Quiz
Gold Seal FAA Private Pilot Section 3
Fragen in diesem Quiz (152)
1Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
- AThe 0 degree line of latitude passes through Greenwich England.
- BLine of longitude cross the equator at right angles.
- CLines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.
2What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
***Refer to printed full sized reference****
- A47 Degrees 25 minutes North - 98 Degrees 6 minutes West.
- B47 Degrees 55 minutes North - 98 Degrees 6 minutes West.
- C47 Degrees 25 minutes N -99 Degrees 54 minutes West.
3The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a ?
- AVisual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
- BCompulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.
- CCompulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.
4What type of military flight operations should pilot expect along IR 644?
***Refer to Hard copy PDF***
- AVFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.
- BInstruments training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.
- CIFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
5What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
- AMilitary training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
- BUnusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
- CHigh volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
6The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is?
- A126.0 Mhz
- B133.4 Mhz
- C122.95 Mhz
7Which public use airport depicted are indicated as having fuel?
***Refer to Hard copy PDF***
- AMercer County Regional Airport (Area 3) and Garrison (Area 2).
- BMinot Int'l (Area 1) and Garrison (Area 2).
- CMinot Int'l (Area 1).
8What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
- AObtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
- BExercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
- COperate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
9What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nm southwest of Savannah International?
- A1,532 feet AGL
- B1,500 feet MSL.
- C1,549 feet MSL.
10Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has?
- AReceived prior authorization from the controlling agency.
- BReceived prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
- CFiled an IFR flight plan.
11If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
- A126.35 MHz
- B120.3 MHz
- C122.95 MHZ
12At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
- A135.075 MHz.
- B122.05 MHz.
- C122.8 MHz.
13The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
- AUnmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.
- BUnmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet AGL.
- CUnmarked blimp hangers at 300 feet MSL.
14Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the?
- AGraphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
- BAirport/Facility Directory.
- CNOTAMs.
15The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is?
- A190 feet.
- B19 feet.
- C216 feet.
16Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
- A47 degrees 24 Minutes N - 75 Degrees 58 Minutes West.
- B36 Degrees 48 minutes North - 76 Degrees 1 Minute West.
- C36 Degrees 24 Minutes North - 76 Degrees 1 Minute West.
17The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are?
- AVisual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
- BAirports with special traffic patterns.
- COut boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.
18The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is?
- A122.9 MHz.
- B123.0 MHz.
- C122.8 MHz.
19What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
- ATransmit intentions on 122.9 when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
- BContact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.
- CContact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.
20Which airport is located at approximately 47 degrees 21 minutes N latitude and 101 degrees 1 minute West longitude?
- AEvenson.
- BUnderwood.
- CWashburn.
21if air traffic control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code?
- A4096
- B1200
- C0000
22An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
- AClass D and Class G (below 10,000 MSL).
- BClass A, Class B, (and withing 30 nm of the Class B primary airport), and Class C
- CClass D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
23When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
- A0700, 1700, 7000
- B7500, 7600, 7700
- C1200, 1500, 7000
24At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which altimeter code should be selected?
- AMode F, Code 1200
- BMode 3/A, Code 1200
- CMode C, Code 4096
25For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on?
- AA properly functioning thermostat.
- BThe circulation of lubricating oil.
- CAir flowing over the exhaust manifold.
26The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to?
- AIncrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
- BDecrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increased air density.
- CDecrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreased air density.
27Applying carburetor heat will?
- AEnrich the fuel/air mixture.
- Bresult in more air going through the carburetor.
- CNot affect the fuel/air mixture.
28If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto?
- AMay continue to fire.
- BWill not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit.
- CWill not operate.
29If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed pitch propeller) is detonating during climb out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to?
- ALower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
- BApply carburetor heat.
- CLean the mixture.
30Which of the following is a true statement concerning electrical systems?
- AThe master switch provides current to the electrical system.
- BThe airspeed indicator is driven by the electrical system.
- CLights and radios use the electrical system for power.
31If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause?
- ALower cylinder head temperature.
- BA mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
- CDetonation.
32Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when?
- AThe unburned charge in the cylinder explodes instead of burning normally.
- BHot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
- CThe spark plugs are fouled or shorted out of the wiring is defective.
33On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used.
- AAll the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
- BIn the event the engine driven pump fails.
