Quiz
PHASE TWO TEST
Fragen in diesem Quiz (169)
1In 1989, the United States Supreme Court found that law enforcement officers’ use of force
against subjects was a type of seizure, and therefore, under the Constitution had to be
“objectively reasonable.” The case was Graham v. Connor, and it is one of two landmark cases
in law enforcement use of force. Which amendment does law enforcement use of force mostly
pertains to?- A1st amendment
- B4th amendment
- C8th amendment
- D14th amendment
2Officer Majeed responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a gas station. When the
officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant
from the county. Officer Majeed attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect began
actively resisting, attempting to run away. Officer Majeed performed a classroom model vertical
stun on the suspect, giving the officer enough time to place handcuffs on him. What technique is
this?- AA dynamic application of a trained technique
- BA technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
- CA trained technique
- DDeadly Force
3Officer Lucky responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a Walgreens store. When
the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest
warrant for attempted-homicide. Officer Lucky attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but
the suspect became assaultive towards the officer, attempting to punch and bite him. Officer Lucky
pulled out his baton and directed a strike aimed at the suspect’s elbow. The suspect ducked and the
baton strike hit his head instead. What technique is this?- AThe up and under technique
- BA dynamic application of a trained technique
- CA technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
- DA trained technique
4Officer Conner responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at Walmart. When the officer
made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant for
attempted-homicide. Officer Conner attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect
became assaultive towards the officer, slamming the officer on the ground. The suspect got on top
of the officer and began choking him. Officer Conner was unable to get to his firearm and other
equipment on his duty belt. Officer Conner began losing conscious and feared that he would soon
die. Fearing for his life, Officer Conner pulled out an ink pen from his shirt pocket and directed it
into the suspect eyes. What technique is this?- AA technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
- BA trained technique
- CTactical ink pen maneuver
- DA dynamic application of a trained technique
5 This level is the best position for escorting a subject. It is also the position you will use to make
contact with a driver in an approach vehicle contact. What level/position is this?- A1
- B2
- C2 ½
- D3
6Officer Robillard just graduated the police academy and is responding to his first “shots fired”
call. After arriving on scene, this officer started displaying signs of anxiety, nervousness, confusion,
and indecisiveness. Instead of reverting back to his training that he received from the academy, he
froze. What level of awareness (Color) is this?- AYellow
- BRed
- CWhite
- DBlack
7When you do this type of talk, you should project a non-threatening presence and speak in a
normal conversational tone. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
“Hi, I’m Officer Smith, what’s your name?”
“Do you live around here?”
“Can I help you find something?”- ALight Control Talk
- BPersuasion
- CSearch Talk
- DHeavy Control Talk
8Your physical presence, your tone of voice, and your words all must convey intensity and
commitment. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control of talk:
“Drop the knife! Drop the knife or I’ll shoot!”
“Leave now. If you do not leave, you will be arrested.”- AHeavy Control Talk
- BSearch Talk
- CLight Control Talk
- DPersuasion
9This control talk is more directive. Although you are giving orders, it is assertive rather than
aggressive. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
“Stop right where you are.”
“Show me your hands.”
“Step out of the car.”- APersuasion
- BLight Control Talk
- CHeavy Control Talk
- DSearch Talk
10This control talk is intended to gain compliance from a subject while still maintaining a
relatively non-threatening tone. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
“Sir, would you mind stepping over here?”
“Ma’am, please come over here and talk to me.”
“Sir, it would be best if you went on your way now.”- ASearch Talk
- BHeavy Talk
- CLight Control Talk
- DPersuasion
11What is an ECD? What does the acronym stand for?
- AElectronic Containment Department
- BElusive Control Doppler
- CElectronic Control Device
- DElectronic Charged Device
12What level should you be in to perform a Secure-the-Head Decentralization?
- A1
- B2
- C2 ½
- D3
13What level should you be in to perform a Pull-In/Push-Down Decentralization?
- A1 (Inside)
- B2
- C2 ½
- D3
14 In this case, the U.S. Supreme Court established the standard that any law enforcement use of force must be objectively reasonable. In addition, the Court said that reasonableness should be judged under the totality of the circumstances from the perspective of a reasonable officer at the scene with similar training and experience. What case law is this?
- ATerry v. Ohio
- BMiranda v. Arizona
- CGraham v. Connor
- DMapp v. Ohio
15 What does the acronym GUN stand for?
- AGun, Under, Notice
- BGrab, Undue, Neutralize
- CGun, Undue, Neutralize
- DGrab, Under, Notice
16What position should you be in while conducting a frisk?
- ALevel 1 (Inside)
- BLevel 2
- CLevel 2 ½
- DLevel 3
17Control Alternatives techniques are specifically geared toward overcoming what type of resistance?
- APassive resistance
- BActive resistance
- CBoth Passive and Active resistance
- DDeadly force
18Officer Gutieirez conducted a traffic stop on a vehicle operator for speeding. After Officer Gutieirez approached the vehicle, he ordered the operator of the vehicle, Kilbey, to step out. Kilbey refused all verbal orders to step out of his vehicle; however, Kilbey is not fighting or showing any physical threat towards the officer. What type of resistance is this?
- AActive resistance
- BPassive resistance
- CBoth Active and Passive Resistance
- DHe’s not resisting at all
19This resistance refers to behaviors that physically counteract an officer’s attempt to control a subject and which pose a risk of harm to the officer, subject, and others. Examples of this resistance include attempting to pull away from the officer’s grasp, running away, getting up after being directed to the ground, and so on. What type of resistance is this?
- AActive resistance
- BPassive resistance
- CBoth Active and Passive Resistance
- DHe’s not resisting at all
20Under Control Alternatives, which one of the following does NOT belong?
- AEscort Holds
- BBaton
- CControl Devices (OC spray, Taser)
- DCompliance Holds
21What Focused Strike technique would you use to disrupt the actions of the subject’s diaphragm, causing temporary respiratory dysfunction?
- A(Strong Forearm Strike in the chest area)
- B(Strong Hand Strike in the abdominal area)
- C(Reaction Forearm Strike in the chest area)
- D(Focus Strike in the abdominal area)
22The proper way to stabilize a subject on the ground prior to handcuffing is called the _______ position.
