Quiz
BBUS 3331 - Multiple choice practice questions
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Fragen in diesem Quiz (100)
1A reason for studying operations and supply management (OSM) is which of the following?
- AOSM is essential for understanding organizational behavior
- BMost business graduates do OSM work regardless of their job title.
- CThe concepts and tools of OSM are used in managing other business functions
- DOSM is a required course in all business degree programs
- EOSM is the most rigorous business discipline
2In viewing a department store as a transformation process, shoppers are considered a primary input into the process. A primary transformation function of the same system is which of the following:
- AStock-pickers
- BWell-prepared foods
- CStorage bins
- DStorage and redistribution
- EPromoting products
3One of the characteristics that distinguish a manufactured product from a service product is which of the following?
- ACustomers are always directly involved in creating the output
- BCustomers often directly interact with manufacturing workers.
- CA manufactured product is a tangible, physical item
- DCustomers can purchase the identical service product from a number of outlets
- EA service product is superficial
4In the manufacturing strategy paradigm developed in the 1970s, which of the following is suggested?
- AManufacturing can be a competitive weapon but requires trade-offs on all performance measures
- BManufacturing should focus on an unlimited set of tasks
- CManagement should create a highly flexible factory
- DManufacturing facilities can achieve the lowest possible cost
- EManufacturing management is best done by people with engineering degrees
5Which of the following is not a way that operations and supply process are categorized?
- APlanning
- BReturn
- CDelivery
- DSelecting
- EMaking
6Which of the following are defined as core goods?
- AChemicals
- BAirlines
- CData storage systems
- DHotels
- ENone of the above
7Which of the following is not one of the major strategic operations and supply competitive dimensions that form a company's competitive position?
- ACost or price
- BDelivery speed
- CDelivery reliability
- DManagement acumen
- ECopying with changes in demand
8In developing an operations and supply strategy, which one of the following would be an important product-specific criteria to consider?
- AFocused factory
- BProduction lot-size
- CSupplier after-sale support
- DLearning curve
- ETotal quality management
9When a company seeks to match the benefits of a successful position while maintaining its existing position in offering customers a variety of differing services, what is this process called?
- AOperations capability analysis
- BStraddling
- COrder qualifier
- DOrder winners
- EInter-functional analysis
10An activity-based map is which one of the following?
- AA network guide to route airlines
- BA listing of activities that make up a project
- CA network that shows how a company's strategy is delivered to customers
- DA facility layout schematic noting that what is done where
- EA timeline displaying major planned events
11Which is not an essential difference between goods and services?
- AService is an intangible process that cannot be weighed or measured
- BServices are inherently heterogeneous
- CServices are perishable and time dependent, and unlike goods, they cannot be stored
- DServices are inherently homogeneous
- EServices require some degree of interaction with the customer
12The total output from a production system in one day is 500 units and the total labor necessary to produce the 500 units is 350 hours. Using the appropriate productivity measure, which of the following numbers represents the resulting productivity ratio?
- A1.000
- B1.428
- C0.700
- D0.411
- ENone of the above
13Larry's Auto Body Repair Shop had revenues that average $60,000 per week in April and 50,000 per week in May. During both months, the shop employed 6 full-time (40 hrs/week) workers. In April the firm also had 4 part time workers working 25 hours per week but in May there were only 2 part-time workers and they only worked 10 hours per week. What is the percentage change in labor productivity from April to May for Larry's Auto Body Repair?
- A17.65
- B15.84
- C8.97
- D1.76
- E19.23
14Various financial data for sunpath manufacturing for 2008 and 2009 follow: What is the percentage change in their total productivity measure between 2008 and 2009
2008 2009
Output: sales 300,000 and 330,000
Inputs: labor 40,000 and 43,000
raw materials 45,000 and 51,000
energy 10,000 and 9,000
capital employed 250,000 and 9,000
other: 2,000 and 6,000- A9.22
- B2.33
- C0.53
- D2.88
- E10.39
15Various financial data for sunpath manufacturing for 2008 and 2009 follow: What is the percentage change in labor partial productivity measure between 2008 and 2009
2008 2009
Output: sales 300,000 and 330,000
Inputs: labor 40,000 and 43,000
raw materials 45,000 and 51,000
energy 10,000 and 9,000
capital employed 250,000 and 262,000
other: 2,000 and 6,000- A9.22
- B2.33
- C0.53
- D2.88
- E10.39
16A project starts out as which one of the following?