- CConstantly except in starting the engine.
34While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
- AThe fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
- BThe excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
- CThere will be more fuel in the cylinder than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
35What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
- AIncrease climb speed and increase RPM.
- BReduce climb speed and increase RPM.
- CReduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
36An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would?
- AExperience avionics equipment failure.
- BProbably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.
- CProbably experience failure of the engine ignition system system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.
37What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
- APlace the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
- BTest each brake and the parking brakes.
- CAdjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
38The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting?
- AA decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
- BAn increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
- CA decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
39A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to?
- AAlways use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
- BAvoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
- CAvoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
40The operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the?
- AAutomatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
- BIncrease in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
- CDifference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
41The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as?
- ACombustion.
- BDetonation.
- CPre-ignition.
42With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be?
- AMore susceptible to icing.
- BEqually susceptible to incing.
- CSusceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
43If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be?
- AA drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
- BLoss of RPM
- CEngine roughness.
44If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with?
- AThe mixture set too rich.
- BHigher than normal oil pressure.
- CToo much power and with the mixture set too lean.
45Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
- AUsing fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating.
- BUsing fuel that has a higher than specified fuel rating.
- COperating with higher than normal oil pressure.
46Excessively high engine temperatures will?
- ACause a loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
- BCause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinders cooling fins.
- CNot appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
47An abnormally high engine temperature indication may be caused by?
- AThe oil level being too low.
- BOperating with a too high viscosity oil.
- COperating with an excessively rich mixture.
48What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
- AEnrich the fuel mixture.
- BIncrease the RPM.
- CReduce the airspeed.
49Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to?
- ADecrease engine performance.
- BIncrease engine performance.
- CHave no effect on engine performance.
50What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
- AThe next higher octane aviation gas.
- BThe next lower octane aviation gas.
- CUnleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
51During the run up at a high elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action.
- ATaxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
- BCheck the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
- CReduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
52To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be?
- ALess than the battery voltage.
- BEqual to the battery voltage.
- CHigher than the battery voltage.
53Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
- ATemperature between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F and high humidity.
- BAn temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
- CTemperature between 32 degrees F and 50 degrees F and low humidity.
54To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tanks sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the?
- ALowest point in the fuel system.
- BFuel strainer drain.
- CFuel strainer drain and fuel tank sumps.
55One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for?
- AUniform heat distribution.
- BImproved engine performance.
- CBalanced cylinder head pressure.
56Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot?
- ABe in the cockpit and call out all commands.
- BBe at the controls in the cockpit.
- CCall "contact" before touching the propeller.
57A positive indication on an ammeter?
- AIndicates the aircraft's battery will soon lose its charge.
- BMeans more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced.
- CShows the rate of charge on the battery.
58Filing the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will?
- APrevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
- BForce any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
- CPrevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
59What is the advantage of a constant speed propeller?
- AProvides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
- BPermits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
- CPermits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
60With winds reported out of the north at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?
- ARunway 29
- BRunway 6
- CRunway 32
61What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220 Degrees at 30 knots?
- A23 knots.
- B19 knots.
- C30 knots.
62With winds reported as 180 degrees at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?
- ARunway 24
- BRunway 10
- CRunway 14
63The tower is reporting wind as 220 degrees at 30 knots. What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18?
- A30 knots.
- B23 knots.
- C19 knots.
64Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45 degree crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots?
- A35 knots.
- B25 knots.
- C29 knots.
65While flying a rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90 degrees?
- ACorners 1 and 4.
- BCorners 1 and 2.
- CCorners 2 and 4.
66When flying a rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank?
- ACorner 1.
- BCorner 3.
- CCorners 2 and 3.
67While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not complete before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn?
- A4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.
- B4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.
- C1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn.
68Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should?
- AVisually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
- BCheck altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
- CAnnounce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
69Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
- AFlight over a densely populated area.
- BFlight within D airspace.
- CFlight under instrument flight rules.
70FAA advisory circulars(some free, others at a cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by?
- ASubscribing to the Federal Register.
- BDistribution from the nearest FAA district office (FSDO).
- COrdering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
71Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
- AAn in flight radio communications failure.
- BAn in flight generator or alternator failure.
