Quiz
Volume 2
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Fragen in diesem Quiz (100)
1(201) What happens when radio waves strike an object?
- AAll of the energy is reflected.
- BNone of the energy is reflected.
- CSome of the energy is reflected.
- DAll of the energy is absorbed by the object.
2(201) Approximately how long does it take for radio frequency energy to travel 1 nautical mile to a target and return to the radar?
- A3.09 μs.
- B6.18 μs.
- C9.27 μs.
- D12.36 μs.
3(202) What radar subassembly allows the radar system to transmit and receive from the same antenna?
- ASynchronizer
- BTransmitter
- CModulator
- DDuplexer
4(203) Which major component of a radar system sends and receives radio frequency signals from the atmosphere?
- AAntenna.
- BPedestal.
- CReceiver.
- DTransmitter.
5(204) Which feedhorn is used only for receiving?
- APassive.
- BLinear.
- CActive.
- DCircular.
6(204) One use for the beam-lobing switch of the multi-feedhorn system is to
- Araise the effective beam coverage by 3 degrees.
- Bdummy load the lower 3 degrees of the transmitted beam.
- Croute the received signal from the number one feedhorn to a dummy load.
- Dvary low-level coverage by routing more radio frequency through one feedhorn.
7(205) We sometimes use the term stacked-beam radar to refer to contiguous
- Abeams stacked in elevation.
- Bfeedhorns stacked in elevation.
- Creshaped radio frequency energy striking the reflector.
- Dredirected RF energy striking the reflector.
8(206) What do we call the fictitious surface on or near an antenna?
- AMain lobe.
- BMinor lobe.
- CAntenna aperture.
- DInterfering signals.
9(206) The shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern depend on the radar’s
- Again.
- Blocation.
- Cpurpose.
- Dpower.
10(206) What precision scan radar system uses continuous rotation of a pencil beam (narrow angle in both dimensions) around the aircraft and uses the phase of the return signal modulation to maintain track in both azimuth and elevation?
- ARaster.
- BConical.
- CCircular.
- DMonopulse.
11(206) What scan system uses a thin beam to cover a rectangular area by sweeping the area horizontally with the angle of elevation incrementally stepped up or down with each horizontal sweep of the sector?
- ARaster.
- BConical.
- CCircular.
- DMonopulse.
12(206) Which scan radar is also used in the acquisition phase by some airborne intercept radars?
- ARaster.
- BConical.
- CCircular.
- DMonopulse.
13(207) What is the name of radio frequency waves bent upwards, instead of toward, the earth?
- ASubrefraction.
- BSupperrefraction.
- CDucting or trapping.
- DAnomalous propagation.
14(207) What causes delayed, but separate, pulses?
- ASimultaneous reception of pulse-type information.
- BNear-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information.
- CElectromagnetic (EM) waves reach the receiving antenna by direct paths.
- DEM waves reach the receiving antenna by indirect paths.
15(207) Attempts to reduce multipath effects on radar tracking accuracy include the use of
- Aoff-axis tracking.
- Bfrequency agility.
- Cmonopulse radar.
- Doff-boresight tracking.
16(208) What method of modulation does an A-scan indicator use to display video?
- AZ-axis.
- BIntensity.
- CDeflection.
- DAmplitude.
17(208) What type of radar system uses a B-scan indicator?
- ALong-range surveillance.
- BAirport surveillance.
- CPrecision approach.
- DWeather.
18(208) What target information is provided by a plan-position indicator?
- AAzimuth only.
- BElevation only.
- CRange and azimuth.
- DElevation and range.
19(208) In a Raster scan indicator, how many vertical scan periods does it take to produce one complete picture?
- A1.
- B2.
- C3.
- D4.
20(209) Which indicator component produces signals that determine the overall operation of what the indicator will do?
- AData processing circuits.
- BDeflection circuits
- CCathode-ray tube.
- DVideo circuits.
21(209) Which indicator component’s main purpose is to control the intensity of the cathode-ray tube (CRT) electron beam?
- ADeflection circuits.
- BCathode-ray tube.
- CVideo circuits.
- DPower supply.
22(209) In a typical indicator system, where is digital display data from the data processing circuits converted into analog drive signals?
- ADeflection circuits.
- BCathode-ray tube.
- CVideo circuits
- DPower supply.
23(210) Refer to figure 2–9. What is the leading edge-to-leading edge spacing between P1 and P3 of Mode 3?
- A0.45 μsec.
- B3 μsec.
- C5 μsec.
- D8 μsec.
24(211) An X pulse is present in an selective identification feature (SIF) code train when
- Aa Mode 4 reply is being received.
- Bthe aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile.
