Quiz
AVIANCA FINAL
Erstelle ein kostenloses Konto, um dieses Quiz zu beenden
Speichere deinen Fortschritt und sieh dir dein Endergebnis an.
oder mit deiner E-Mail registrieren
Schon ein Konto? Anmelden
Fragen in diesem Quiz (31)
1What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?
- ADescendtoMEAand,ifclearofclouds,proceedtothenearestappropriateairport.Ifnotclearofclouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
- BFly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
- CContinue on the rout especified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highes to flast assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
2What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?
- AThepilotmayutilizeanyaltitudefromtheMEA/MOCAto6,000feet,buteachchangeinaltitudemustbe reported to ATC.
- BClimbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
- CThepilotmustmaintain6,000feetuntilreachingtheIAFservingthedestinationairport,thenexecutethe published approach procedure.
3What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?
- AThepilotisauthorizedtoconductflightatanyaltitudefromminimumIFRaltitudeuptoandincluding6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
- BIt authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
- CThepilotmustmaintain6,000untilreachingtheIAFservingthedestinationairport,thenexecutethepublished approach procedure.
4Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
- APressure altitude at sea level.
- BPressure al titude at field elevation.
- CTrue altitude at field elevation.
5En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?
- ASea level.
- B1,300 feet.
- C715 feet.
6If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator
- AMay show a slight climb and turn.
- BWill show a slight skid and climb to the right.
- CShould immediately show straight-and-level flight.
7Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
- AThe horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.
- BThe horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
- CThe horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.
8What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
- AIndirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
- BDirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
- CRate of roll and rate of turn.
9What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
- AAngle of bank.
- BAngle of bank and rate of turn.
- CRate of roll and rate of turn.
10Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
- APressure altitude at sea level.
- BPressure al titude at field elevation.
- CTrue altitude at field elevation.
11If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in:
- AAlso SHP
- BESHP (equivalent shaft horse power)
- CLbs of thrust
12Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
- ARedirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
- BEarly recognition of hazardous thoughts.
- CTaking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.
13Identify REIL.
- ASynchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
- BGreen lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway.
- CAmber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
14Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?
- ASudden increase in a headwind component.
- BTailwind which suddenly increases in velocity
- CSudden decrease in the headwind component.
15Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?
- ADecreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
- BIncreasing tailwind and headwind
- CIncreasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.
16Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga MP.
- ATodas las anteriores.
- BHasta que no se haya inspeccionado que llevan las marcas y etiquetas debidas.
- CAmenosquesehayacertificadoquelosbultossatisfacenlascondicionespertinentesprevistasenlasinstrucciones técnicas
17Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte aéreo a través del servicio postal.
- ALa unión postal universal
- BIFALPA.
- CLa OACI.
18Diga que frase es cierta:
- ALas discrepancias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
- BLas diferencias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
- CLas discrepancias de los estados se comunican a OACI.
19What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?
- AVisible water.
- BWater vapor.
- CSupercooled water drops.
20On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the
- AAircraf tis continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing on the intended runway, can be made.
- BFlight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.
- CApproach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.
21Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
- AVisual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.
- BFlight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
- CFlight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
22Hypoxia is the result of:
- AAll of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic
- BThe brain not being used to a lack of oxygen
- CThe brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream
23When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:
- AProceed as per special instructions on the chart when included
- BReturn for a landing
- CContinue flying the DP as published
24Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:
- ATrue, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs
- BFalse, every airport is different
- CTrue, except as published on STARs
25When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need:
- ADo nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line
- BRequest ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway
- CDo nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side
26(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?
- AItistheminimumvectoraltitudeforradarvectorsinthesectorsoutheastofPUCbetween020°and290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.
- BIt provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.
- CIt provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
27When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
a.- AAstraight An landing may be made if the pilot has the runway insight insufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
- BThe pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.
- CAstraight-inlandingmay not be made,butthepilotmaycontinuetotherunwayatMDAandthencircleto land on the runway.
28(Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?
a- AAfter the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.
- BWhen passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.
- CImmediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.
29The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?
a.- ARVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.
- BRVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
- CRVR minimum swhich are specified in the procedures hould be converted and applied as ground visibility.
30(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to
- Aintercepting the glide slope.
- BCREAK outbound.
- Ccompletion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.
31What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
- AYou must have the airport insigh to rapreced in gaircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.
- BYou must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.
- CYou must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- Piloto AVIANCA Proceso Seleccion Copilotos 2017 Quiz am AVIANCA FINAL , erstellt von Adriana Forero am 06/02/2017.
- Autor
- Adriana Forero
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 105
- Schlagwörter
- Bewertung
- Noch keine Bewertungen Bewerte dieses Quiz