address: 192.168.1.128
5. Ehost B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
6. Fhost B IP address: 192.168.1.190
111Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?
1. AFF02::1
2. BFF02::2
3. CFF02::3
4. DFF02::4
112Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?
1. A172.16.0.0./21
2. B172.16.0.0./20
3. C172.16.0.0./16
4. D172.16.0.0/18
113Which IPv6 address is valid?
1. A2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
2. B2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
3. C2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
4. D2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
114Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?
1. Aipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
2. Bipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
3. Cipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64
4. Dipv6 autoconfig
115Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
1. AFE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
2. BFE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
3. CFEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
4. DFE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
116The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?
1. A10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
2. B10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
3. C10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
4. D10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
5. E10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
117Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
1. ABandwidth
2. BBandwidth and Delay
3. CBandwidth, Delay, and MTU
4. DBandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
118Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
1. Ato decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
2. Bto reduce routing overhead
3. Cto speed up convergence
4. Dto confine network instability to single areas of the network
5. Eto reduce the complexity of router configuration
6. Fto lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
119Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?
1. ARouter# service password-encryption
2. BRouter(config)# password-encryption
3. CRouter(config)# service password-encryption
4. DRouter# password-encryption
120Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
1. AConfiguration complexity decreases as network size increases.
2. BSecurity increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
3. CRoute summarization is computed automatically by the router.
4. DRouting tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
5. EAn efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
6. FRouting updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
7. GRouting traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
121A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task
1. Aservice password-encryption
  access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
  line vty 0 4
  login
  password cisco
  access-class 1
2. Benable password secret
  line vty 0
  login
  password cisco
  C. service password
3. Cservice password-encryption
  line vty 1
  login
  password cisco
4. Dservice password-encryption
  line vty 0 4
  login
  password cisco
122The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
1. Aip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
2. Bip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
3. Cip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
4. Dip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
5. Eip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
6. Fip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
123The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?
1. AConfigure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
2. BConfigure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester.
3. CConfigure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.
4. DConfigure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
5. EConfigure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
6. FConfigure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.
124The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two)
1. Aa dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
2. Ba dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.
3. Ca static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter.
4. Da dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.
5. Ea dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.
6. Fa static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.
125What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
1. AOnly the enable password will be encrypted.
2. BOnly the enable secret password will be encrypted.
3. COnly passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
4. DIt will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
5. EIt will encrypt all current and future passwords.
126What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
1. AIt configures SSH globally for all logins.
2. BIt tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
3. CIt configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
4. DIt configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
5. EIt allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
127What is the reason that the interface status is "administratively down, line protocol down"?
1. AThere is no encapsulation type configured.
2. BThere is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
3. CThe interface is not receiving any keepalives.
4. DThe interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
5. EThe interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
6. FThe wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.
128When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?
1. AThe loopback addresses are on different subnets.
2. BThe values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
3. CRoute summarization is enabled on both routers.
4. DThe process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.
129A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
1. Athe OSPF route
2. Bthe EIGRP route
3. Cthe RIPv2 route
4. Dall three routes
5. Ethe OSPF and RIPv2 routes
130The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?
1. AThe path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.
2. BThe path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
3. CThe path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.
4. DThe path of the packets will be R3 to R1.
131A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
1. ARouter# show ip eigrp adjacency
2. BRouter# show ip eigrp topology
3. CRouter# show ip eigrp interfaces
4. DRouter# show ip eigrp neighbors
132R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
1. AAll of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
2. BR1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
3. CA static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
4. DThe hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
5. EEIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
6. FR1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
133What is a global command?
1. Aa command that is set once and affects the entire router
2. Ba command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
3. Ca command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
4. Da command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
5. Ea command that can be entered in any configuration mode
134When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
1. AAS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
2. BLoopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
3. CThe no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
4. DRouter B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network
135A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
1. AIt checks the configuration register.
2. BIt attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
3. CIt loads the first image file in flash memory.
4. DIt inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.
136What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
1. AThe maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
2. BThe minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
3. CThe maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
4. DThe minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
5. EThe maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
6. FThe maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
137On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
1. Aa router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
2. Ba router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
3. Ca switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
4. Da switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
138Which command displays CPU utilization?