- AStatement of work (SOW)
- BCritical Path Method (CPM)
- CA series of milestones (SOM)
- DA Gantt chart
- Ea latest-start-time estimate
17Which of the following is a reason that project management is important?
- AOrganizations do not allow hastily planned projects
- BOrganizational hierarchies are becoming more robust
- CThe firm's reputation is not a concern since projects are invisible to the outside world
- DIt is usually more important to complete a project on time than to complete it correctly
18A series of projects that are organized in such a way that each project utilizes people from different functional areas is using which of the following organizational structures?
- AMatrix project
- BIntegrated task force
- CFunctional project
- DPure project
- ECross-functional flexible team
19In each activity time is known with certainty in a CPM analysis, which one of the following methodologies can be used to analyze the project?
- ASingle Time Estimate
- BThree activity time estimates
- CExpected activity time
- DProbability analysis
- ENone of the above
20You have been placed in charge of a large project. Shortened communication lines are required to insure quick resolution of problems as they arise. You recognize that the project is going to take a lot of time and require a lot of team pride, motivation and commitment by all members. Which project management structure should you use in this situation?
- APure project
- BTask force
- CMatrix project
- DFunctional project
- EPERT
21Some of the advantages of a functional project where the project is housed in a functional division include which one of the following?
- AThe project manager has full authority over the project
- BTeam pride, motivation, and commitment are high
- CA team member can work on several projects
- DNeeds of the client are secondary
- ENone of the above
22What is sometimes humorously referred to as a "gozinto chart"?
- AAssembly drawing
- BAssembly chart
- CProcess flowchart
- DOperation and route sheet
- EOrganization charts
23Indicate whether the following statement is true or false: the most common production management tools used in planning and designing the process flow are assembly drawings, assembly charts, route sheets, and product prototypes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
24Which of the following basic types of process structures is one which similar equipment or functions are grouped together?
- AWork center
- BProject
- CManufacturing cell
- DAssembly line
- EContinuous process
25In the service-system design matrix, a mail contact service encounter is expected to have which one of the following?
- AHigh sales opportunity
- BHigh degree of customer/server contact
- CHigh production efficiency
- DLow sales opportunity
- ENone of the above
26There are many applications of poka-yokes in service organizations. Which of the following is one of the three T's used to classify poka-yokes?
- ATask
- BTime
- CTeamwork
- DTrust
- ETalent
27Which of the following risk mitigation strategies is most appropriate for the risk of a loss of customers?
- AUse multiple suppliers
- BMultisource, commodity hedging
- CService/product innovation
- DContingency planning, issuance
- ESupport redundant digital networks
28Which of the following is a partial measure of productivity?
- AOutput/(Materials + Labor)
- BOutput/(Labor+Capital+Energy)
- COutput/All resources used
- DOutputs/inputs
- EAll of the above
29Which of the following is a multifactor measure of productivity?
- AOutput/(Materials+labor)
- BOutput/(Labor+Capital+Energy)
- COutput/all resources used
- DOutputs/Inputs
- EAll of the above
30If all you knew about a production system was that total daily output was 400 units and the total labor necessary to produce the 400 units was 350 hours, what kind of productivity measure could you use to compute productivity?
- APartial measure
- BMultifactor measure
- CTotal measure
- DGlobal measure
- EAll of the above
31Which of the following approaches to service design is characterized by having the customer take a greater role in the production of the service?
- AProduction line approach
- BPersonal attention approach
- CQuality approach
- DDo-it-yourself approach
- ESelf-service approach
32Which one of the following is not an element of a good service guarantee?