- AEscort hold
- BBlanket the arm
- CThree-Point
- DFour-Point
23You must be able to articulate that, if possible, you attempted to escalate through other modes and tactics, and that all options except deadly force were closed. What is this concept called?
- APreclusion
- BJustification
- CArticulatable facts
- DLast chance, Last try model
24If you have determined that you face a threat that meets the requirements to permit a deadly-force response, and you have decided to shoot, you must still fulfill three target requirements. Which one of the following is NOT a target requirement?
- ATarget Acquisition
- BTarget Picture
- CTarget Identification
- DTarget Isolation
25The word imminent means “about to happen.” An imminent threat is an immediate threat. For a subject’s threat to be considered imminent, it must meet three criteria. Which one of the following does NOT belong.
- AMotivation
- BIntent
- CWeapon
- DDelivery System
26Officer Bong is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 12 feet or greater between Officer Bong and the subject. What type of contact is this?
FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 6 feet.- AIntimate
- BPublic
- CSocial
- DPersonal
27Officer Grant is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 4 – 12 feet between Officer Grant and the subject. What type of contact is this?
FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 3 - 6 feet.- APublic
- BPersonal
- CIntimate
- DSocial
28Officer Island is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 1.5 – 4 feet between Officer Island and the subject. What type of contact is this?
FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 1 - 3 feet- APersonal
- BIntimate
- CPublic
- DSocial
29Officer Koscielak is talking with a subject in a Normal Setting. There is 0 – 1.5 feet between Officer Koscielak and the subject. What type of contact is this?
FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 0 -2 feet.- APersonal
- BSocial
- CIntimate
- DPublic
30You will use this stance if the subject does not quickly cooperate, or your tactical evaluation dictates it. What stance is this?
- AOpen Stance
- BDefensive Stance
- CReady Stance
- DAll the above
31If the subject refuses to cooperate with your requests using persuasion and light control talk, or if the distance between you decreases further, you will move to this stance. This stance puts you in a good position in case a physical confrontation occurs. What stance is this?
- AReady Stance
- BOpen Stance
- CDefensive Stance
- DAll the above
32You will use this stance when initially approaching a subject and your intent is to convey a supportive, non-threatening presence. What stance is this?
- AOpen Stance
- BReady Stance
- CDefensive Stance
- DAll the above
33Per case law Terry V. Ohio, why would an officer conduct a frisk on a subject?
- ASafety concerns
- BPossession of narcotics and drug paraphernalia
- CPolicy and Procedure of your law enforcement agency
- DFear of weapons
34In this case, an officer shot and killed a fleeing burglary suspect whom the officer believed was unarmed. The court, deciding the case in 1989, said it was not reasonable to use deadly force against an unarmed fleeing felon, unless there is “probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the officers or others.” What case law is this?
- ATennessee v. Garner
- BWhite v. Pauly
- CScott v. Harris
- DGraham v. Connor
35Which of the following is TRUE about rifles
- ARifles are too long to use indoors in tactical situations
- BA shouldered rifle is about the same length as an extended handgun
- CRifle bullets penetrate too many walls
- DOfficers armed with rifles are MORE likely to miss subjects than with a handgun
36You stopped shooting, but the fight may not be over. Assess why the assailant disappeared from your front sight. Scan left, right, up, and down around the suspect’s last location. Maybe your gunfire caused him to fall. Maybe the subject turned away. Maybe the subject ducked down behind cover. You may have missed your assailant, or he or she may be wounded but still able to function. Assess whether continued use of deadly force is appropriate. AFTER assessing your target, and BEFORE communicating with the subject and dispatch, what “actions after combat shooting” needs to be taken?
- ABreathe (Autogenic Breathing)
- BCover and Scan
- CReload
- DAll the above
37 Break your tunnel vision. Look for the perpetrator’s partners—you may be faced with multiple assailants. Broaden your initial scan of the suspect’s last known location to a full ____ degrees, and ____ degrees up and down.
- AFull 90 degrees, and 360 degrees up and down
- BFull 180 degrees, and 90 degrees up and down
- CFull 360 degrees, and 90 degrees up and down
- DFull 90 degrees, and 180 degrees up and sown
38When you insert a magazine into the rifle, ensure it is in place by using a ____ technique. This technique is used to ensure that the magazine in the rifle is seated properly in the magazine well. This technique eliminates any failure to properly seat a magazine; a common user-induced malfunction.
- APush-Tap
- BPush-Push
- CPush-Pull
- DPush-Roll
39What part of the pistol should you NOT oil or lube?
- AThe outside of the barrel
- BThe firing pin hole
- CThe slide rails, where the slide attaches to the receiver
- DThe Hammer linkage or trigger bar
40What part or piece of the firearm should you NOT oil or lube?
- ARecoil spring/rod assembly
- BThe pistol magazines
- CThe Hammer linkage or trigger bar
- DThe outside of the barrel
41If you fire a number of rounds during a gunfight and there is a lull (pause or break) in the action, you may decide to reload so you have a full magazine in your weapon if the gunfight resumes. There is a round still in the chamber. This type of reload usually occurs while behind cover. What type of reload is this?
- AIn-Battery Reload
- BOut-Of-Battery Reload
- CMid-Battery Reload
- DMalfunction
42This type of reload occurs after all of the remaining rounds from your magazine and chamber have been fired. After shooting off the last round from the magazine and pistol, the slide stop automatically activates, preventing the slide from closing. The picture below is an image of how a pistol looks after firing the last round from the magazine and pistol (Be advised: The state test will NOT show an image. This is for studying purposes only). What reload type is this?
- AMalfunction
- BIn-Battery Reload
- CMid-Battery Reload
- DOut-Of-Battery Reload
43For a semi-automatic pistol to fire repeatedly, four actions must take place. Which one of the following is NOT apart of the firing cycle?
- AFire
- BExtract
- CExplosion
- DEject
- EFeed
44How many number of officers are required to conduct a high-risk contact properly?
- A2
- B3
- C4
- D5
45In a 5 – 4 decision, the United States Supreme Court agreed that the search incident to arrest doctrine of automobiles is not an automatic police entitlement and should only be applied when a defendant is still in a position to lunge into the passenger compartment or when the officer reasonably believes that the vehicle has evidence supporting the arrest. Which case law is this?