1. Ashow protocols
2. Bshow process
3. Cshow system
4. Dshow version
139What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
1. ASend periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
2. BSend entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
3. CUse the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
4. DUpdate the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
5. EMaintain the topology of the entire network in its database.
140Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
1. Ashow ip ospf link-state
2. Bshow ip ospf lsa database
3. Cshow ip ospf neighbors
4. Dshow ip ospf database
141The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
1. A3 MB
2. B4 MB
3. C5 MB
4. D7 MB
5. E8 MB
142The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.)
1. AThe Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.
2. BThe Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.
3. CThe London router is a Cisco 2610.
4. DThe Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.
5. EThe CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.
6. FThe CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.
143If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
1. Aip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
2. Bip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
3. Cip default-network 0.0.0.0
4. Dip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
5. Eip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
144Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
1. Ahop count
2. Badministrative distance
3. Clink bandwidth
4. Dlink delay
5. Elink cost
145Refer to the exhibit.

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces
shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
1. AFastEthernet0 /0
2. BFastEthernet0 /1
3. CSerial0/0
4. DSerial0/1.102
5. ESerial0/1.103
6. FSerial0/1.104
146The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central
router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional
subnets?
1. A10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
  D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
2. B10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets
  D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
3. C10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
  D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
4. D10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
  D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
5. E10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets
  D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
6. F10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
  D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
147A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
1. AHFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
2. BHFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
3. CHFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
4. DHFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
5. EHFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
6. FHFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
148Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this
information? (Choose two.)
1. Athe amount of available ROM
2. Bthe amount of available flash and RAM memory
3. Cthe version of the bootstrap software present on the router
4. Dshow version
5. Eshow processes
6. Fshow running-config
149Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
1. Ashow reload
2. Bshow boot
3. Cshow running-config
4. Dshow version
150Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
1. Atracert address
2. Btraceroute address
3. Ctelnet address
4. Dssh address
151What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
1. Ahello packets
2. BSAP messages sent by other routers
3. CLSAs from other routers
4. Dbeacons received on point-to-point links
5. Erouting tables received from other link-state routers
6. FTTL packets from designated routers
152Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
1. AIt supports VLSM.
2. BIt is used to route between autonomous systems.
3. CIt confines network instability to one area of the network.
4. DIt increases routing overhead on the network.
5. EIt allows extensive control of routing updates.
6. FIt is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
153A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network
administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as
shown. What is the cause of the problem?
1. AThe network administrator failed to save the configuration.
2. BThe configuration register is set to 0x2100.
3. CThe boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
4. DThe configuration register is set to 0x2102.
5. EThe router is configured with the boot system startup command.
154What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
1. A90
2. B100
3. C110
4. D120
155Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
1. Aprovides common view of entire topology
2. Bexchanges routing tables with neighbors
3. Ccalculates shortest path
4. Dutilizes event-triggered updates
5. Eutilizes frequent periodic updates
156Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
1. AThe router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
2. BThe router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
3. CThe router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
4. DThe router will forward packets from R3 to R1
157C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is
operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
1. AThese commands need to be added to the configuration:
  C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
  C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
2. BThese commands need to be added to the configuration:
  C-router(config)# router ospf 1
  C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
3. CThese commands need to be added to the configuration:
  C-router(config)# router rip
  C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
4. DNo further routing configuration is required.
158Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
1. AThe router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid.
2. BFlash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
3. CErasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
4. DIn order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.
159Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
1. Aenable cdp
2. Bcdp enable
3. Ccdp run
4. Drun cdp
160According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?
1. A10.1.1.2
2. B10.1.2.2
3. C10.1.3.3
4. D10.1.4.4
161Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?
1. A192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240
2. B192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252
3. C192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
4. D192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252
5. E192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
6. F192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252
162Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output
shown?