- AUnconditional (no small print)
- BThe customer controls the process
- CEasy to understand
- DEasy to communicate
- EMeaningful to the customer
33Which one of the following is considered a high-contact service operation?
- AOn-line brokerage house
- BInternet sales for a department store
- CPhysician practice
- DTelephone life insurance sales and service
- EAutomobile repair
34Which one of the following is a suggestion for managing queues presented in the textbook?
- ATrain your servers to be friendly
- BTell customers that the line should encourage them to come during slack periods
- CGive each customer a number
- DPeriodically close the service channel to temporarily disperse the line
- EUse humour to defuse a potentially irritating situation
35Which of the following are the three major components of a queuing system?
- AThe source population, how customers exit the system and the queuing discipline
- BThe number of servers, the service speed and the waiting line
- CThe source population and the way customers arrive at the system, the serving systems and how customers exit the system
- DThe source population and how the customers exits the system and the queue discipline
- EThe service speed, the queue discipline and the waiting line
36Which one of the following is an example of a finite population in a queuing system?
- APeople waiting to purchase fuel at a service station
- BMachines which have randomly spaced service requirements
- CPeople waiting in line at a tellers' window in a bank
- DPatients seeking help from a doctor in a private practice
- ETaxpayers calling for assistance from the Revenue Canada
37Standing in lin to buy a ticket for a movie where there are multiple windows to buy tickets is which type of queuing system line structure?
- ASingle channel, single phase
- BSingle channel, multiphase
- CMultichannel, single phase
- DNone of the above
38If the arrival rate for loading trucks is 5 trucks per hour, what is the mean time between arrivals?
- A5 hours
- B2.5 hours
- C0.2 hours
- D0.1 hours
- ENone of the above
39The philosophical leaders of the quality movement, Philip Crosby, W. Edwards Deming, and Joseph M. Juran had the same general message about what it took to achieve outstanding quality. Which of the following was not part of that message?
- AQuality is free
- BLeadership from senior management
- CCustomer focus
- DTotal involvement of the workforce
- EContinuous improvement
40An opportunity flow diagram as part of a Six-sigma quality improvement process might be found in which DMAIC category?
- ADefine
- BMeasure
- CAnalyze
- DImprove
- EControl
41Which one of the following is an analytical tool used in six-sigma quality improvement programs
- ALeadership
- BPareto Charts
- CManagement by fact
- DContinuous improvement
- EKaizen
42The Malcolm Baldrige Award selection process helps improve quality and productivity by which of the following means?
- AStimulating foreign based suppliers of American companies to improve quality
- BReporting quality levels among American firms
- CIdentifying American firms with the most difficult quality problems
- DHelping Baldrige Award winners increase their sales
- EProviding feedback to applicants by the examiners
43The primary purpose of the malcolm bridge national quality award is which one of the following?
- ATo encourage the spread of statistical quality control
- BTo improve human resource development and management in manufacturing
- CTo improve competitiveness of American firms
- DTo emphasize the use of quantitative methods in process management
44The dimension of design quality that concerns the consistency of performance over time or the probability of failing is which one of the following?
- AResponse
- BServiceability
- CReliability
- DReputation
- EPerceived quality
45In monitoring process quality, we might use which one of the following statistics?
- AAbsolute values
- BPercentage deviation from tolerance centers
- C"k" values for the sample mean
- DLogarithmic control intervals
- EDifference between the highest and lowest value in a sample
46Quality control charts usually have a central line and upper and lower control limit lines. Which one of the following are reasons that the process being monitored with chart should be investigated?
- AA single plot falls above or below the control limits
- BNormal behaviour
- CA large number of plots are on or near the central line
- DNo real trend in any direction
- EA change in raw materials or operators
47If there are 400 total defects from 8 samples, each sample consisting of 20 individual items in a production process, which one of the following is the fraction defective that can be used in a "P" chart for quality control purposes?
- A400
- B160
- C2.5
- D1.0
- E0.4
48With which one of the following should we use an "x-bar" chart based on sample means to monitor process quality?