- Cthe aircraft is declaring a military emergency.
- Dit is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position.
25(211) Which selective identification feature special response explains a 7500 reply?
- ACommunication failure.
- BMilitary emergency.
- CEngine failure.
- DHijacking.
26(212) What possible input voltage(s) may be supplied to the AN/UPM–155 Radar Test Set for operation?
- A115 Vac only.
- B120 Vac.
- C230 Vac only.
- D115 Vac or 230 Vac.
27(213) What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?
- AAmplitude of the modulating signal.
- BFrequency of the modulating signal.
- CAmplitude of the carrier signal.
- DFrequency of the carrier signal.
28(214) In frequency modulation, the amount of oscillator frequency change is
- Ainversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
- Bdirectly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
- Cinversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.
- Ddirectly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.
29(215) In phase modulation, the carrier’s
- Aphase shifts at the rate of the modulating signal.
- Bphase shifts with the phase of the modulating signal.
- Camplitude shifts at the rate of the modulating signal.
- Damplitude shifts with the phase of the modulating signal.
30(216) What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?
- ADiscrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.
- BA binary code number is assigned to the sample.
- CThe quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.
- DThe analog signal is band-limited
31(217) How does synchronous transmission reduce the overhead costs of data transmission?
- ACommunicates in parallel format.
- BBlocks many characters together for transmission.
- CEliminates the control bits, so more message data can be sent.
- DUses low cost equipment to support synchronous transmission.
32(218) Using the longitudinal redundancy check method of error correction, what does the receiver
compare with the transmitter to ensure the transmission of data is accurate?- AThe checksum.
- BBlock check character.
- CThe ASCII character set.
- DThe sum of transmitted bits.
33(218) When used together, what two error detection methods are 98 percent effective in detecting
errors?- AChecksum and cyclic redundancy check.
- BLongitudinal redundancy check and checksum.
- CCyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check.
- DVertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check.
34(218) What error detection method is used for checking a data block greater than 512 and is about
99 percent effective in most applications?- AChecksum.
- BCyclic redundancy.
- CVertical redundancy.
- DLongitudinal redundancy.
35(219) What is the most common error correction technique in electronic transmissions or circuits?
- AAutomatic retransmit on request.
- BA combination of a, c, and d
- CBlock check character matrix.
- DForward error control.
36(219) When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error
correction take place?- AReceiving end.
- BIn the oscillator.
- CTransmitting end.
- DIn the primary buffers.
37(220) Which statement describes an advantage of using fiber optic cable?
- AThe easy tap-ability of fiber optic cables reduces security risks.
- BFiber optic cable has a higher attenuation than coaxial cable.
- CElectromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables.
- DNuclear radiation does not affect fiber optic cable.
38(221) What component of a fiber optic cable is the optical transmission path?
- ACore.
- BJacket.
- CBuffer
- DCladding.
39(221) What component of a fiber optic cable provides the reflective surface that allows light to
propagate?- ACore.
- BBuffer.
- CJacket.
- DCladding.
40(221) What type of buffer allows the fiber optic cable to be twisted or pulled with little stress on
the fiber?- ARibbon.
- BTight tube
- CComposite
- DLoose tube.
41(222) When considering light wave propagation, what is the name of the angle between the
normal in the first material and the ray that is bounced back in the first material?- AAngle of refraction.
- BAngle of incidence.
- CAngle of reflection.
- DCritical angle.
42(222) What is the principle on which fiber optics work?
- ATotal internal reflection.
- BRefraction of light.
- CLight wavelengths.
- DRays of incidence.
43(223) What logarithmic expression do we use to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic
cables?- AdB/nm
- BdB/km.
- CdB/cm.
- DdB/m.
44(223) What occurs because of imperfections in an optical fiber’s basic structure?
- AAbsorption.
- BScattering.
- CReflection.
- DDispersion.
45(224) What is the most useful way to classify fiber optic cable?
- AFiber material and number of fibers
- BBuffer type and application method.
- CNumerical aperture and cable elements.
- DCore’s refractive index profile and number of modes.
46(224) What type of fiber is the least efficient, with the highest dispersion and has a core diameter
range of 30μm to over 800μm?- ASingle-mode step-index.
- BSingle-mode graded-index.
- CMultimode step-index.
- DMultimode graded-index.
47(224) What type of fiber has a core diameter of 50–125 micrometers (um) and consists of numerous concentric layers of glass, something like the annular rings of a tree configured to reduce dispersion?
- ASingle-mode step-index.
- BSingle-mode graded-index.
- CMultimode step-index.
- DMultimode graded-index.
48(225) Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement
functions?- ACircuit jacks.
