Quiz
Pharmacology Quiz
Fragen in diesem Quiz (100)
1What is meant by pharmacodynamics?
- AThe effect of a drug on the body - i.e. Cellular effects
- BThe effect of the body on a drug - i.e. Administration Distribution Metabolism Excretion
2What are the four main drug action targets?
- AReceptors
- BEnzymes
- CCarrier molecules
- DIon channels
- EVesicles
- FRibosomes
3Which of the following are true?
- AAgonists activate receptors as an endogenous substrate would
- BAntagonists block the action of agonists
- CAn orthosteric drug binds at the same site as a substrate
- DAn allosteric drug binds away from the substrate site
- EDrugs cannot act as false substrates in enzymes
4Which of the following are the characteristics of a Class II nuclear receptor?
- APresent in the nucleus, form heterodimers, the ligands are lipids
- BPresent in the nucleus, form homodimers, ligands are carbohydrates
- CPresent in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are endocrine
- DPresent in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are lipids
5Which of the following describes a graded dose-response?
- AThe response of a particular system measured against agonist concentration
- BThe drug doses required to produce specified response determined in each member of a population
6Bmax is a measure of receptor saturation and is the maximum amount of drug which can bind specifically to the receptors in a membrane preparation.
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
7Potency is the amount of a drug needed to produced a given effect, it is measured using the EC50. The greater the EC50 the greater the potency.
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
8Which of the following is incorrect?
- AEfficacy is the maximum effect an agonist can produce regardless of dose
- BA full agonist has a high efficacy and AR* is likely, even while occupying a small number of receptors
- CA partial agonist has a lower efficacy and AR* is less likely despite occupying the maximum number of receptors
- DInverse agonists have a higher affinity for AR* state than for AR state, it produces an effect opposite to that of an agonist, yet binds to the same receptor binding-site.
9What is the meaning of tachyphylaxis?
- ADesensitisation of receptors with repeated administration
- BAmplification of a response means a fraction of receptors are needed to elicit a maximal response
- CThe equilibrium dissociation constant, the same for any given receptor and drug combination
- DThe process by which a drug is transported in place of an endogenous substrate or inhibit their transport
10Which of the following are true?
- AAll of them
- BA competitive antagonist can be overcome with increasing agonist concentration.
Curve: parallel shift to the right - CAn irreversible antagonist forms covalent bonds with the receptor.
Curve: parallel shift to the right and reduced maximal asymptote - DA non-competitive antagonist has signal transduction effects rather than receptor effects.
Curve: reduces slope and maximum of curve - EAntagonists have no efficacy and AR* doesn't exist
11What is the equation for dose ratio?
- A(agonist + antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50
- B(agonist - antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50
- C(agonist + antagonist EC50) * agonist EC50
- D(agonist + antagonist EC50) / antagonist EC50
12The therapeutic index (TI) is a comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect to the amount that causes toxicity.
Risk: benefit ratio = TD50 / ED50 = Toxic dose / Efficient therapeutic dose- ARichtig
- BFalsch
13Lipid soluble compounds cross cell membranes less easily and are therefore less rapidly absorbed
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
14Which of the following is referring to Ka?
- ADetermined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.
- BDetermined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.
- CDetermined by the Schild plot, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.
- DDetermined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the lower the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.
15Which of the following drug administration routes would be used for a drug that is poorly absorbed and unstable in the GI tract, it also gives the most control over the delivered dose and has a rapid onset of action.
- AParenteral route
- BVaginal route
- CTransdermal route
- DSublingual route
- EInhaled route
16Which of the following are pharmacological parameters?
- ACmax - max concentration of a compound after administration
- BTmax - the time at which Cmax is reached
- CAUC - a measure of systemic exposure (area under curve / time of curve)
- DBioavailability (F) - the extent of absorption after extravascular administration
- EVolume of distribution (Vd) - the amount of a compound in the body vs. plasma concentration
- FClearance (CL) - the volume of plasma cleared of compound per unit of time
- GKe - elimination rate constant
17The half life of a drug in the plasma is not the elimination half life of the drug from the tissues
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
18Which of the following are plasma proteins that bind drugs making them stay in systemic circulation rather than distributing into tissues or organs.
- AAlbumin (HSA) - produced by the liver, binds acidic and neutral drugs
- BAlpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and neutral drugs
- CAlbumin (HSA) - produced by the spleen, binds acidic and neutral drugs
- DAlpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and acidic drugs
19Which enzymes carry out phase II metabolism?