- CAn overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
72For private pilot operations, a First Class Medical Certificate issued to a 21 year old pilot on October 21 this year, will expire on midnight on?
- AOctober 31, next year.
- BOctober 31, five years later.
- COctober 21, two years later.
73A private pilot acting as a pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in his or her personal possession, or readily accessible in the aircraft, a current?
- AEndorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
- BLogbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactory accomplished.
- CMedical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
74When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested.
- AAnytime.
- BAt 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
- CDuring the first 5 minutes after the hour.
75To Determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the?
- ARegistration Certificate.
- BAirworthiness Certificate.
- CAircraft Maintenance Records.
76The aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than?
- AJuly 31, next year.
- BJuly 1, next year.
- CJuly 13, next year.
77What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as a pilot in command of any aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
- AIf a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
- BThere is no exception.
- CIf the passengers pay all the operating expenses.
78Which incident would necessitate and immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
- ALanding gear damage, due to a hard landing.
- BA forced landing due to engine failure.
- CFlight control system malfunction or failure.
79What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
- AA pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
- BCertificate showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
- CAn appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
80When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance.
- AWithin 10 days.
- BWithin 48 hours if requested by ATC.
- CImmediately.
81At what altitude shall the altimeter be et to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?
- A18,000 feet MSL.
- B24,000 feet MSL.
- C14,500 feet MSL.
82A certified private pilot may not act as a pilot in command or an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of?
- A100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider.
- B200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
- C100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow the glider.
83With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
- ANormal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
- BAirplane, rotorcraft, glider, baloon.
- Ctransport, restricted, provisional.
84When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
- AWhen the ELT can not longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.
- BWhen the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
- CAfter any activation of the ELT other than testing.
85With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
- ASingle-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea.
- BGyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
- CAirplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.
86Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate.
- AFrom the primary airport within Class D airspace.
- BBeneath the floor of Class B airspace.
- COver a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
87In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to?
- AReview traffic control light signal procedures.
- BCheck the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
- CDetermine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
88What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
- AThe pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
- BThe airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
- CThe airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
89Which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
- ABecome familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
- BReview wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
- CCheck the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
90The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are?
- AClear of clouds and 2 mile visibility.
- B500 feet ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
- C1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
91Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in the maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
- ACertified Mechanic.
- BRepair Station.
- COwner or operator.
92Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?
- AAirship.
- BGlider.
- CAircraft refueling other aircraft.
93If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated.
- ABy any private pilot.
- BFor compensation or hire.
- CWith passengers aboard.
94May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
- AYes, under VFR conditions only.
- BYes, if allowed by the AD.
- CYes, AD's are only voluntary.
95What regulations allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
- A14 CFR Part 61.113
- B14 CFR Part 43.3
- C14 CFR Part 91.403
96If an aircraft is involved in an accident with results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified.
- AWithin 48 hours.
- BImmediately.
- CWithin 7 days.
97A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding.
- A24 hours.
- B12 hours.
- C8 hours.
98Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate.
- AThe Medical Examiner.
- BThe FAA.
- CThe Pilot.
99Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?
- AMechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
- BOwner or operator.
- CRepair Station.
100In addition to valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
- AAircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
- BOperating limitations and Registration Certificate.
- CRadio Operator's permit, and repair and alterations forms.
101What action should the pilot of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course?
- AThe glider pilot should give to the right.
- BBoth pilots should give way to the right.
- CThe airplane should give way to the left.
102Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition.
- AOwner or Operator.
- BCertified Mechanic.
- CPilot in command.
103Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from?
- A1,200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
- Bthe surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
- C700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
104An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
- AThe airship.
- BThe airplane.
- CEach pilot should alter course to the right.
105How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
- ANo later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
- BRequired to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
- CNo later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
106What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
- AThe are voluntary.
- BFor informational purposes only.
- CThey are mandatory.
107Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of?
- A12,500 feet MSL.
- B14,000 feet MSL.
- C15,000 feet MSL.
108No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with?
- A.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
- B.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
- C.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
109The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
- Awithin 10 days.
- Bwhen requested.
- Cwithin 7 days.
110No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight?
- AExcept by prior arrangement with the pilot of each aircraft.
- BIn class B,C, or D airspace.
- COver a densely populated area.
111With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
- Awhen intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees.