- AGrades in a freshman "pass/fail" course
- BTire pressures in an auto assembly plant
- CVehicles passing emissions inspection
- DComputer software errors
- ENumber of units with missing operations
49You are developing an "x-bar" chart based on sample means You know the standard deviation of the sample means is 4, the desired confidence level is 99.7% and the average of the sample means is 24. Which one of the following is your UCL?
- A36
- B24
- C12
- D4
50You want to develop a three-signma "R" chart. You know the average range is 12 based on several samples of size 6. Which of the following is the resulting LCL?
- A20.0
- B18.3
- C7.02
- D5.6
- E0.0
51In the textbook, Toyota's Fuijio Cho identified which one of the following types of waste to be eliminated?
- AExcess quality
- BOverproduction
- CUnderproduction
- DEnvironmental
- EOver-thinking
52Which one of the following are key inventory reduction targets under lean production?
- AFIFO inventory
- BHidden inventory
- CSafety stock
- DLost inventory
- ELadder inventory
53In setting up a Kanban control system you need to determine the number of Kanban card sets needed. If the expected demand during lead time is 25 per hour, the safety stock is 20% of the demand during lead time, the container size is 5 and the lead time to replenish an order is 5 hours, what is the number of Kanban card sets needed?
- A5
- B20
- C27
- D30
- E34
54To implement a flow process in developing a lean system a firm might do which of the following?
- ABalance workstation capacities
- BStandardize product configurations
- CProcess design with product design
- DAdopt a Kaizen philosophy
- EImplement top-down management controls
55Which one of the following concepts is not involved when implementing total quality control?
- AWorkers being given total responsibility
- BEnforce compliance
- CFail-safe methods
- DAutomatic inspection
- ELevel schedule the factory
56In most cases, demand for products or services can be broken into several components. Which of the following is not considered a component of demand?
- AAverage demand for a period
- BA trend
- CSeasonal elements
- DPast demand
- EAutocorrelation
57Which of the following forecasting methodologies is considered a qualitative forecasting technique?
- APanel Consensus
- BEconometric models
- CRegression analysis
- DExponential smoothing
- ESimple moving average
58"Dynamic models, usually computer-based, that allow the forecaster to make assumptions about the internal variables and external environment in the model" is a definition for which of the following forecasting methodologies?
- ACasual
- BSimulation
- CFocus forecasting
- DShiskin Time series
- EMarket research
59Which one of the following forecasting methods is very dependent on selection of the right individuals who will judgmentally be used to actually generate the forecast?
- ATime series analysis
- BSimple moving average
- CWeighted moving average
- DDelphi method
- EPanel consensus
60In general, which forecasting timeframe best identifies seasonal effects?
- AShort-term forecasts
- BQuick-time forecasts
- CLong range forecasts
- DMedium term forecasts
- ERapid change forecasts
61Which one of the following is the major reason that exponential smoothing has become well accepted as a forecasting technique?
- AAccuracy
- BSophistication of analysts
- CPredicts turning points
- DEase of use
- EForecasts lag data trends
62If a firm produced a product that is experiencing growth in demand, the smoothing constant alpha used in an exponential smoothing forecasting model would tend to be which one of the following
- AClose to zero
- BA very low percentage, less than 10%
- CThe more rapid the growth, the higher the percentage
- DThe more rapid the growth, the lower the percentage
- E50% or more
63Which one of the following are used to describe the degree of error?
- AWeighted moving average
- BRegression
- CMoving average
- DFocus forecast
- EMean absolute deviation
64Which one of the following are suggestions for developing a focus forecasting system?
- AUse a seasonality index
- BKeep rules simple
- CKeep the people using the forecasts separate from those who make the forecasts
- DThe faster the growth, the higher the tracking signal
- ESet control limits that keep the forecasters honest
65In an overview of the major operations planning activities in a typical organization, which one of the following activities precedes aggregate sales and operations planning?
- AProcess planning
- BWorkforce scheduling
- CMaster production scheduling
- DMaterials requirements planning
- EOrder scheduling
66Which one of the following methodologies is used to cost out various production planning alternatives in order to select the one that is best?