- AArizona v. Gant
- BCarrol v. U.S
- CTennessee V. Garner
- DGraham v. Connor
46In an approach vehicle contact, how far away should you park your squad behind the subject vehicle?
- AApproximately 5 – 10 feet
- BApproximately 10 – 15 feet
- CApproximately 15 – 20 feet
- DApproximately 20 – 25 feet
47In a high-risk traffic stop, how far away should you and other officers position the squads from the subject’s vehicle?
- AApproximately 15 feet
- BApproximately 25 feet
- CApproximately 50 feet
- DApproximately 100 feet
48When making contact with the driver of the vehicle, what Basic Contact Model should you follow that you learned in Professional Communication Skills?
- AOpening Information-Gathering Resolution (OIR)
- BDisturbance Resolution Model
- CTactical Deployment
- DLight Control Talk
49If you have already decided what action you are going to take, you should let the driver know at this time. For example, Officer Ward have decided to issue a citation for a red signal violation. What step of OIR is this?
Example:
“Sir, I will be issuing you a citation. Please wait here in your car and I’ll be back with you as soon as I’ve finished the paperwork.”- AOpening
- BInformation-Gathering
- CResolution
- DAll the above
50In the case of a vehicle contact, the beginning consists of you identifying yourself and your agency and explaining the reason for the stop. What step of OIR is this?
Example:
“Good afternoon, Sir. I’m Officer Domagalski of the Milwaukee Police Department. I stopped you because I saw your vehicle go through a red light at Main and First Street- AOpening
- BInformation-Gathering
- CResolution
- DAll the above
51In this phase of the contact, you ask questions to understand the context of the behavior that prompted your stop, to identify the individuals involved, and to fill in any other information you need to get. For a vehicle contact, give the driver the opportunity to explain his or her actions. What step in OIR is this?
Example:
“Sir, was there some reason that you didn’t stop for that red light?”- AOpening
- BInformation-Gathering
- CResolution
- DAll the above
52 In this position, the squad car is angled slightly toward the roadway rather than being parallel to the subject vehicle. The angle places a portion of the car (and engine block) between the officer and the subject vehicle. One disadvantage of this position is that the squad car’s headlights may blind oncoming drivers, particularly at night, and especially if the headlights flash between high and low beams. At the same time because the squad car is angled, its emergency lights are less visible from the rear and its headlights and take-down lights are less able to illuminate the subject vehicle. What position is this?
- AOffset
- BCurve
- CIn-Line
- DAngle-Left
53In this position, the subject vehicle is stopped on the shoulder or next to the curb, and the squad car is adjusted to the left so that the left rear corner of the subject vehicle is even with the center of the squad. The purpose for this position rather than parking directly behind the subject vehicle is to provide the officer with a safety lane for walking up to and contacting the driver, if the officer chooses the left-hand approach. The disadvantage of this position is that the squad car does protrude into the traffic lane. That either makes the lane unusable by other traffic, or, if the lane is wide enough, may encourage other traffic to “squeeze by” putting the officer at risk of injury. What position is this?
- AOffset
- BIn-Line
- CAdjusted-Right
- DAngle-Left
54In this position, the squad car is positioned directly behind the subject vehicle. This position is used only when conditions preclude using one of the preferred positions. An example might be a high-traffic city street at rush hour, when either of the preferred positions would increase congestion by blocking a lane. This position provides no safety lane for the officer using a driver side approach—a passenger side approach. What position is this?
- AStraight-Aligned
- BAngled-Left
- COffset
- DIn-Line
55If you have a vehicle with multiple subjects in it, you might choose to interview the driver away from the vehicle to minimize complications from the passengers, or pets. Or if you have stopped a vehicle for an investigative (“Terry”) stop, you may wish to wait for back-up before contacting the driver, since you suspect him or her of criminal activity. What contact is this?
- AHigh-Risk Contact
- BNon-Approach Contact
- CApproach Contact
- DAll of the above
56Most vehicle contacts are this type of contact, meaning that the officer gets out of his or her squad car and walks up to the subject vehicle to talk to the driver. This contact is used when your threat assessment suggests that it would be safe. What contact is this?
- ANon-Approach Contact
- BApproach Contact
- CHigh-Risk Contact
- DAll the above
57In this contact, you do not approach the vehicle until all subjects have been ordered out—at gunpoint—and secured. These contacts require multiple officers functioning in a coordinated effort. Certainly, some situations (a vehicle matching the description of the getaway car for armed robbers who just robbed a bank and shot a bank teller) automatically demand to be handled as this contact. What contact is this?
- AApproach Contact
- BNon-Approach Contact
- CHigh-Risk Contact
- DAll the above
58While conducting a traffic stop, what direction/position should your front wheels be turned?
- AStraight-Forward
- BRight
- CDoesn’t matter
- DLeft
59Where should placards be located on the transporting vehicle?
- AThe rear of the tanker or trailer
- BThe front of the vehicle, near the driver and passenger door
- COn the top of the vehicle
- DDisplayed on both sides and ends of the transport vehicle
60Which one of the following is the most desirable for terrorists to attack to shock the human/public coconscious?
- ASchool
- BGovernment facility
- CSports arena/stadium
- DAirport
61This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals contact the skin and pass into muscle tissue. In many cases, you are not even aware that you have been exposed. This type of exposure can take time and not even be evident until days or weeks after the event. The best defense to this type of exposure is to prevent skin contact with hazardous materials. What exposure is this?
- AInhalation
- BContact
- CAbsorption
- DIngestion
62This exposure will cause damage to the skin as it makes its way into your body. A common chemical, which will damage the skin, muscles and organs, is Sulfuric Acid. What exposure is this?
- AContact
- BAbsorption
- CInjection
- DInhalation
63This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals are eaten or swallowed. Unintentional or accidental consumption occurs when good work practices are not followed, including not washing hands after having been exposed to a hazardous material or by touching your mouth/lips with a contaminated hand/gloved hand during an incident. What exposure is this?
- AInjection
- BIngestion
- CInhalation
- DContact
64This exposure is the most common form of chemical exposure and can immobilize a subject quickly. This exposure occurs in atmospheres contaminated with a hazardous chemical vapor or dust. What exposure is this?