- AUDP - glucuronosyl transferases (UGTs)
- BCytochrome P450 family
20The half life of a drug is the time it takes for the concentration of the compound to reach 50% of its current value, what is the formula to calculate it?
- AHalf life = 0.693 / Ke
- BHalf life = 0.693 / CL
- CHalf life = 0.963 / Ka
- DHalf life = 0.936 / F
21Which of the following are correct when describing the cytochrome P450 enzyme family?
- AThey are heme co-factor containing enzymes
- BThey are individually referred to as isozymes
- CThey are always found in the ER of the cell regardless of the organ/tissue
- DThey are mainly found in the liver (hepatocytes) and intestines (enterocytes)
- EEnzyme inhibition = decreased metabolism and decreased drug exposure
- FEnzyme induction = increased gene transcription, increased metabolism and decreased drug exposure
22What is the name given to the conjugation reaction that occurs with an endogenous substrate if phase I metabolites are too lipophilic to be retained in the kidney tubular fluid?
- AGlucuronidation
- BAcidification
- CGlucomodification
- DMetabolishment
- EGlomerular Filtration
23Which of the following compounds enter phase II metabolism directly?
- AThose containing -OH
- BThose containing -NH2
- CThose containing -COOH
- DThose containing -SS
- EThose containing -C2H6
24Which of the following systems involves NA as well as ACh?
- ASympathetic nervous system: short preganglionic nerves and long postganglionic nerves
- BParasympathetic nervous system: long preganglionic nerves and short postganglionic nerves
- CSomatic nervous system: neuromuscular junction
25Which of the following are G protein linked (metabotropic) receptors?
- Amuscarinic receptors (mACh) - M1,2,3 found in postganglionic parasympathetic synapses
- Bnicotinic receptors (nACh) - Neuronal type found in the brain and autonomic ganglia
- Cnicotinic receptors (nACh) - Muscle type found in the neuromuscular junction
26Which of the following causes nervous system confusion and are therefore not clinically useful?
- ANeuronal type nicotinic agonists and antagonists
- BMuscle type nicotinic agonists and antagonists
27Which of the following cause a depolarising block and can therefore be used in surgery to cause temporary paralysis?
- ANicotinic agonists (muscle type)
- BNicotinic antagonists (muscle type)
- CNicotinic agonists (neuronal type)
- DNicotinic antagonists (neuronal type)
28The release of which neurotransmitter is blocked by botulinium toxin causing motor and parasympathetic paralysis?
- AAcetylcholine
- BSerotonin
- CBotulin
- DNoradrenaline
- EAdrenaline
- FHistamine
- GDopamine
29ACh metabolism by acetylcholineesterase is inhibited by what?
- ANeostigmine
- BBotulinium toxin
- CCholine
- DAcetyl hydroxylase
- ELipolysis
- FSalbutamol
30What are the enzymes involved in the conversion of Tyrosine to Noradrenaline?
- ATyrosine Hydroxylase
- BDOPA decarboxylase
- CDA -B-hydroxylase
- DTyrosine decarboxylase
- EDA decarboxylase
- FL-DOPA Hydrogenase
31Which of the following are true about noradrenergic receptors?
- AThey exist as A1,2 and B1,2,3
- BThey exist as A1,2,3 and B1,2
- CThey are G protein coupled
- DThey are tyrosine kinase receptors
- EThey are found in the effector tissues of the sympathetic system
- FThey are found in the effector tissues of the parasympathetic system
32Which of the following is a negative feedback presynaptic receptor?
- AA1 noradrenergic receptor
- BA2 noradrenergic receptor
- CB1 noradrenergic receptor
- DB2 noradrenergic receptor
- EB3 noradrenergic receptor
33Which drug given subcut can prolong and isolate local anaesthesia and by what mechanism?
- AAdrenaline by A1 mediated vasoconstriction
- BAdrenaline by B1 mediated vasoconstriction
- CNoradrenaline by A1 mediated vasodilation
- DSalbutamol bt A2 mediated vasoconstriction
- EBotulinium toxin by A1 mediated vasodilation
34Which of the following are noradrenergic agonists?
- AClonidine - A2
- BDobutamine - B1
- CPrazosin - A1
- DSalbutamol - B2
- EAtenolol - B1
- FTimolol - B2
35What is the pathway of the false substrate that decreases overall noradrenergic neurotransmission?