1. AOne interface has a problem.
2. BTwo interfaces have problems.
3. CThe interfaces are functioning correctly.
4. DThe operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
163Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
1. ARAM
2. BNVRAM
3. Cflash memory
4. DHTTP server
5. ETFTP server
6. FTelnet server
164Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
1. A10.1.1.2
2. B10.154.154.1
3. C172.16.5.1
4. D192.168.5.3
165What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
1. ARouter(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
  Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
2. BRouter(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
  Router(config-if)# no shut down
  Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1
  Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
  Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
  Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20
  Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
3. CRouter(config)# router eigrp 100
  Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
  Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
4. DSwitch1(config)# vlan database
  Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
  Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
5. ESwitch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
  Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
6. FSwitch1(config)# interface vlan 1
  Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
166Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
1. AAll OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
2. BOnly one process number can be used on the same router.
3. CDifferent process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
4. DThe process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
5. EHello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
167For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location that is shown? (Choose two.)
1. ARouter1 has specific boot system commands that instruct it to load IOS from a TFTP server.
2. BRouter1 is acting as a TFTP server for other routers.
3. CRouter1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory.
4. DRouter1 defaulted to ROMMON mode and loaded the IOS image from a TFTP server.
5. ECisco routers will first attempt to load an image from TFTP for management purposes.
168What can be determined about the router from the console output?
1. ANo configuration file was found in NVRAM.
2. BNo configuration file was found in flash.
3. CNo configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
4. DConfiguration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
169Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
1. Aone physical interface for each subinterface
2. Bone IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
3. Ca management domain for each subinterface
4. Dsubinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
5. Eone subinterface per VLAN
6. Fsubinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
170Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
1. ARouter(config)# router ospf 0
2. BRouter(config)# router ospf 1
3. CRouter(config)# router ospf area 0
4. DRouter(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
5. ERouter(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
6. FRouter(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
171A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information
about the path to that network?
1. Aa directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
2. Ba static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
3. Ca RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
4. Dan OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
5. Ea default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
6. Fa static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop
172What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
1. A2
2. B8
3. C16
4. Dunlimited
173Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
1. Ashow cdp neigbors
2. Bshow session
3. Cshow users
4. Dshow vty logins
174Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
1. Aa backup route, stored in the routing table
2. Ba primary route, stored in the routing table
3. Ca backup route, stored in the topology table
4. Da primary route, stored in the topology table
175The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0
of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following
commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?
1. ASwitch1(config)# line con0
  Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
  Switch1(config-line)#login
2. BSwitch1(config)# interface fa0/1
  Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
3. CSwitch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
4. DSwitch1(config)# interface fa0/1
  Switch1(config-if)# duplex full
  Switch1(config-if)# speed 100
5. ESwitch1(config)# interface fa0/1
  Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
176Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
1. AAs FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
2. BRemote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
3. CMore VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
4. DThe switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
177Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta
router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity.
1. Aincompatible IP address
2. Binsufficient bandwidth
3. Cincorrect subnet mask
4. Dincompatible encapsulation
5. Elink reliability too low
6. FIPCP closed
178Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router
Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server.

Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?
1. AThe network has not fully converged.
2. BIP routing is not enabled.
3. C A static route is configured incorrectly.
4. DThe FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
5. EThe neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
6. FThe routing table on Coffee has not updated
179A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in
the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing
this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
1. AThe process id is configured improperly.
2. BThe OSPF area is configured improperly.
3. CThe network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
4. DThe network number is configured improperly.
5. EThe AS is configured improperly.
6. FThe network subnet mask is configured improperly.
180Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
1. AA DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
2. BA DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
3. CA DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
4. DIf an address conflict is de0tected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
5. EIf an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator.
6. FIf an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.
181What statement is true of the configuration for this network?
1. AThe configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are
  supported.
2. BBecause of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown.
3. CThe number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.
4. DExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.
182Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server?
1. AAddresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
2. BAddresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times.
3. CAddresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made.
4. DAddresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.
183What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)
1. ANAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
2. BNAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
3. CNAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
4. DDynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
5. ENAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
6. FNAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
184On which options are standard access lists based?