- AIngestion
- BInhalation
- CAbsorption
- DContact
65This exposure occur when a sharp object containing or contaminated with a hazardous chemical that penetrates the skin. Hypodermic syringes are the most common source of risks. This exposure also occurs when cuts are caused by broken glass and other "sharps" contaminated with hazardous chemicals. The object "injects" the contamination as it cuts. What exposure is this?
- AInhalation
- BContact
- CInjection
- DIngestion
66When placards are required to be displayed on a vehicle or freight container transporting hazardous materials, how many placards should be displayed?
- A2 placards
- B4 placards
- C6 placards
- D8 placards
67Terrorists frequently use these devices as one of their most common weapons. These devices are popular because they are cheap and easy to produce, adaptable to a variety of uses, and difficult to detect and trace after the event. What category of mass destruction is this?
- ABombing or explosions
- BChemical threats
- CBiological threats
- DNuclear Blast
68These agents are organisms or toxins that can kill or incapacitate people, livestock, and crops. The three basic groups of these agents are bacteria, viruses, and toxins. Many of these agents break down quickly when exposed to sunlight and other environmental factors, but others, such as anthrax spore, are very long lived. What category of mass destruction is this?
- ARadiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
- BBombing or explosions
- CChemical threats
- DBiological threats
69These agents are poisonous vapors, aerosols, liquids, and solids that have toxic effects on people, animals, or plants. They can be released by bombs or sprayed from aircraft, boats, and vehicles. They can be used as a liquid to create a hazard to people and the environment. Some agents may be odorless and tasteless. They can have an immediate effect (a few seconds to a few minutes) or a delayed effect (2 to 48 hours). While potentially lethal, these agents are difficult to deliver in lethal concentrations. Outdoors, the agents often dissipate rapidly. These agents also are difficult to produce and deliver. What category of mass destruction is this?
- ANuclear Blast
- BRadiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
- CChemical blast
- DBiological threats
70This category of mass destruction is an explosion with intense light and heat, a damaging pressure wave, and widespread radioactive material that can contaminate the air, water, and ground surfaces for miles around. The effects of all these devices include blinding light, intense heat (thermal radiation), initial nuclear radiation, blast, fires started by the heat pulse, and secondary fires caused by the destruction. What category of mass destruction is this?
- ARadiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
- BNuclear blast
- CBiological threats
- DChemical threats
71Terrorist use of this device – often called a “dirty nuke” or “dirty bomb” – is considered far more likely than use of a nuclear explosive device. This device combines a conventional explosive device with radioactive material. It is designed to scatter dangerous and sub-lethal amounts of radioactive material over a general area. These devices appeal to terrorists because they require limited technical knowledge to build and deploy compared to a nuclear device. What category of mass destruction is this?
- AChemical threats
- BBiological threats
- CNuclear blast
- DRadiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
72As a First Responder, you should always get ____ and _____ from chemicals. Wind direction and terrain are some key officer safety considerations when arriving on scene at a hazardous materials incident.
- ADownhill and upwind
- BUphill and upwind
- CUphill and downwind
- DDownhill and downwind
73This is where the bulk of your driving will take place. You may be patrolling a certain geographic area responding to non-emergency calls or even heading back into the station at the end of your shift. In many ways, this type of driving is similar to the driving you do off duty—but in other ways it is very different. You must be continually alert to your environment and pay attention to the surrounding area as well as the other drivers on the road with you. What law enforcement driving type is this?
- ANormal Patrol Operation
- BPursuits
- CEmergency Response
- DAll the above
74This type of driving refers to the sort of driving you will do when responding to situations in which persons or property are in danger. These can include medical emergencies, assaults, motor vehicle accidents with injuries, fires, and so on. In these situations, you need to get to the scene as quickly as possible but without creating a bigger danger in doing so. You may need to use your emergency lights and siren and disregard certain traffic laws—for example, by exceeding the speed limit. What law enforcement driving type is this?
- APursuits
- BEmergency Response
- CNormal Patrol Operation
- DAll the above
75This type of driving represents one of the most dangerous tasks in law enforcement. Both the officer and the fleeing suspect are at risk just from the speeds at which they are driving. In addition, there may be other drivers or pedestrians along the way, and other responding officers who must coordinate their actions with the primary officer’s. What law enforcement driving type is this?
- AEmergency Response
- BPursuits
- CNormal Patrol Operation
- DAll the above
76Which of following is true about Pursuit as it relates to law enforcement?
- AThe pursuing officer is on duty in an authorized law enforcement vehicle, making him or her recognizable as a law enforcement officer
- BThe driver of the fleeing vehicle is aware of the officer's attempt to stop him or her;
- CThe driver is resisting apprehension, and is maintaining or increasing his or her speed
- DAll the above
77For law enforcement driving, the best position is one that permits you to make rapid changes in direction when needed, is not tiring, and allows easy access to vehicle controls and to your police radio. This hand position is the recommended position for all law enforcement driving (except for backing). Other methods work in some situations, but this hand position works in all conditions, from patrol driving to emergency operation. What hand position is this?
- A9 o’clock / 3 o’clock concept
- B10 o’clock / 2 o’clock concept
- C12 o’clock concept
- D8 o’clock concept
78While reversing/backing up in a vehicle, what hand position should you use?
- A10 o’clock / 2 o’clock concept
- B8 o’clock concept
- C9 o’clock / 3 o’clock
- D12 o’clock concept
79If your vehicle runs off the edge of the roadway, you must be able to perform an off-road recovery while not panicking. Which of the following is NOT true?
- AWhen your vehicle has slowed, gently apply the brakes and pull off the road.
- BLet off the gas
- CImmediately press on the breaks to stop while off road
- DDo not apply the brakes
80Whether non-emergency driving, emergency driving, or in a pursuit, law enforcement officers must show “The degree of care that a reasonably careful person, performing similar duties, and acting under similar circumstances would show.” If this is not exercised for the safety of others, you can be liable under both civil and criminal law. What is this called?
- APrivileged
- BDue Regard
- CCommunity Care Law
- DSafe Regard Act 10
81The exception to the requirement of lights and siren during emergency response is the so-called Silent Emergency. A Silent Emergency is a situation in which the officer is either obtaining evidence of a speed violation or responding to a call in which there is a need to avoid alerting a suspect to the officer’s presence. What are some examples of when a Silent Emergency might be needed?