- ACut-and-dry charting
- BMaterials requirement planning
- CCapacity requirements planning
- DOrder scheduling
- EProcess planning
67In conducting aggregate operations planning there are a number of required inputs. Which one of the following are inputs considered external to the firm?
- ACompetitors' behavior and economic conditions
- BMarket demand inventory levels
- CSubcontractor capacity and current physical capacity
- DEconomic conditions and current physical capacity
- ERaw material availability and inventory levels.
68Which one of the following is considered a "pure" production planning strategy?
- AVariable workforece, stable work hours
- BLag demand
- CLevel playing field
- DStable workforce, variable work hours
- EProduct warehouse
69Maintaining a stable workforce working at a constant output rat while shortages and surpluses are absorbed by fluctuating inventory levels, order backlogs and allowing lost sales is which one of the following production planning strategies?
- AStable workforce, variable work hours
- BChase
- CLevel
- DFull employment
- ESkill maintenance
70An advantage of the level strategy for aggregate operations planning is which of the following?
- ATotal costs through the entire system are maintained
- BThere is a smooth flow throughout the production system
- CThere is variety for the workers through the mixing of models produced
- DThe risk of backorders is minimized
- ECustomer service is improved
71From an operational perspective, yield management is most effective under which of the following circumstances?
- ADemand cannot be segmented by the customer
- BThe firm doing yield management is very profitable
- CThe customer is a "captive" of the system
- DFixed costs are low, and variable costs are high
- EInventory is perishable
72Which of the following costs are relevant to aggregate operations planning?
- ASunk costs
- BTransaction costs
- CBackordering costs
- DLegal costs
- EFixed costs
73From an operational perspective, yield management is least effective under which one of the following circumstances?
- ADemand can be segmented by customer
- BThe product can be sold in advance
- CDemand is highly variable
- DFixed costs are high and variable costs are low
- EDemand is stable and close to capacity
74Which of the following is one of the categories of manufacturing inventory?
- AEconomic order inventory
- BWork-in-process
- CQuality units
- DJIT inventory
- EReorder point
75Which of the following is not a reason to carry inventory
- ATo provide a safeguard for variation in raw material delivery time
- BTo make advantage of economic purchase-order size
- CTo maintain independence of operations
- DTo meet variation in product demand
- ETo keep the stock out of the hands of competitors
76Which of the following industry types will not benefit greatly from the application of MRP?
- AFabricate to order
- BAssemble to stock
- CAssemble to order
- DManufacture to order
- ENone of the above
77Which one of the following industry types has high expected benefits from the application of MRP?
- AFabricate to order
- BHospitals
- CAssemble to order
- DAircraft manufacturers
- EOil refineries
78Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule (MPS)?
- AInventory records file
- BThe aggregate plan
- CThe bill of materials
- DThe exception report
- EPlanned order schedules
79One of the main purposes of a MRP system is which of the following?
- ATrack inventory levels
- BCreate productive capacity
- CDecrease layers of management
- DDevelop schedules for when each component should be produced
- EUpgrade manufacturing's professionalism
80Objectives of inventory management under an MRP system include which one of the following?
- AImprove customer service
- BReduce the cost of capital
- CCalibrate operating efficiencies
- DMinimize lot sizes
- EReduce inventory to zero
81Which one of the following is a major reason that some MRP systems fail?
- ALack of top management understanding and commitment
- BFailure to properly install the MRP software
- CUsing an underpowered computer
- DTechnical incompetence in manufacturing
- EVendors or customers using JIT systems
82Which of the following is an input file necessary to run an MRP system?
- ABill of materials (BOM) file
- BQuality management report
- CException reports
- DPlanned order schedules
- EPurchasing contracts
83Which of the following files allows us to retrace a material requirement upward in the product structure through each level, identifying each parent items that created the demand?
- APlanning bill of materials file
- BModular bill of materials file
- CSuper bill of materials file
- DException report file
- EPeg record file
84Which one of the following is considered a primary report in an MRP system?