- AmeDOPA > meDA > meNA
- BmeDOPA > meNA > meDA
- CL-DOPA > L-DA > L-NA
- DDA > DOPAC > HVA
- ETyrosine > DOPA > DA > NA
36What is the name of the drug that disrupts storage of NA in synaptic vesicles?
- AReserpine
- BDobutamine
- CAtenolol
- DMAOI
- ECOMT
- FNA reuptake inhibitors
- GNeostigmine
37Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of airway smooth muscle?
- AParasympathetic bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion
- BCirculating adrenaline causing bronchodilation
- CNonadrenergic Noncholinergic transmitters e.g. inhibitory NO or excitatory substance P or neurokinin A
- DSensory receptors - chemical and physical stimuli
- ECirculating dopamine causing broncoconstriction
38Which of the following is the delayed phase of asthma?
- ABronchoconstriction
- BInflammation/Damage in response to mediators
39Glucocorticoids suppress the immune system and therefore are good at treating the delayed phase of asthma. Which of the following do they decrease the production of?
- ALTC4, LTD4 - spasmogens
- BLTB4 - chemotaxins
- CPGE2, PGI2 vasodilators, cytokines
- DLTC4 - chemotaxins
- ELTB4, LTC4, - spasmogens
- FPGE5, PGL2, chemotaxins
40Where is the cough centre located?
- AHypothalamus
- BOesophagus
- CAdrenal medulla
- DCerebral cortex
41Which of the following are true of local anaesthetics?
- A1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
5. Most are weak bases
6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond - B1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
5. Most are weak bases
6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds - C1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
2. Interact with B subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
5. Most are weak acids
6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond - D1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated K+ channels
2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
3. Binds in the unionised (hydrophobic) form
4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
5. Most are weak bases
6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds
- A1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
42Antidysrhythmic drugs treat disturbances of cardiac rhythm and consist of...
- AClass I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels
- BClass I blocking calcium channels and Class II blocking sodium channels
- CClass I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking potassium channels
- DClass I blocking potassium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels
43What do anticonvulsant drugs target?
- AVoltage gated sodium channels
- BLigand gated sodium channels
- CVoltage gated potassium channels
- DG protein receptors
- ETyrosine kinase receptors
44Which condition is categorised by the degeneration of DAergic neurones of the nigrostriatal tract and loss of DA transmission in striatum via D2 receptors?
- AParkinson's disease
- BDepression
- CParalysis
- DPsychosis
- EHyperthyroidism
- FCushing's syndrome
45Which of the following enzymes are found in the conversion of tyrosine to dopamine?
- ATyrosine hydroxylase
- BDOPA decarboxylase
- CDA B-hydroxylase
- DTyrosine decarboxylase
- EDOPA hydroxylase
- FCarbonic Anhydrase
46The metabolism of DA sees it converted to DOPAC and then HVA, catalysed by which enzymes?
- AMonoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase
- B Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase, then Monoamine oxidase
- CMonoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Decarboxylase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase
47Which of the following are true of DA receptors?
- AThey are G protein linked
- BThey are ligand gated ion channels
- CD2-like receptors are inhibitory
D1-like receptors are excitatory - DD1-like receptors are inhibitory
D2-like receptors are excitatory - EInhibitory receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels
- FExcitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase
- GInhibitory receptors inhibit DOPA decarboxylase
- HExcitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels
48In the treatment of Parkinson's disease, giving L-DOPA and a decarboxylase inhibitor (carbidopa) would have what effect?
- AIncrease dopamine
- BDecrease dopamine
- CIncrease DOPA decarboxylase
- DIncrease reuptake by DAT
- EIncrease transport of DA into vesicles by VMAT
49What is the name and action of a MAO inhibitor?
- ASelegiline - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles
- BSelegiline - inhibits MAO-B, decreasing the DA content of vesicles
- CCarbidopa - inhibits MAO-A, increasing the DA content of vesicles
- DPrazosin - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles
50Which of the following neural pathways are thought to be involved in the development of depression?
- ALocus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the mid brain and the hypothalamus, and the hippocampus and cortex
- BDorsal and median raphe nuclei contain cell bodies with projections to the hypothalamus, hippocampus and cortex
- CDorsal and median locus coeruleus contain cell bodies with projections to the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and adrenal medulla
- DLocus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the andrenal medulla, cortex, and dorsal ventricular brain centre
51Which of the following is the correct pathway for 5-HT synthesis?
- ATryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT
- BTryrosine (Tyrosine hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT
- CTryptophan (Tryptophan decarboxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP hydroxylase) > 5-HT
- DTryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTS (5-HTS decarboxlase) > 5-HT
- ETryptophan (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HTP (5-HT hydroxylase) > 5-HT
52What is the end product in the metabolism of 5-HT?
- A5-HIAA
- B5-HTP
- CTryptophan
- DDA
- ENA
- F5-HITP
53What is the last enzyme involved in NA metabolism and what is the final product?
- ACatechol-O-methyl transferase producing MHPG
- BCatechol-O-methyl transferase producing DOPEG
- CMonoamine Oxidase producing MHPG
- DAldehyde dehydrogenase producing 5-HIAA
- EMonoamine Oxidase producing DOPAC
- FCatechol-O-methyl transferase producing HVA
54Which of the following is a ligand gated ion channel?
- A5-HT-3
- B5-HT-1(A-F)
- C5-HT-2(A-C)
55Which of the following autoreceptors can be found on the cell body?
- ANA A2 and 5-HT-1B
- BNA A2 and 5-HT-1A
- CNA A1 and 5-HT-1B
- D5-HT-1A and 5-HT-1B
56Which of the following is the action of oestrogen?
- ASensitises LH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium, inhibits release of FSH
- BRenders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, LH and GRH
- CInhibits GRH, sensitises FSH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium
- DRenders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, sensitises LH releasing cells
57Blocking of which hormones induces a pharmacological menopause?
- AFSH
- BLH
- CGRH
- DProgesterone
- EOestrogen
- Fhuman chorionic gonadotropin
58What is the action of prolactin?
- AReleased from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing GRH release
- BReleased from hypothalamus, acts on anterior pituitary preventing GRH release
- CReleased from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing FSH release
- DReleased from hypothalamic nuclei, acts on mammary tissue preventing LH release
59Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation?
- AWarmth
- BPain
- COedema (swelling)
- DErythema (redness)
- EOedema (redness)
- FErythema (swelling)
- GInc dopamine
- HDec immune response
60Which of the following are vasoactive mediators that will increase vascular permeability leading to oedema?
- Ahistamine
- B5HT
- CLeukotrienes
- DProstaglandins
- EPlatelet activating factor (PAF)
- FC5a
- GLTB4
- HCytokines
61What do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) do?
- Ainhibit cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids
- Binhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids
- Cinhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of eicosanoids
- Dstimulate cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids
- Estimulate cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids
62Which of the following are actions of steroidal anti-inflammatories?
- ADec synthesis of prostanoids through inhibition of phospholipase 2
- BDec prostaglandin-H-synthase transcription
- CDec cytokines
- DInhibit cyclooxygenase activity
- ESuppression of the immune system
63Which of the following are true of histamine?
- ASynthesised from the amino acid Histidine
- BSynthesised from the amino acid tyrosine
- CStored in granules in mast cells and basophils
- DStored in vesicles in macrophages
- EReleased by the complement system and IgEs
- FReleased by IgMs
- GG protein coupled receptors: H1-4
- HTyrosine Kinase receptors: H1-2
64What is the meaning of selective toxicity?
- AAgents that destroy parasites while being relatively non-toxic to the host
- BAgents that destroy the majority of pathogens without disturbing host cells
- CAgents that selectively destroy particular parasites
- DAgents that can target cells of specific organs in order to kill tumour cells
65Which of the following is not a major class of antibiotics?
- APenicillins
- BSulphonamides
- CFluoroquinolones
- DMacrolides
- ETetracyclines
- FQuinolides
66Metastasis is the development of secondary malignant growths at a distance from a primary site of cancer
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
67Which of the following is false?
- APlatinum based drugs cross link DNA with other bases and proteins damaging it
- BCarboplatin has the same mechanism as cisplatin with fewer side effects
- CDaunorubicin is an antibiotic used to treat cancer, blocking the enzyme that normally untangles strands of DNA
- DThe Philadelphia translocation results in the genes BCR and abl being joined, switching off cell division by activating other proteins
- EImatinib inhibits the BCR-abl protein kinase
68The Philadelphia translocation occurs on which chromosomes and in which disease?