- AResponding to a Burglary in Progress
- BDomestic Violence subject armed with a firearm
- CKnowledge of the officer’s presence may cause the suspected violator to evade apprehension
- DAll the above
82Generally, an agency establishes this policy when it is not set up to engage in high-speed pursuits. An agency with a small number of personnel, limited jurisdiction (for example, campus police), and/or lack of emergency-equipped vehicles may not permit its officers to take part in high-speed pursuits. What policy is this?
- APermissive pursuit policy
- BDiscretionary pursuit policy
- CRestrictive policy
- DNo pursuit policy
83This policy generally encourages police officers to conduct pursuits in a safe and efficient manner. However, this policy offers little or vague guidance to an agency’s officers. What policy is this?
- ARestrictive policy
- BNo pursuit policy
- CPermissive policy
- DDiscretionary policy
84This policy severely limits police officers’ discretion in pursuits. It typically calls for the police to initiate or continue a pursuit only in felony circumstances or when a suspect presents a significant and immediate danger to the public. Under this type of policy, a police officer would be expected to pursue a murderer, rapist, robber, or other wanted felon who chose to flee. Under this policy, police typically would not pursue a traffic violator, someone in possession of illicit drugs, or someone involved in a nonviolent crime unless that person represented a tremendous danger to the general public and the person’s identification was unknown (for example, a OWI suspect who takes off after a vehicle vs. pedestrian crash). What policy is this?
- ARestrictive policy
- BNo pursuit policy
- CDiscretionary policy
- DPermissive policy
85This policy provides specific guidelines to officers in departments that grant them authority to initiate and continue pursuits. The overriding goal of this type of policy seeks to balance the needs for the police to apprehend law violators with the requirement that police not unduly jeopardize public safety. What policy is this?
- ANo pursuit policy
- BDiscretionary policy
- CPermissive policy
- DRestrictive policy
86Who can terminate a pursuit?
- AThe officer conducting the pursuit
- BThe supervisor
- CBoth, the officer conducting the pursuit and the supervisor
- DAll three; the officer conducting the pursuit, the supervisor, and the dispatcher
87he goal of a pursuit is to pace the fleeing vehicle, not overtake it. Unless the pursuit is terminated before it concludes, you will simply pace the vehicle until……...
- AThe suspect decides to stop
- BThe suspect is induced or forced to stop
- CThe suspect crashes
- DAll the above
88Which of the following situations should you NOT perform a moving roadblock (Boxing in)?
- AOn an intoxicated driver who is slowly deviating between lanes at slow speeds
- BA fleeing driver who displays a firearm
- CAn elderly driver who is confused, loss and who is suffering from Alzheimer’s disease
- DNone of the above
89You are approaching a curve, what action should you take?
- ASlow down before entering a turn
- BSlow down during the turn
- CSlow down after the turn
- DAccelerate and snap-turn during a turn
90What should you aim for while approaching a curve? What is the correct term?
- AThe angle of the curve
- BThe point of the curve
- CThe line of the curve
- DThe apex of the curve
91Whatever distance is required to stop the vehicle at 30 mph, it will take __ times as much distance to stop at 60 mph.
- A2
- B4
- C6
- D8
92In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Tire Deflation Devices, Channelization and Barricades tactics” fall under?
- AProtective Alternatives
- BDeadly Force
- CControl Alternatives
- DAll the above
93In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Ramming and a Roadblock (no escape route)” fall under?
- AControl Alternatives
- BDialogue
- CProtective Alternatives
- DDeadly Force
94 In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Moving Roadblock (boxing-In) and Roadblock (with escape route)” fall under?
- AProtective Alternatives
- BDeadly Force
- CPresence
- DControl Alternatives
95When deciding to change lanes, there should always be a cushion of space in front of your vehicle in your present lane. Because of the impending lane change, your attention will be momentarily diverted, and the more space you have, the more reaction time you have. Therefore, you should have AT LEAST ___ seconds of space when deciding to change lanes?
- A4 seconds
- B6 seconds
- C8 seconds
- D12 seconds
96While performing a moving roadblock (Boxing in) on an intoxicated subject so that he can stop or slow down his vehicle, the suspect displays a firearm. In this technique, the suspect’s vehicle is surrounded by three squad cars—one in front, one in back, and one to the side, just behind the driver door (Somewhat in a 2 ½ position). Out of the three squads, which officer is more in an undesirable position?
- AThe officer to the side, just behind the suspect’s door
- BThe officer in the front
- CThe officer in the back
- DNone of the above
97During a vehicle inspection, what parts should you check at the beginning of your shift?
- ATires and wheels
- BExterior (body, chassis, engine)
- CTrunk and passenger compartment
- DAll the above
98While operating your squad car, what is the single most important choice you can make to ensure you have the appropriate amount of reaction time?
- AAvoid Multi-tasking
- BAvoid utilizing the radio while approaching corners
- CBeing able to quickly switch from Normal patrol to Emergency Patrol in a timely manner
- DEnsure to always maintain a cushion of space around your squad
99In Defensive and Arrest Tactics training, one of the basic principles is that the officer should always maintain a position of advantage, which means that the officer has a better ability to control the suspect. The same principle applies to pursuit driving. What position should you be in behind the suspect’s vehicle while in pursuit?
- ALittle to the left
- BFar left
- CLittle to the Right
- DIn-lined and adjacent behind the suspect’s vehicle
100Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this?
- a laceration that requires stitches, staples, or a tissue adhesive;
- any fracture of a bone;
- a broken nose;
- a burn;
- a petechia [minute colored spot that appears on skin as the result of localized hemorrhage or rupture of blood vessel/capillary];
- a temporary loss of consciousness, sight or hearing;
- a concussion; or
- a loss or fracture of a tooth- AGreat bodily harm
- BSubstantial bodily harm
- CBodily Harm
- DNone of the above
101Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this?
- creates a substantial risk of death, or
- causes serious permanent disfigurement, or
- causes a permanent or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ, or
- other serious bodily injury- AGreat bodily harm
- BBodily harm
- CSubstantial bodily harm
- DNone of the above
102Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this?
- physical pain or injury, illness, or any impairment of physical- ASubstantial bodily harm
- BBodily harm
- CGreat bodily harm
- DNone of the above
103Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this?
- physical pain or injury
- illness- ABattery
- BAggravated Battery
- CSubstantial Battery
- DNone of the above
104Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this?