- BWhen a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
- CWhen intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.
112When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
- AEvery 24 months.
- BAt the time of each 100 hour or annual inspection.
- CWhen 50 percent of their useful life expires.
113The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
- A5
- B10
- C7
114Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance?
- AServicing landing gear wheel bearings.
- BAlteration of main seat support brackets.
- CEngine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used.
115When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during?
- AThat flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
- BThat flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
- CThe entire flight time at those altitudes.
116Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
- AWith prior permission from the FAA local Flight Standards District Office(FSDO).
- BIf precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
- COnly in a emergency.
117What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
- AEnough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
- BEnough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
- CEnough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
118If recency of experience requirements for night flights are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is?
- A1929
- B1829
- C1859
119Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
- ASunset to Sunrise.
- BEnd of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
- C1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
120Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
- AAn in flight generator/alternator failure.
- BAn in flight fire.
- CAn in flight los of VOR receiver capability.
121The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is?
- A8 nm.
- B6 nm.
- C4 nm.
122FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
- A90
- B70
- C60
123A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is?
- AAt least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
- BAt least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
- CLess than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
124To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months?
- AAt least 3 actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
- BAt least 3 flights in a powered glider.
- CAt least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
125An ATC clearance provides?
- AAuthorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
- BAdequate separation from all traffic.
- CPriority over all traffic.
126Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include?
- AThe designation of an alternate airport.
- BA study of arrival procedures at airports of intended use.
- CAn alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
127What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
- APrivate Pilot Certification with an instrument rating.
- BCommercial Pilot Certificate.
- CPrivate Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
128The definition of night time is?
- A1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.
- Bsunset to sunrise.
- CThe time between the end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight.
129How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
- AIndefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
- BAs long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
- CAs long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
130What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace.
- AAir Traffic Control Tower.
- BAutomated Flight Service Station.
- CAir Route Traffic Control Center.
131Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened.
- ASafety belts during takeoff and landing; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
- BSafety belts during takeoff and landing; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
- CSafety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
132During the pre-flight inspection, who is responsible for determining if the aircraft is safe for flight?
- AThe certified mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
- BThe pilot in command.
- CThe owner and operator.
133Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
- AEach person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
- BPassengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
- CPilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
134When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft?
- AThat has the other to its right.
- BAt the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
- CThat is the least maneuverable.
135Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as a pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have?
- AAn endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
- BPassed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
- CReceived ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
136When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency, send a written report of the deviation to the Administration?
- AUpon request.
- BWithin 7 days.
- CWithin 10 days.
137FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
- A90
- B70
- C60
138Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
- AAuthorized mechanic only.
- BStudent or recreational pilot.
- CPrivate or Commercial pilot.
139Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
- AA full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
- BThe date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the air frame and engine logbook.
- CThe signature, certificate number, and the kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
140FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to airmen are issued under which subject number?
- A60
- B70
- C90
141Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
- AOnly if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
- BIn an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
- CUnder no condition.
142If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only.
- A60 days after the date of the move.
- B90 days after the date of the move.
- C30 days after the date of the move.
143Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administer, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any?
- AFederal, state and local law enforcement officer.
- BPerson in a position of authority.
- CAuthorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
144May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
- AYes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
- BNo, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
- CYes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damages.
145A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?
- A3312.5 hours.
- B3409.5 hours.
- C3402.5 hours.
146With regards to privileges and limitations a private pilot may?
- AAct as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
- BNot pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involved only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
- CNot be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.
147Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
- AIn the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual materials, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
- BOn the Airworthiness Certificate.
- CIn the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
148With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
- AAirplane, rotorcraft, glider.
- BLandplane, Seaplane.
- CNormal, utility, acrobatic.
149The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the?
- AFederal Aviation Administration.
- BPilot in command.
- CAircraft Manufacturer.
150With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
- ASingle engine land and sea, and multi-engine land and sea.
- BAirplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.
- CLighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.
151The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as a pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from?
- A1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
- BThe end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
- CSunset to Sunrise.
152What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
- AEnough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
- BEnough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
- CEnough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- Multiple choice quiz for Gold Seal's UAV Private Pilot Ground School for Section 3. Includes subjects:
- Autor
- Reuben Moore
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 227
- Bewertung
- Noch keine Bewertungen Bewerte dieses Quiz