- A9 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
- B9 and 23, Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
- C9 and 22, Parkinsons
- D8 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
69Which of the following species of malaria has the quickest onset and is the most severe?
- AP. falciparum
- BP. malarie
- CP. Vivax
- DP. Ovale
- EP. Sporozoa
70Which stage of the life cycle are plasmodiums at when they re-enter the liver and lay dormant?
- ASporozoites
- BGametocytes
- CMeterozoites
- DTrophozoites
71Drug therapy for malaria takes the forms of radical cure, clinical cure and prophylaxis. Which of the following is not a category of anti-malarial drugs?
- A4-aminoquinolines
- BQuinine-methanols
- C8-aminoquinolines
- DAntifolates
- EHydroxynapthoquinone
- FMacrolides
72What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose longer than one hour after ingestion?
- AActivated charcoal
- BN-acetylcysteine (NAC)
- CGlutathione infusion
- DSulphate bypass
- EGlucuronidation
- FNAPQI
73A secondary adverse effect of a drug is indirectly caused, secondary to the drug
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
74Who is least at risk of adverse drug reactions?
- AAdults
- BNeonates
- CChildren
- DElderly
- EPeople on medication
- FFemales
75Which of the following are correct?
- AType A drug reaction: Augmented pharmacological effect
- BType B drug reaction: Basic - predictable on basis of pharmacology of the drug
- CType C drug reaction: Chronic effects - occur after prolonged treatment
- DType D drug reaction: Delayed, effects occur remote from treatment (or in the child of the treated)
- EType E drug reaction: Expected - common side effects of a drug
76Addiction imbalances involve which two areas of the brain?
- AAmygdala (Impulsive)
- BPefrontal cortex (Reflective)
- CPrefrontal cortex (Impulsive)
- DAmygdala (Reflective)
- EHypothalamus (Impulsive)
- FAnterior pituitary (Reflective)
- GHypothalamus (Reflective)
77Which of the following are correct when measuring addiction?
- AThere are a total of 11 addictive traits on the scale
- BThere are a total of 9 addictive traits on the scale
- CMild = 2/3 symptoms
- DMild = 1-4 symptoms
- EModerate = 4/5 symptoms
- FModerate = 5/6 symptoms
- GSevere = 6+ symptoms
- HSevere = 7+ symptoms
78ADH is released from the posterior pituitary in response to low blood volume/pressure or high osmolarity and acts upon the kidney to cause water reabsorption, increasing blood volume
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
79Which form of diabetes is categorised by copius hypotonic urine resulting from decreased ADH secretion?
- ADiabetes Mellitus
- BDiabetes Insipidus
80Which parts of the brain does cortisol have negative feedback on and what effect does this have on the hormones they produce?
- AHypothalamic nuclei, decreasing CRH
Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH - BHypothalamic nuclei, decreasing ACTH
Anterior pituitary, decreasing CRH - CAdrenal cortex, decreasing CRH
Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH - DAnterior Pituitary, decreasing CRH
Adrenal Cortex, decreasing ACTH
- AHypothalamic nuclei, decreasing CRH
81Which of the following are under tropic control?
- AADH
- BACTH
- CCortisol
- DCRH
- EInsulin
82Which of the following are actions of cortisol?
- AInc. and maintains normal glucose levels in blood
- BDec. protein synthesis
- CInc. gluconeogenesis
- DDec. glucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue
- EInc. protein synthesis and dec. lipolysis
- FInc. glucogenolysis
- GDec. and maintain glucose levels in the blood
83Which of the following inhibits cortisol synthesis by blocking 11B-hydroxylating enzyme?
- AMetyrapone
- BAlbumin
- CCreatinine
- DNeostigmine
- EReserpine
- FCOMT
- GGlucocorticoids
84What is the definition of tropic control?
- AHormone released in response to stimulation from another hormone
- BHormone released directly in response to neural stimulation
- CHormone directly influenced by circulating blood levels of substrate that the hormone itself controls
85What do sulphonylureas do?
- AIncrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)
- BIncrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing hyperpolarisation)
- CDecrease insulin secretion from A cells by opening K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)
- DDecrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking Na-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)
- EDecrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)
86If there is fertilisation of the egg, what hormone does the ovum secrete?