- substantial risk of death
- serious permanent disfigurement
- permanent or protracted loss of function of any bodily member or organ
- other serious bodily injury- ASubstantial Battery
- BBattery
- CAggravated Battery
- DNone of the above
105Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this?
- a laceration requiring stitches, staples, tissue adhesive
- any fracture of a bone
- broken nose
-burn
-temporary loss of consciousness, sight or hearing
-concussion
-loss or fracture of a tooth- AAggravated Battery
- BBattery
- CSubstantial Battery
- DNone of the above
106For the penalties of a misdemeanor Retail Theft to be increased to a felony, how much must the value of the stolen property be worth?
- AMore than $500
- BMore than $1,000
- CMore than $2,500
- DMore than $5,000
107Schliem pick-pocketed a woman while she was walking down the street. The woman was unaware of the stolen items missing from her pocket until she arrived home. The woman wasn’t injured or physically harmed. What crime is this?
- AArmed Robbery
- BTheft
- CRobbery
- DNone of the above
108Nielsen observed another individual standing on the bus stop with the newest iPhone in his hand. Nielsen approached the individual and punched him with a closed fist, while also taking the individual’s phone. What crime is this?
- ATheft
- BRobbery
- CArmed robbery
- DNone of the above
109Nash approached an individual with his handgun out pointed at the individual, while stating, “You already know what it is, give me everything!” The individual handed everything in his pockets over to Nash. What crime is this?
- AArmed robbery
- BTheft
- CRobbery
- DNone of the above
110Trash contents in a garbage can that’s located by the side of the house is considered what?
- AAbandoned property
- BOpen field
- CPlain view
- DCurtilage
111Trash contents in a garbage can that’s located outside the fence and at the curb is considered what?
- APlain view
- BCurtilage
- CAbandoned property
- DOpen view
112Trash contents in a garbage can located in the alleyway by a detached garage is considered what? The detached garage can is not in close proximity of the house.
- AAbandoned property
- BOpen view
- CCurtilage
- DOpen field
113A vin number on a vehicle that’s parked on the street is considered what?
- AOpen fields
- BOpen view
- CFly overs
- DPlain view
114Which of the following is considered Forcible Entry?
- AKicking down a door
- BTurning the knob of a closed, unlocked door
- CPicking a lock of a closed or locked door
- DAll the above
115Within how many days does a search warrant have to be executed and served after being signed by the Assistant District Attorney and Judge?
- AWithin 7 days, counting holidays and weekends
- BWithin 7 days, excluding holidays and weekends
- CWithin 5 days, counting holidays and weekends
- DWithin 5 days, excluding holidays and weekends
116After the execution of a search warrant, it should be returned to the judge within how many hours?
- AWithin 72 hours, counting holidays and weekends
- BWithin 72 hours, excluding holidays and weekends
- CWithin 48 hours, counting holidays and weekends
- DWithin 48 hours, excluding holidays and weekends
117The constitution requires that in most circumstances, an officer must knock and announce before seeking to execute a search warrant. However, there are a few exceptions to the “knock and announce” requirement. Which of the following is/are an exception(s)?
- ANo-knock authorization granted and signed by the judge
- BWhen an officer upon arrival at the scene reasonably believes that knocking and announcing will create a strong likelihood of the destruction of evidences or danger to the officers or others.
- CBoth, A and B
- DNone of the above
118A stolen piano which was listed on the search warrant was found immediately as officers entered the house. However, officers continued to go through the rest of the house searching for other potential contraband. Upstairs in the attic, officers found 100 pounds of cocaine. Is this cocaine evidence admissible in court?
- AYes, according to the good faith exception
- BYes, maybe the other officers wasn’t aware of the very huge piano
- CYes, because regardless of the situation, cocaine is still illegal so it doesn’t matter
- DNo, the search must be immediately terminated when the items named in the warrant are found
119If impounded, why might an inventory search of a suspect’s vehicle be a smart idea?
- AIt protects the officer from claims of theft
- BIt protects the automobile owner’s property
- CIt protects the integrity of the impounded company and area
- DAll the above
120The authority to open closed containers found within the car is dependent upon whether the department has a specific policy as to closed containers in inventory searches. The policy doesn’t necessarily need to be in writing, although this is certainly preferable, but the policy must be uniformly and consistently applied by all members of the department. In the absence of such a policy, there is no authority to open a closed container in an inventory search. If it is necessary to go into the closed container, and there is no policy permitting this extension of the scope of the inventory, what should be obtained?
- AA search warrant
- BThe supervisor’s permission
- CReasonable suspicion
- DNone of the above
121Which one of the following is NOT true about body cavity searches?
- AA physician can conduct a body search
- BA physician’s assistant can conduct a body search
- CThe arresting officer can conduct a body search
- DA registered nurse can conduct a body search
122Which one of the following is NOT true about strip searches?
- AThe person conducting the search has obtained the prior written permission of the chief, sheriff or law enforcement administrator of the jurisdiction where the person is detained
- BThe person conducting the search is not required to be of the same sex as the detainee
- CThe search shall not be reproduced through a visual or sound recording
- DThe detainee shall not be exposed to the view of any person not conducting the search
123This category of EDP’s includes people who are chronically ill, meaning they have a mental disorder all the time. Typically, this category of EDP’s cannot function while being off of their medication. Which type is this?
- AShort-Term EDP’s
- BChemical Abusers
- CLong-Terms EDP’s
- DNone of the above
124This category of EDP’s includes people who abuse alcohol or other drugs, or both. This category includes chronic abusers as well as those who are temporary under the influence of alcohol or another drug. This category also includes people who are withdrawing from alcohol or other drugs. Which type is this?
- AChemical Abusers
- BLong-Term EDP’s
- CShort-Term EDP’s
- DNone of the above
125This category of EDP’s includes people who are going through an acute mental or emotional crisis, or who are simply very upset for some reason. Such people may be normally rational, but they have been pushed to the limits of their coping abilities by events or circumstances. Generally, the crisis period only lasts for a relatively short time. Which type is this?
- ALong-Term EDP’s
- BShort-Term EDP’s
- CChemical Abusers
- DNone of the above
126The person becomes temporarily out-of-control. He or she may scream, yell or curse, or may wave arms or stamp feet. In this state, a person may become assaultive. Which stage of the crisis cycle is this?