1. Adestination address and wildcard mask
2. Bdestination address and subnet mask
3. Csource address and subnet mask
4. Dsource address and wildcard mask
185A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the
entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be used?
1. Astandard
2. Bextended
3. Cdynamic
4. Dreflexive
186How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?
1. AAddresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
2. BAddresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made, and another address is
  then assigned.
3. CAddresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.
4. DAddresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
187Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
1. AThe address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
2. BThe address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
3. COnly the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
4. DOnly the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
5. EThe IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
188The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
1. AThe usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
2. BThe passwords do not match on the two routers.
3. CCHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
4. DThe routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
5. EWith CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
  Answer: B
189Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
1. ASet the IP gateway to be used by the network.
2. BPerform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
3. CConfigure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
4. DProvide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
5. EMonitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
6. FAssign and renew IP address from the default pool.
190When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two.)
1. Anetwork or subnetwork IP address
2. Bbroadcast address on the network
3. CIP address leased to the LAN
4. DIP address used by the interfaces
5. Emanually assigned address to the clients
6. Fdesignated IP address to the DHCP server
191Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)
1. AThey allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
2. BThey require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
3. CThey are always present in the NAT table.
4. DThey can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.
192A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
1. AThe network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
2. BThe network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
3. CWhen dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
4. DThe sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
5. EThe network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.
193A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network
through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested
it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands.
Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
1. APort security needs to be globally enabled.
2. BPort security needs to be enabled on the interface.
3. CPort security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
4. DPort security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
5. EPort security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.
6. FThe port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.
194Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
1. Aswitch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
  switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
2. Bswitch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
  switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
3. Cswitch(config-if)#switchport mode access
  switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
4. Dswitch(config-if)#switchport mode access
  switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
195How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?
1. Aby encrypting all passwords passing through the router
2. Bby encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
3. Cby requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
4. Dby configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
5. Eby automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router
196Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except
those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict
anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?
1. AACDB
2. BBADC
3. CDBAC
4. DCDBA
197An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL
102?
1. Ano ip access-class 102 in
2. Bno ip access-class 102 out
3. Cno ip access-group 102 in
4. Dno ip access-group 102 out
5. Eno ip access-list 102 in
198Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?
1. ABackboneFast
2. BUplinkFast
3. CRoot Guard
4. DBPDU Guard
5. EBPDU Filter
199When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?
1. Ashow ip access-lists
2. Bshow access-lists
3. Cshow interface
4. Dshow ip interface
5. Elist ip interface
200A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?
1. AA Level 5 password is not set.
2. BAn ACL is blocking Telnet access.
3. CThe vty password is missing.
4. DThe console password is missing.
201Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
1. AYou can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
2. BYou can apply only one access list on any interface.
3. CYou can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
4. DYou can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
202Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
1. Aaccess-list 110 permit ip any any
2. Baccess-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
3. Caccess list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
4. Daccess-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
203A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0,
192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
1. Aaccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
2. Baccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
3. Caccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
4. Daccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
5. Eaccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
6. Faccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
204Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
1. AYou can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
2. BYou can apply only one access list on any interface.
3. CYou can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
4. DYou can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
205Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
1. Aaccess-list 110 permit ip any any
2. Baccess-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
3. Caccess list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
4. Daccess-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
206A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0,
192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
1. Aaccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
2. Baccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
3. Caccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
4. Daccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
5. Eaccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
6. Faccess-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
207What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
1. AAdministratively shut down the interface.
2. BPhysically secure the interface.
3. CCreate an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
4. DConfigure a virtual terminal password and login process.
5. EEnter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
208Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)
1. ASW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
2. BSW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
3. CSW1#show running-config
4. DSW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
5. ESW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
209The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1

The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose
two.)
1. AThe MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
2. BOnly host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
3. CThis frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
4. DAll frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
5. EHosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1.
6. FOnly frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1.
210What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
1. AA dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
2. BA dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
3. CA dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
4. DStatically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received
5. EStatically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
211A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem?