- BRotary switch.
- CRange push button.
- DTouch-hold button.
49(225) Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and
automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?- ARotary switch.
- BRange push button
- CPower-up self-test.
- DTouch-hold push button.
50(226) When you make a resistance measurement, how do you electrically isolate a resistor from
the circuit?- ARemove power from the circuit.
- BShort both sides of the resistor.
- CInsulate both sides of the resistor.
- DDesolder one side of the resistor.
51(226) Which Fluke 8025A multimeter function displays “OL” (open) with the leads connected in
one direction while reversing them produces a continuous audible tone?- ADiode test.
- BPower-up self-test.
- CCurrent measurement.
- DResistance measurement.
52(227) What is caused by low-insulation resistance between conductors?
- AHigh-attenuation, crosstalk, and noise.
- BFresnal reflection, dispersion, and scattering.
- CHigh-impedance, capacitance, and rectification.
- DLow-attenuation, electromagnetic immunity, and absorption.
53(227) Insulation resistance increases as the
- Alength of insulation increases.
- Barea of the conductor increases.
- Cthickness of the insulating material increases.
- Dthickness and length of insulating material increases.
54(228) When using the AN/PSM–2 megger, you apply the correct regulated output voltage by
turning the hand-crank- Auntil an arc is present.
- Buntil the needle set has stopped moving.
- Cand monitoring the megger’s output with another meter.
- Dat a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow.
55(228) How many volt megohmmeter do you use on paper insulated conductor cable?
- A500.
- B1000.
- C1500.
- D2500.
56(228) You must discharge conductors after insulation resistance measurements to
- Aprevent shock.
- Bprotect the equipment.
- Cprepare conductors for another test.
- Dprevent igniting explosive mixture of gas.
57(229) What is the earth ground standard for communications facilities?
- A10 ohms or less.
- B10 ohms or more.
- C25 ohms or less.
- D25 ohms or more.
58(230) How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?
- AVoltage = intensity, time = vertical axis, and depth = horizontal axis.
- BVoltage = intensity, time = horizontal axis, and depth = vertical axis.
- CVoltage = horizontal axis, time = vertical axis, and depth = intensity.
- DVoltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity.
59(230) Which input coupling switch position allows you to view both alternating current (AC) and
direct current (DC) components of the input signal?- AGND (ground position).
- BAC.
- CDC.
- DLine.
60(231) Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire?
- ACurrent probe.
- BPassive 1:1 probe.
- CPassive divider, 1:10 probe.
- DActive field effect transistor probe.
61(231) Which probe lets you use the oscilloscope to measure higher voltage levels, raises the input
impedance, and attenuates noise?- ACurrent probe.
- BPassive 1:1 probe.
- CActive field effect transistor probe.
- DPassive divider, 10:1 probe.
62(231) Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?
- ACurrent probe.
- BPassive 1:1 probe.
- CPassive divider, 10:1 probe.
- DActive field effect transistor probe.
63(232) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
- Asequential records.
- Bwaveform points.
- Crecord lengths.
- Drecord points.
64(232) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous
manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and
math computations?- AMicroprocessors.
- BAcquisition.
- CMemory.
- DInput.
65(232) What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or
seldom-occurring signals?- ASequential.
- BRepetitive.
- CReal-time.
- DRandom.
66(232) What type of interpolation does a digital storage oscilloscope use to measure pulse waves?
- ASine.
- BLinear.
- CNormal.
- DSequential.
67(233) What is the primary use of a signal generator?
- ATest digital multiplexors
- BTrace system signal-flow.
- CTroubleshoot a shorted circuit.
- DAlign frequency sensitive or tuned circuits.
68(233) What is the frequency range of an audio signal generator?
- A10 Hz to 10 kHz.
- B20 Hz to 20 kHz.
- C10 kHz to 10GHz.
- D20 kHz to 35 MHz.
69(234) Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?
- AVerifying transmitter frequencies.
- BTroubleshooting receivers.
- CChecking antenna systems.
- DAligning galvanometers.
70(234) How is a radio frequency generator used?
- Amonitor odd harmonics.
- Balign telemetry receivers.
- Cmodulate subcarrier oscillators.
- Dcheck galvanometer frequency response.
71(235) The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels
(dB)?- A1 dB
- B3 dB
- C6 dB
- D10 dB
72(235) What does a power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicate?
- ARatio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard.
- BRatio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard.
- CActual power level expressed in milliwatts.
- DActual power level expressed in megawatts.
73(235) If someone says, “we doubled our transmitter power;” how much is the gain in dB?
- A3 dB.
- B6 dB.
- C9 dB.
- D12 dB.
