SOC 170 Final Exam

1. 11. The court’s legitimacy is based on two factors: impartiality and ____.

   1. AIndependence
   2. BThe judge's prerogative
   3. CJurisdiction
   4. DThe statutes
2. 22. The United States has _____________ different judicial systems.

   1. ATwo
   2. BThree
   3. CFifty
   4. DFifty-two
3. 33. The ______________ function of the court is concerned with speed and efficiency.

   1. ADue process
   2. BCrime control
   3. CRehabilitation
   4. DBureaucratic
4. 44. The ____________ function of the court is concerned with protecting the rights of individual citizens against the power of the state.

   1. ADue process
   2. BCrime control
   3. CRehabilitation
   4. DBureaucratic
5. 55. The power of the law is known as:

   1. AAdjudication
   2. BThe judge's prerogative
   3. CJurisdiction
   4. DThe statutes
6. 6
   6. Which courts handle misdemeanors and some civil matters?
   

   1. ACourts of general jurisdiction
   2. BCourts of limited jurisdiction
   3. CCourts of unlimited jurisdiction
   4. DFelony courts
7. 77. Courts having original jurisdiction are courts of the first instance, or ____.

   1. AAppellate courts
   2. BJurisdiction courts
   3. CState supreme courts
   4. DTrial courts
8. 88. Which of the following courts is primarily a "reviewer" of decisions?

   1. AAppellate courts
   2. BJurisdictional courts
   3. COriginal jurisdiction courts
   4. DTrial courts
9. 99. Appellate court judges make a decision on whether a case should be:

   1. ARetried or additional charges pressed
   2. BReversed and remanded
   3. CReviewed by a higher court
   4. DReviewed by another lower court
10. 1010. Appellate courts:

    1. AHear cases de novo
    2. BDetermine the defendant's guilt or innocence
    3. CDetermine questions of fact
    4. DDetermine questions of law

11. 1111. Statements in which judges express the reasons for the court’s decision in a case are:

    1. AVerdicts
    2. BOpinions
    3. CRulings
    4. DOral arguments
12. 12
    12. A public civil officer or official with limited judicial authority within a particular geographic area, such as the authority to issue an arrest warrant, is:
    

    1. AA judge
    2. BA police officer
    3. CA magistrate
    4. DA public prosecutor
13. 1313. Drug courts, juvenile courts, domestic courts, and elder courts are all examples of:

    1. AMunicipal Courts
    2. BProbate Courts
    3. CSpecialty Courts
    4. DTrial Courts of General Jurisdiction
14. 1414. The lowest tier of the federal court system is the:

    1. ACounty Court
    2. BU.S. Court of Appeal
    3. CMunicipal Court
    4. DU.S. District Court
15. 1515. In the federal court system, there are ____ U.S. Courts of Appeal, also referred to as U. S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.

    1. A10
    2. B7
    3. C16
    4. D13
16. 1616. The U.S. Supreme Court consists of ____ justices.

    1. A7
    2. B8
    3. C9
    4. D10
17. 1717. The U.S. Supreme Court orders a lower court to send it the record of a case for review. This is done with a ____.

    1. ASubpoena
    2. BWrit of habeas corpus
    3. CWrit of duces tecum
    4. DWrit of certiorari
18. 18
    18. The United States Supreme Court will not issue a writ of certiorari unless at least __________ justices approve of it.
    

    1. A2
    2. B4
    3. C6
    4. D9
19. 1919. A ____ opinion is a separate opinion prepared by judges who support the decision of the majority of the court but who want to express their own particular reasoning.

    1. AConcurring
    2. BDissenting
    3. CDuces tecum
    4. DWrit of certiorari
20. 2020. During the pretrial, the ____ takes on the role of the negotiator.

    1. ADefense attorney
    2. BJudge
    3. CProsecutor
    4. DPublic defender
21. 2121. When the trial starts, the judge takes on the role of the:

    1. ATeacher
    2. BReferee
    3. CNegotiator
    4. DAdministrator
22. 2222. What is the title of the list of cases entered on a court's calendar and thus scheduled to be heard by the court?

    1. AArraignment
    2. BCourt calendar
    3. CDocket
    4. DWrit of certiorari
23. 2323. An election where a political party such as the Republicans or Democrats openly support a candidate for a judgeship is known as a(n):

    1. ANonpartisan election
    2. BOpen election
    3. CPartisan election
    4. DPrimary election
24. 2424. In the courtroom work group, who is responsible for maintaining security and order in the judge's chambers and in the courtroom?

    1. ABailiff
    2. BClerk of court
    3. CCourt reporter
    4. DProsecutor
25. 2525. In the courtroom work group, who is responsible for recording every word that is said during the course of trial?

    1. ABailiff
    2. BClerk of court
    3. CCourt reporter
    4. DProsecutor
26. 2626. In the courtroom work group, who is responsible for maintaining the large amount of paperwork generated during a trial, including transcripts, photographs, evidence, and any other records?

    1. ABailiff
    2. BClerk of court
    3. CCourt reporter
    4. DProsecutor
27. 2727. During the pretrial process, the ____ holds a great deal of discretion as to whether an individual who has been arrested by the police will be charged.

    1. ADefense attorney
    2. BJudge
    3. CPublic defender
    4. DPublic prosecutor
28. 2828. Of the courtroom work group, who relies on the police to arrest suspects and gather sufficient evidence, and police rely upon them to convict those who have been apprehended?

    1. ADefense attorney
    2. BJudge
    3. CPublic defender
    4. DProsecutor
29. 2929. The ____ is the chief law officer of a state; also, the chief law officer of the nation.