1. AThe link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
2. BTCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
3. CThe link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
4. DThe default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
5. EInterface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
6. FThe link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.
212Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
1. AThe cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
2. BInterface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
3. CInterface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
4. DThe IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
5. EInterface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
6. FThe encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
213An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?
1. Adata link layer
2. Bapplication layer
3. Caccess layer
4. Dsession layer
5. Enetwork layer
214The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer
problem? (Choose three.)
1. AEnsure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
2. BEnsure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
3. CEnsure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
4. DEnsure the switch has power.
5. EReboot all of the devices.
6. FReseat all cables.
215The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
1. AConfigure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
2. BConfigure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
3. CConfigure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
4. DConfigure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
5. EConfigure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
6. FConfigure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
216A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected.
What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
1. AHost B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
2. BCommunication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
3. CThe transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
4. DFor less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
217HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this problem?
1. AHostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
2. BThe address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
3. CThe Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used.
4. DThe serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
5. EThe Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
218Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)
1. Aping
2. Btracert
3. Cipconfig
4. Dshow ip route
5. Ewinipcfg
6. FF. show interfaces
219A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship
on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is
the cause of this problem?
1. AThe OSPF area is not configured properly.
2. BThe priority on R1 should be set higher.
3. CThe cost on R1 should be set higher.
4. DThe hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
5. EA backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
6. FThe OSPF process ID numbers must match.
220In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
1. Aduring high traffic periods
2. Bafter broken links are re-established
3. Cwhen upper-layer protocols require high reliability
4. Din an improperly implemented redundant topology
5. Ewhen a dual ring topology is in use
221In the Frame Relay network, which IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces with point-to- point PVCs?
1. ADLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
  DLCI 17: 192.168.10.1 /24
  DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24
  DLCI 28: 192.168.10.3 /24
2. BDLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
  DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24
  DLCI 99: 192.168.12.1 /24
  DLCI 28: 192.168.13.1 /24
3. CDLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
  DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24
  DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24
  DLCI 28: 192.168.11.2 /24
4. DDLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
  DLCI 17: 192.168.10.2 /24
  DLCI 99: 192.168.10.3 /24
  DLCI 28: 192.168.10.4 /24
222Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
1. ARouter(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
2. BRouter(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
3. CRouter(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
4. DRouter(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
223Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?
1. ARSA
2. BL2TP
3. CIPsec
4. DPPTP
224At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
1. ALayer 2
2. BLayer 3
3. CLayer 4
4. DLayer 5
225The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this
command?
1. AThis command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
2. BThe IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
3. C102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
4. DThis command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
5. EThe broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
226Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)
1. APPP
2. BWAP
3. CDSL
4. DL2TPv3
5. EEthernet
227Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
1. AHDLC
2. BPPP
3. CX.25
4. DFrame Relay
228Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?
1. AIETF
2. BANSI Annex D
3. CQ9333-A Annex A
4. DHDLC
229RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.

After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
1. Aincorrect bandwidth configuration
2. Bincorrect LMI configuration
3. Cincorrect map statement
4. Dincorrect IP address
230What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?
1. AThe Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
2. BThe DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.
3. CThe Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
4. DThe DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
5. EThe mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.
231A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a
non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
1. AMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
  Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
2. BMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
  Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
  Main(config-if)# no shut
3. CMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
  Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
  Main(config-if)# authentication chap
  Main(config-if)# no shut
4. DMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
  Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
  Main(config-if)# no shut
232What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of
point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
1. Areduced cost
2. Bbetter throughput
3. Cbroadband incompatibility
4. Dincreased security
5. Escalability
6. Freduced latency
233Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)
1. Athe number of BECN packets that are received by the router
2. Bthe value of the local DLCI
3. Cthe number of FECN packets that are received by the router
4. Dthe status of the PVC that is configured on the router
5. Ethe IP address of the local router
234Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded.
Based on the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?
1. ADLCI = 100
2. Blast time PVC status changed 00:25:40
3. Cin BECN packets 192
4. Din FECN packets 147
5. Ein DE packets 0
235Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?