- AEscalation
- BStimulation
- CNormal State
- DCrisis State
127Following the crisis, the person may drop below their normal level of stimulation. This is more likely if the crisis phase was prolonged and/or physical. Typically a person in this stage is quiet, tired and/or withdrawn, and may express regret about his or her actions, include crying. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
- AStabilization (return to normalcy)
- BDe-escalation
- CNormal Sate
- DPost-Crisis Drain or Depletion
128There is no crisis yet. The person’s emotional state and mental abilities are at regular levels. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
- ACrisis State
- BStimulation
- CNormal State
- DStabilization (return to normalcy)
129The person shows obvious signs of distress, including observable physical changes and changes in behaviors. Some examples of these include reddening of the face, tensing of muscles (clenched jaw, clenched fists), talking more or louder, and sometimes becoming quieter or more withdrawn. Also, there may be increased activity, such as pacing or rocking. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
- AEscalation
- BStimulation
- CCrisis State
- DPost-Crisis Drain or Depletion
130During this stage, the person is back to normal behavior and is once again under control. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
- ADe-escalation
- BStabilization (return to normalcy)
- CPost-Crisis Drain or Depletion
- DNormal State
131In this phase, there is a gradual decrease in the crisis behaviors. The person remains tense, but is more in control. If provoked, however, the person can go back into crisis. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
- ADe-escalation
- BEscalation
- CStabilization (return to normalcy)
- DStimulation
132Something happens to cause the person to become excited, upset, active or physically uncomfortable. The cause can be external (something someone said or did, or an environmental factor such as heat, cold or crowed conditions) or internal (physical illness or injury, pain, emotional reaction, or mental illness). What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
- ACrisis State
- BNormal State
- CStabilization
- DStimulation
133The key characteristic of this form of mental illness is mood swings, from depression to mania—from a “low” to a “high.” This illness was previously known as “manic-depressive disorder.” There is, however, wide variation of symptoms between different people with this disorder. Some people have great mood swings, going from extreme manic periods to the depths of depression. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?
- ABipolar
- BDepression
- CAnxiety
- DSchizophrenia
134Another major category of “severe and persistent” mental illness is thought disorders—diseases in which the predominant factor is a disturbance of thinking, rather than primarily of mood. Some of the main symptoms are delusions, hallucinations, visual hallucinations, disordered thinking and speech, unusual realities, and paranoia. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?
- AAnxiety
- BBipolar
- CSchizophrenia
- DDepression
135This disorder is a normal emotion that everyone experiences at one time or another, usually in response to a realistic situation or concern. Feelings of this disorder are, in fact, often a good thing because such feelings motivate us to take positive actions—such as preparing for a test or a presentation or some other event about which we feel anxious. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?
- ASchizophrenia
- BAnxiety
- CDepression
- DBipolar
136This disorder refers to an illness, a disorder of the brain in which a change in the chemical balance of the brain causes serious symptoms. Some common symptoms are deep feelings of helplessness and hopelessness, thoughts and feelings of guilt and self-blaming, diminished feelings of self-worth, lack of energy or ability to do normal activities, etc. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?
- ABipolar
- BSchizophrenia
- CDepression
- DAnxiety
137When responding to a person who has schizophrenia or another form of a “thought disorder”, which one of the following is NOT true?
- ATry to use a passive, friendly and low-key approach
- BMaintain proper distances, and if possible, allow people to feel that they have an escape route
- CTrick the person into thinking that you also hear and see the same hallucinations as he or she does, in order to build rapport
- DDo not argue with him or her or tell the person that their perceptions are not real
138What requirements are needed for a person to meet the statutory definition of an “incapacitated by alcohol”?
- AUnconscious
- BCannot make rational decisions
- CMental or physical functioning is substantially impaired by the use of alcohol
- DA or B
- EB or C
139In responding to a person who has or may have an intellectual disability or other developmental disability, which of the following would you NOT do?
- ATreat the person with respect
- BKeep things simple
- CTouch them reassuringly
- DBe patient
140Domestic violence occurs in intimate relationships. Which one of the following is NOT included as an intimate relationship?
- AThose who currently reside or formerly resided together, such as roommates and household members
- BA neighbor that you’ve known for 10 plus years
- CCurrent or former spouses, partners, and significant others, including boyfriend/girlfriends, and including gay, lesbian, transgender, and bisexual relationships
- DThose who have or share a child in common, or created a child in common
141Following a domestic violence crime, within how many days should it be reported to authorities?
- A14 days
- B28 days
- C60 days
- D90 days
142Which of the following requires a MANDATORY arrested if violated?
- ADomestic abuse retraining order
- BChild abuse restraining order
- CIndividual at risk restraining order and harassment retraining order
- DAll the above
143Immediately following a domestic violence arrest, how many hours is the no-contact order?
- A12 hours
- B48 hours
- C72 hours
- D96 hours
144After responding to a shooting with a suspect armed with a rifle, you observed a wounded blood-covered victim on the front porch of a house. However, the armed suspect is in that same house and his immediate location is unknown. What is the first priority?
- ARescue the wounded victim and perform triage
- BStopping the threat
- CNotifying a negotiating officer
- DNotifying the Chief of Police/Sheriff and media
145What is an officer’s first priority when responding to a high threat environment, such as an active shooter?
- ATo render aid to those who are wounded
- BTo search for causalities
- CTo stop an ongoing threat of death or great bodily harm
- DNone of the above
146This zone is unlikely, but not impossible that danger still exists. For example, if law enforcement contains or stops one active shooter, but has not thoroughly searched the building, another shooter could still be present. Generally, only law enforcement officers or those escorted by law enforcement officers should enter this zone. What zone is this?
- AWarm zone
- BHot zone
- CCold zone
- DNone of the above
147This zone is an area with no known hazards. For example, EMS might establish a casualty collection point inside this zone, where they can treat, load, and transport casualties without interference. What zone is this?
- AHot zone
- BCold zone
- CWarm zone
- DNone of the above
148This zone is a dangerous location where anyone present is at risk of harm. This zone is the immediate area and location of a subject. What zone is this?