- AHuman chorionic gonadotrophin
- BProgesterone
- COestrogen
- DFSH
- ELH
- FGRH
- GHuman chorionic gonadotrophin and oestrogen
87Which of the following drugs are used to aid fertility?
- AGRH agonists
- BGRH antagonists
- CMefipristone
- DOestrogen and progesterone pill
- EFSH agonists
88Which of the following innate responses to inflammation occurs 8hrs-6days after injury?
- ASystemic effects
- BMicrovascular events
- CMediator release
- DHealing
- EInflammatory cell accumulation
89What is the purpose of chemotactic factors e.g. C5a, LTB4, Cytokines?
- ARecruitment of inflammatory cells leading to inflammation
- BIncreased vascular permeability
- CDilation of arterioles increasing blood flow to site
- DConstriction of venules decreasing blood flow away from site
- EProduction of oedema
90Monocytes arrive before leucocytes and transform into macrophages, producing mediators, removing microorganisms/debris and secreting lipocortin
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
91What do vascular endothelial cells secrete that causes the smooth muscle in the area of inflammation to relax?
- ANO
- BNoradrenaline
- CAcetylcholine
- DLeukotrienes
- EEicosanoids
- FPAF
92NSAIDS preferentially target PGHS1
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
93What is a short term side effect of glucocorticoid therapy?
- ACushing's syndrome
- BHyperglycemia
- CHypoglycemia
- DHypertension
94Gastric acid secretion is coupled with which histamine receptor?
- AH1
- BH2
- CH3
- DH4
95Which of the following is an action that both H3 and H4 receptors share?
- ADecrease intracellular cAMP
- BIncrease intracellular cAMP
- CActivate proton pump
- DAdenyl cyclase coupled
- EPhospholipase C coupled
96Which of the following are associated with Penicillin's?
- AExamples include: Ampicillin, Amoxycillin (developed to have an improved duration)
- BExamples include: Ciprofloxacin and Streptogramins
- CEarly forms were effective against gram positives and only a few gram negatives
- DEarly forms were effective against gram negatives and gram positives
- EExpanded spectrum versions are effective against pseudomonads
- FReversed spectrum versions have greater activity on gram positives
- GCan exist in B-lactamase resistant forms (Fludoxacillin)
- HExcreted by the kidney in levels that can be reduced by probenecid
- IExcreted in the bile in levels that can be increased by N-acetylglucosamine
- JInhibit transpeptidases that establish cross links in peptidoglycan from N-acetylmuramic acid causing bacteria to swell and rupture (bacteriocidal)
97Which of the following are true of sulphonamides?
- ASelectively targets metabolic pathways: Folate biosynthesis
- BTargets prokaryotic ribosomes and protein synthesis
- CBacteriocidal
- DThe normal substrate the drugs block is PABA
- ETheir use is declining outside dentistry
- FOral administration is given as protected tablets to prevent them being inactivated by gastric juice
98Which of the following are Tetracyclines?
- ABacteriostatic
- BHalf life of 30-80 minutes
- CHalf life of 6-18 hours
- DUse is declining outside of dentistry
- EExcreted in the kidney and the bile
- FInterrupts the termination phase of protein synthesis in bacterial ribosomes
- GDon't usually enter the CSF (unless meninges inflammation)
99Which of the following is true of fluoroquinolones?
- AThey are based on naladixic acid
- BTarget DNA replication via type II topoisomerases
- CExamples include ciprofloxacin
- DTarget protein synthesis
- EInhibitor of CYP1A2
- FInhibits DNA gyrase in gram positives and DNA topoisomerase IV in gram negatives
- GExamples include streptogramins and lincosamides
100Which of the following is true of macrolides?
- AStreptogramins such as erythromycin are effective for gram positives and spirochaetes but not gram negatives
- BLincosamides such as clindamycin are effective for gram positive cocci and anaerobes
- CTarget 30S ribosomal subunit
- DBlock translocation of newly forming peptide by binding to site near RNA exit tunnel causing peptidyl-transferase RNA drop off
- EAdministered IV to bypass metabolism in the stomach
- FAdministered orally in protected tablets
- GExcreted in the kidneys
- HCrosses the placenta but not the blood brain barrier
- IDo not enter the CSF
- JMetabolised by demethylation (CYP3A4)
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- Degree Pharmacology Quiz am Pharmacology Quiz, erstellt von Phil Oklam am 04/05/2015.
- Autor
- Phil Oklam
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 102
- Schlagwörter
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