- APlanning reports
- BPerformance reports
- CException reports
- DPlanned order schedules
- ECycle counting reports
85Which one of the following can be used for lot sizing in an MRP system?
- ALow-level coding
- BTime buckets
- CLeast unit cost
- DInventory record files
- EPeg reports
86Which one of the following is not a lot sizing technique used in MRP systems?
- ALot for lot (L4L)
- BEconomic order quantity (EOQ)
- CLeast total cost (LTC)
- DLeast unit cost (LUC)
- ETwo-bin system (TBS)
87Which of the following is a dynamic lot-sizing technique that calculates the order quantity by comparing the carrying cost and the setup or ordering costs for various lot sizes and then selects the lot in which these are most nearly equal?
- ALeast total cost
- BEconomic order quanitity
- Clot for lot
- Dleast unit cost
- EABC analysis
88Which one of the following is not a way in which a work center can be organized?
- AAccording to function in a work center configuration
- BAccording to function in an assembly line
- CBy product in assembly line
- DAs a group technology-cell (GT cell)
- EBy product in a flow operation
89When work is scheduled in detail using the setup and run time required for each order it is called which of the following?
- AInfinite loading
- BFinite loading
- CMachine-limited
- DLabor-limited
- EJohnson's rule
90A material requirements planning system is an example of which one of the following scheduling systems?
- AInfinite loading, backward scheduling
- BFinite loading, backward scheduling
- CInfinite loading, forward scheduling
- DFinite loading, forward scheduling
- ENone of the above
91For a mid-volume type of manufacturing which one of the following is a typical production scheduling approach?
- AFinite forward scheduling
- BFinite backward scheduling
- CInfinite forward scheduling
- DInfinite backward scheduling
- EPrecision forward scheduling
92Which one of the following is not an objective of work center scheduling?
- AMeeting due dates
- BProviding time for quality at the source
- CMinimizing setup time or cost
- DMinimizing work in process inventory
- EMinimizing lead time
93Which one of the following is not a standard measure of schedule performance which can be used to evaluate priority rules?
- AThe schedule quality index
- BMinimizing the time a job spends in the process
- CMinimizing work in process inventory
- DMinimizing idle time of machines or workers
- EMeeting due dates of customers
94Which one of the following is a priority rule used to schedule the sequence of jobs in a production operation.
- ALast come first served
- BLast complain first
- CFirst on hand first
- DLongest slack time first
- EParts on hand first
95Which one of the following priority rules used in scheduling the sequence of production is calculated as the time remaining before the due date minus the remaining processing time, with the smallest value being run first.
- ASTR
- BCR
- CSOT
- DLCFS
- EEDD
96Assume you are sequencing a job using Johnson's rule. The job requires 3 hours to assemble, then is followed by 2 hours in the painting department. Which one of the following is where you would schedule this job?
- AAs early as possible in the unfilled job sequence
- BAs late as possible in the unfilled job sequence
- CThe schedule would depend on the due date
- DDoes not matter
- EJohnson's rule does not apply
97The assignment method is useful in solving scheduling problems that have which of the following characteristics?
- AThere are "n" jobs to be distributed to "n" machines or workers
- BEach job can only be done on one particular machine
- CSpeed and efficiency are important
- DThe objective is to minimize cost and lateness of delivery
- EThe jobs have to go through more than one process
98Which one of the following is one of the major functions of shop-floor control?
- AObserving the priorities set for each shop order
- BKeeping work-in-process inventory out of the way
- CConveying shop-order status information to the office
- DControlling cost and materials waste
- EKeeping the workforce fully utilized
99Which one of the following might be a status and exception report used in shop-floor control?
- AAbsentee report
- BQuality failure report
- CShortage lists
- DExpediting report
- EUnion activity report
100Which one of the following is a principle of work center scheduling?
- AOnce started a job can and should be finished even if unavoidably interrupted
- BReschedule every day
- CAchieve certainty in standards and routings
- DGive work centers less to do then their maximum
- EAssign the first worker to all of the days that require staffing
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- Business operations management
- Autor
- Rhea Fagnan
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 48
- Schlagwörter
- Bewertung
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