1. Ashow frame-relay lmi
2. Bshow frame-relay map
3. Cshow frame-relay pvc
4. Dshow interfaces serial
236It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
1. ARemove the IP address from the physical interface.
2. BEncapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP.
3. CCreate the virtual interfaces with the interface command.
4. DConfigure each subinterface with its own IP address.
5. EDisable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
6. FConfigure static Frame Relay map entries for each subinterface network.
237What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
1. AAll TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
2. BAll UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
3. CAll TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent
4. DAll traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
238Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)
1. ACHAP uses a two-way handshake.
2. BCHAP uses a three-way handshake.
3. CCHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
4. DCHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
5. ECHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
6. FCHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
239Which statement describes DLCI 17?
1. ADLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
2. BDLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
3. CDLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
4. DDLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.
240What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
1. Adefines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
2. Bdefines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
3. Cdefines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
4. Ddefines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
241Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
1. ANCP
2. BISDN
3. CSLIP
4. DLCP
5. EDLCI
242What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
1. AThey create split-horizon issues.
2. BThey require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
3. CThey emulate leased lines
4. DThey are ideal for full-mesh topologies
5. EThey require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
243What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?
1. Ashow frame-relay pvc
2. Bshow frame-relay lmi
3. Cshow frame-relay map
4. Dshow frame relay end-to-end
244What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
1. Ato map a known IP address to a MAC address
2. Bto map a known DLCI to a MAC address
3. Cto map a known MAC address to an IP address
4. Dto map a known DLCI to an IP address
5. Eto map a known IP address to a SPID
6. Fto map a known SPID to a MAC address
245What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
1. A0000.5E00.01A3
2. B0007.B400.AE01
3. C0000.0C07.AC15
4. D0007.5E00.B301
246In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
1. AThe active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses
2. BAll GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
3. CThe active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address
4. DThe GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses
247Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?
1. AIt monitors traffic flow and link utilization.
2. BIt ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group
3. CIt causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.
4. DIt thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks
248What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)
1. AGLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group
2. BGLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members
3. CGLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors
4. DGLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers
5. EGLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers
6. FGLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy
249Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
1. AThe virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router
2. BThe HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
3. CHSRP supports only clear-text authentication
4. DThe HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN
5. EThe HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN
6. FHSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing
250Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
1. AUtilizing Syslog improves network performance
2. BThe Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems
3. CA Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space
4. DThere are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages
5. EEnabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping
6. FA Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts
251A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
1. Ainformational
2. Bemergency
3. Cwarning
4. Dcritical
5. Edebug
6. Ferror
252What is the default Syslog facility level?
1. Alocal4
2. Blocal5
3. Clocal6
4. Dlocal7
253What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
1. Aservice timestamps log datetime localtime
2. Bservice timestamps debug datetime msec
3. Cservice timestamps debug datetime localtime
4. Dservice timestamps log datetime msec
254What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?
1. AThe EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link
2. BThe EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing the adjacency to go down.
3. CA shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down
4. DInterface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down
255What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)
1. AMIB
2. Bagent
3. Cset
4. DAES
5. Esupervisor
6. Fmanager
256What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?
1. Aresponse
2. Bget
3. Ctrap
4. Dcapture
257What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?
1. AHMAC-MD5
2. BHMAC-SHA
3. CCBC-DES
4. Dcommunity strings
258Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
1. ASNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features
2. BSNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP
3. CSNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
4. DSNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP
5. ESNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP
6. FSNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP
259What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
1. ATo identify applications causing congestion
2. BTo authorize user network access
3. CTo report and alert link up / down instances
4. DTo diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization
5. ETo detect suboptimal routing in the network.
6. FTo confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service
260What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?
1. Aflow monitor
2. Bflow record
3. Cflow sampler
4. Dflow exporter
261What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
1. ASNMP
2. BNetflow
3. CWCCP
4. DIP SLA
262What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?
1. Ashow ip flow export
2. Bshow ip flow top-talkers
3. Cshow ip cache flow
4. Dshow mls sampling
5. Eshow mls netflow ip
263What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
1. Asource IP address
2. Bsource MAC address
3. Cegress interface
4. Dingress interface
5. Edestination IP address
6. FIP next-hop
264What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)
1. ACPU utilization
2. Bwhere Netflow data will be sent
3. Cnumber of devices exporting Netflow data
4. Dport availability
5. ESNMP version
6. FWAN encapsulation
265A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?