- AHot zone
- BWarm zone
- CCold zone
- DAll the above
149This phase of care occurs when you are inside the “warm zone.” For example, you might have responded to a “shots fired” call in a business, and other officers have contained the suspect in another room. You have cover and concealment from the only known threat, but the building has not been thoroughly searched. During this phase of care, you can render additional medical care to yourself or others. What phase of care is this?
- ADirect threat care
- BTactical Evaluation
- CIndirect threat care
- DNone of the above
150This phase of care occurs when you are inside the “hot zone” and the threat is in close proximity to you. For example, you might be responding to a “shots fired” call inside a building, where the location of the shooter is unknown. Because of the ongoing danger, your primary objective must be stopping the threat. If possible, direct the casualty to move to you or another location of relative safety, and/or to treat himself/herself. What phase of care is this?
- AIndirect threat care
- BDirect threat care
- CTactical Evaluation
- DNone of the above
151 During this phase of care, you will provide rapid, secure extraction from the “hot zone” to EMS in the “cold zone,” or extraction directly to an appropriate medical facility. As always, you will continue to maintain officer safety by addressing any suspect threats to life, and by applying and maintaining appropriate medical interventions. What phase of care is this?
- ADirect threat care
- BTactical Evaluation
- CIndirect threat care
- DNone of the above
152After responding to an active shooter at a high school, which is a high threat situation, you observed two causalities located in a classroom. One of the subjects appears to be dead. The other casualty is wounded but conscious. This person can talk and move. Between the two, which causality is more of a priority at this time, in this particular situation?
- AThe subject that appears to be dead, since he’s in worse condition
- BThe wounded but conscious subject; you can also ask if he can self-rescue
- CThey have the same priority
- DAll the above
153How should you apply a tourniquet on an extremity?
- A"Low or die” or at least 2 – 3 inches proximal to the injury
- BApply it directly on the extremity
- CSlightly loose so that it doesn’t cause too much pain on the injured person
- D“High or die” or at least 2 – 3 inches proximal to the injury
154The shooter has been shot by responding officers. It is unclear whether there are any more threats. The Tactical team is now clearing the building room by room, level by level. In the meantime, you’re in a secured room with casualties, some that have been injured. What should you do?
- APerform Triage
- BWait until the tactical team clears the whole building , and then wait for EMS
- CTell the causalities to hang on
- DTell the casualties to run outside to safety
155While metering/slicing the pie during room clearing, how should your eyes and your gun be?
- AEyes around the corner first and then your gun follows
- BYour gun around the corner first and then your eyes next
- CYour eyes and gun should move at the same time; 3rd eye
- DIt’s the officer’s discretion what to use
156This technique is designed to gain rapid control over a structure to rescue hostages or arrest suspects before they can arm themselves. These types of entry techniques are not without risk—they depend on speed and surprise and do not permit officers as much time to identify risks and clear all angles. What search technique is this?
- ADynamic entry
- BCombat entry
- CMethodical searches
- DSwat team technique
157This search combines “slicing the pie” with good communication with your partner(s). You and your partner “slice” the building’s angles to locate any suspects inside. Move together, slowly and thoroughly. One officer slices new areas while the other partner covers angles the first officer cannot observe. What search technique is this?
- ASlip and Slide technique
- BUp and under entry
- CMethodical searches
- DDynamic entry
158In about half of all active shooter incidents, the attack ends before law enforcement even arrives. Which one of the following is the reason why active shooter incidents end before law enforcement even arrives?
- AThe perpetrator commits suicide
- BThe perpetrator leaves
- CThe perpetrator is stopped by victims
- DAll the above
159When faced with an active shooter, the most prevalent advice for the general public suggests that victims do what?
- ARun
- BHide
- CFight
- DAll of the above
160The guiding principles of every active shooter response should be what?
- AStop the killing
- BSave the wounded
- CFind weapons
- DA and B
161During the mediation process, what should you use to show good listening skills and to obtain clarification?
- AWrite down notes
- BUse paraphrasing
- CAsk the subject to repeat everything he said to make sure
- DNone of the above
162What is the next step of the mediation process after person #1 gets finished telling his/her story?
- AThe disputants then speak directly to each other, giving their side and indication how they would like to see the situation resolved
- BGo into in arbitration
- CPerson #2 gets his or her turn to speak to you (the mediator) without interruption
- DNone of the above
163During crisis intervention, what are some strategies that you can use to try and get the person’s attention?
- ACome into the person’s line of sight while not standing directly in front of the subject
- BAvoid crowding the subject
- CRemove the person from the scene of the crisis, if possible
- DAll the above
164How many people should there be when delivering a death notification?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
165What should you NOT refer the person killed as?
- AThe body
- BHis or her legal name
- CA and B
- DNone of the above
166Which of the following should you NOT do while giving a death notification?
- AUse words that’s NOT plain language in order to soften the blow to the survivors
- BIf that one person/survivor was notified is home alone, leave them home alone after you delivered the notification
- CSend and receive death notification information over the police radio
- DAll the above
167For the Implied Consent law to apply, what must first happen to the driver?
- ADriver must first be informed of his Miranda rights
- BDriver must first be given a citation
- CDriver must first be arrested for an OWI
- DDriver must first be involved in a serious or fatal car crash
168Which one of the following is FALSE?
- AThe driver has the right to request for an attorney prior to taking a chemical/blood test
- BIf a driver refuses a chemical/blood test after being arrested, his or her license will be revoked, followed by other administrative penalties
- CIf a driver refuses a chemical/blood test after being arrested, the officer must get a search warrant for the blood prior to seizure
- DIf a person submits to an evidentiary test and scores .08 or above, or .02 and above for fourth and subsequent offenses, the officer may process the paperwork for an administrative suspension.
169An intoxicated driver that was arrested for OWI has refused to submit to a chemical/blood test, but later changes his mind. Which one of the following is TRUE?
- AAfter the refusal, the officer MUST honor the refusal and get a search warrant for a blood test
- BPer the implied consent law, the driver has the right to refuse a chemical test without receiving any driver license administration penalties
- CThe officer has no discretion after a refusal; therefore, the supervisor must take over
- DIt is in the officer’s discretion as to whether a test shall then be given
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- Quiz am PHASE TWO TEST , erstellt von Nathan Petersen am 27/08/2018.
- Autor
- Nathan Petersen
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 199
- Schlagwörter
- Bewertung
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