74(236) The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter system are determined by the
- Adigital display.
- Bselected sensor.
- Cpower meter.
- Dinterface.
75(237) Which measurement is not made with a spectrum analyzer?
- AFrequency stability.
- BPeak-peak voltage
- CAmplitude modulation.
- DSubcarrier oscillator outputs.
76(237) Which measurement do you make with a spectrum analyzer?
- ASubcarrier oscillator outputs
- BTransducer output voltage.
- CTime between two events.
- DPulse width.
77(238) Which electronic counter measurement represents the average bit-to-bit time of an input
signal?- APeriod.
- BScaling.
- CFrequency.
- DTime interval.
78(238) Which electronic counter measurement counts the number of bits in a pulse train?
- APeriod.
- BScaling.
- CTotalize.
- DTime interval.
79(238) Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
- AFrequency, time, microwave, and reciprocal.
- BFrequency, universal, microwave, and reciprocal.
- CFrequency, universal, period, and reciprocal.
- DScaling, universal, microwave, and reciprocal.
80(239) A dummy load is constructed so that radio frequency (RF) power is
- Areflected.
- Babsorbed
- Catteunuated to a safe level.
- Dmatched to the antenna’s gain.
81(239) What piece of test equipment provides the ideal method for isolating waveguide arcing?
- AMegger.
- BMultimeter.
- COscilloscope.
- DDummy load.
82(240) When marking cables, what is the distance between the “TO” and “FROM” markers?
- A2 inches.
- B6 inches.
- C10 inches.
- D12 inches.
83(240) In telecommunications cable, the “tip” or “primary” color group order is
- Ablue, orange, green, brown, and slate.
- Bblue, green, yellow, red, and orange
- Cwhite, red, black, yellow, and violet.
- Dwhite, blue, green, yellow, and violet.
84(240) What is the “ring” or “secondary” color code for telecommunications cable?
- ABlue, orange, green, brown, and slate.
- BBlue, green, yellow, red, and orange.
- CWhite, red, black, yellow, and violet.
- DWhite, blue, green, yellow, and violet.
85(240) What standard do most newly installed network cables follow?
- AN586B.
- BN568C.
- CT586C.
- DT568B.
86(241) What are the three main functions of grounding?
- APersonnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
- BSignal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.
- CEquipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.
- DCorrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.
87(242) What establishes a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?
- ABonding.
- BShielding.
- CAnnealing.
- DGrounding.
88(242) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not
exceed a resistance of- A1 milliohm.
- B2 milliohms.
- C5 milliohms.
- D10 milliohms.
89(242) What kinds of bonds are normally applied to signal reference bonds?
- ANone.
- BBrazing.
- CWelding.
- DMechanical.
90(243) What are the two basic functions of shielding?
- APrevent interference between multiple emanating systems and minimize compromising
emanations. - BPrevent interference between multiple emanating systems and block all emanations from
exiting a secure facility. - CTo equalize all electronic systems to the same potential and minimize compromising
emanations. - DTo equalize all electronic systems to the same potential and block all emanations from exiting a
secure facility.
- APrevent interference between multiple emanating systems and minimize compromising
91(243) Equipment should be designated as RED when processing
- Aencrypted classified information.
- Bclear-text classified information.
- Cclear-text unclassified information.
- Dunencrypted unclassified information.
92(244) Which one of these is considered a primary cell?
- ANickel cadmium.
- BCarbon zinc.
- CLead-acid.
- DLithium.
93(245) What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?
- ASag.
- BSpike.
- CNoise.
- DBlackout.
94(245) What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
- ASag.
- BSpike.
- CNoise.
- DBlackout.
95(245) What power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in
voltage?- ASag.
- BSpike.
- CNoise.
- DBlackout.
96(245) What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference
and radio frequency interference?- ASag.
- BSpike.
- CNoise.
- DBlackout
97(245) What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally referred to as “offline”
by technicians?- APassive standby.
- BLine interactive.
- CDouble conversion.
- DFerro resonant standby.
98(245) What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?
- APassive standby.
- BLine interactive.
- CDouble conversion.
- DFerro resonant standby.
99(246) How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial
applications?- ASingle-phase
- BDouble-phase.
- CThree-phase.
- DFour-phase.
100(246) What part of the power generation process allows a smooth transition of electrical current
between multiple sources and the load?- AFilter.
- BBattery Bank.
- CVoltage Sensor.
- DAutomatic Transfer Switch.
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- CDC Ground Radar Quiz am Volume 2, erstellt von Oschelle Torres am 31/10/2016.
- Autor
- Oschelle Torres
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 5
- Schlagwörter
- Bewertung
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