1. Ainterface FastEthernet 0/1
  channel-group 1 mode active
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
  interface FastEthernet 0/2
  channel-group 1 mode active
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
2. Binterface FastEthernet 0/1
  channel-group 2 mode auto
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
  interface FastEthernet 0/2
  channel-group 2 mode auto
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
3. Cinterface FastEthernet 0/1
  channel-group 1 mode desirable
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
  interface FastEthernet 0/2
  channel-group 1 mode desirable
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
4. Dinterface FastEthernet 0/1
  channel-group 1 mode passive
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
  interface FastEthernet 0/2
  channel-group 1 mode passive
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
266Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)
1. AIt identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA
2. BIt should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
3. CBy default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
4. DThe router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID
5. EIt is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface
267What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
1. Aspeed
2. BDTP negotiation settings
3. Ctrunk encapsulation
4. Dduplex
268What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)
1. AIt is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area
2. BIt reduces the types of LSAs that are generated
3. CIt removes the need for virtual links
4. DIt increases LSA response times
5. EIt reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies
269What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given output?
1. Ainterface FastEthernet 0/3
  channel-group 1 mode desirable
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
2. Binterface FastEthernet 0/3
  channel-group 2 mode passive
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
3. Cinterface FastEthernet 0/3
  channel-group 2 mode active
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
4. Dinterface FastEthernet 0/3
  channel-group 2 mode on
  switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  switchport mode trunk
270What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
1. AIt requires the use of ARP.
2. BIt can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link
3. CIt supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link
4. DIt routes over links rather than over networks
271If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?
1. ASW1's Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down
2. BThere is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
3. CThere is an MTU mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
4. DThere is a speed mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
272When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
1. Aexstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
2. Bexstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
3. Cexstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
4. Dloading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
273A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?
1. Athe port-channel 1 interface
2. Bthe highest number member interface
3. Call member interfaces
4. Dthe lowest number member interface
274What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?
1. Arouter ospf area 0
  network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
2. Brouter ospf
  network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
3. Crouter ospf 1
  network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
4. Drouter ospf area 0
  network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
5. Erouter ospf
  network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
6. Frouter ospf 1
  network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
275If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?
1. A192.168.1.1
2. B172.16.1.1
3. C1.1.1.1
4. D2.2.2.2
276What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
1. Anetwork 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
2. Bnetwork 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
3. Cnetwork 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
4. Dnetwork all-interfaces area 0
277Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?
1. AIt is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number
2. BIt is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database
3. CIt is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas
4. DIt is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area
278Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)
1. AMIB
2. BSNMP Manager
3. CSysLog Server
4. DSNMP Agent
5. ESet
279What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?
1. AFlash
2. BThe logging buffer .RAM
3. CThe console terminal
4. DOther terminals
5. ESyslog server
280Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)
1. AEmergencies
2. BAlerts
3. CCritical
4. DErrors
5. EWarnings
281What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
1. ANetwork, Application & User Monitoring
2. BNetwork Planning
3. CSecurity Analysis
4. DAccounting/Billing
282Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?
1. ANetflow
2. BWCCP
3. CIP SLA
4. DSNMP
283What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?
1. AIP address
2. BInterface name
3. CPort numbers
4. DL3 protocol type
5. EMAC address
284What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?
1. ATRAP
2. BINFORM
3. CGET
4. DSET
285Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?
1. AMessage Integrity
2. BCompression
3. CAuthentication
4. DEncryption
5. EError Detection
286In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?
1. AAVF
2. BAVG
3. CActive Router
4. DStandby Router

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Beschreibung: Electronica CERTIFICACION Quiz am CERTIFICACION, erstellt von llballadaresdeat am 27/11/2014.
Autor: llballadaresdeat
Sprache: Español
Aufrufe: 132
Schlagwörter: certificacion electronica
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