    1. AAttorney general
    2. BCourt justice
    3. CJudge
    4. DPublic prosecutor
30. 3030. The level of charge to be brought against a suspect is determined by the

    1. AJudge
    2. BJury
    3. CArresting officer
    4. DProsecutor
31. 3131. The primary responsibility of the ____ is to represent the defendant at various stages of the custodial process, such as arrest, interrogation, lineup, and arraignment.

    1. ACourt justice
    2. BDefense attorney
    3. CJudge
    4. DPublic prosecutor
32. 3232. Which amendment provides for the right to counsel?

    1. AThe Fourth Amendment
    2. BThe Fifth Amendment
    3. CThe Sixth Amendment
    4. DThe Eighth Amendment
33. 3333. The Supreme Court unanimously held that "any person haled into court, who is too poor to hire a lawyer, cannot be assured a fair trial unless counsel is provided for him." This case was:

    1. AFurman v. Georgia
    2. BGideon v. Wainwright
    3. CStrickland v. Washington
    4. DUnited States v. Zolin
34. 34About ___ percent of all criminal defendants in the United States are represented by public
    defenders or other appointed counsel.
    

    1. A50
    2. B75
    3. C90
    4. D95
35. 3535. Attorney-client privilege does not apply when:

    1. AThe client provides information on a crime that he or she plans to commit
    2. BThe client admits to a past offense
    3. CThe client admits to murder
    4. DThe client admits to particularly heinous crimes including torture
36. 3636. What is the first step toward determining the suspect's guilt or innocence after an arrest has been made?

    1. AIndictment
    2. BInformation
    3. CInitial appearance
    4. DPreliminary hearing
37. 3737. Excessive bail is prohibited under the ____ Amendment.

    1. AFourth
    2. BFifth
    3. CSixth
    4. DEighth
38. 3838. During the ____, the defendant appears before a judge or magistrate, who decides whether the evidence presented is sufficient for the case to proceed to trial.

    1. AArraignment
    2. BBooking
    3. CInitial appearance
    4. DPreliminary hearing
39. 3939. What is the formal investigation prior to trial in which the defense uses various methods to obtain information from the prosecution to prepare for trial?

    1. ADiscovery
    2. BExamination
    3. CIndictment
    4. DInformation
40. 4040. If the grand jury finds that probable cause exists, it issues a(n):

    1. ADiscovery
    2. BExamination
    3. CIndictment
    4. DInformation
41. 4141. The ____ is the formal charge against the accused issued by the prosecutor after a preliminary hearing has found probable cause.

    1. ADiscovery
    2. BExamination
    3. CIndictment
    4. DInformation
42. 4242. About ____ of those adult felony cases brought to prosecutors by police are dismissed through a nolle prosequi.

    1. AOne-fourth
    2. BOne-third
    3. COne-half
    4. DThree-fourths
43. 4343. What is the most important factor in deciding whether to prosecute?

    1. AThe prosecutor’s belief in the defendant’s guilt
    2. BThe reliability of victims
    3. CWhether sufficient evidence exists to gain a conviction
    4. DWhether or not the victim is willing to cooperate
44. 4444. At the ____, the defendant is informed of the charges and must respond by pleading guilty or not guilty.

    1. AArraignment
    2. BIndictment
    3. CInitial appearance
    4. DPreliminary hearing
45. 4545. Which term is Latin for "I will not contest it" and is used as a criminal defendant's plea, in which he or she chooses not to challenge, or contest, the charges brought by the government?

    1. AHabeas corpus
    2. BNoll
    3. CNolle prosequi
    4. DNolo contendere
46. 4646. Which of the following is a true statement?

    1. Aa. Defendants who plea bargain receive significantly lighter sentences on average than those who are found guilty at trial.
    2. Bb. Defendants who plea bargain receive significantly harsher sentences on average than those who are found guilty at trial.
    3. Cc. The plea of guilty is fairly common at the arraignment.
    4. Dd. Plea bargaining accounts for nearly 57% of criminal convictions in state courts.
47. 4747. Legislative time limits that require prosecutors to charge a defendant with a crime within a certain amount of time after the illegal act took place are called:

    1. ADiscovery
    2. BNolle prosequi
    3. CStatutes of acquittal
    4. DStatutes of limitations
48. 4848. What type of trial is conducted without a jury, in which a judge makes the determination of the defendant's guilt or innocence?

    1. ABench trial
    2. BJury trial
    3. CPrimary trial
    4. DRegular trial
49. 4949. Which Amendment states that no person "shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself?"

    1. AFourth
    2. BFifth
    3. CSixth
    4. DEighth
50. 5050. What is the burden of proof in a criminal trial?

    1. ABeyond a reasonable doubt
    2. BProbable cause
    3. CPreponderance of the evidence
    4. DClear and convincing evidence
51. 5151. The preliminary questions that the trial attorneys ask prospective jurors to determine whether they are biased or have any connection with the defendant or witness is referred to as:

    1. AJuror questionnaire
    2. BMaster jury list
    3. CVenire
    4. DVoir dire
52. 5252. What type of challenge is one in which the attorney states the reason why a prospective juror should not be included on the jury?

    1. AChallenge for cause
    2. BPeremptory challenge
    3. CVenire challenge
    4. DVoir dire challenge
53. 5353. Which type of challenge is one used to exclude potential jurors from serving on the jury without any supporting reason or cause being provided by the attorney?

    1. AChallenge for cause
    2. BPeremptory challenge
    3. CVenire challenge
    4. DVoir dire challenge
54. 5454. A(n) ____ witness is one who can truthfully and accurately testify on a fact in question without having specialized training or knowledge. This witness is considered an ordinary witness.

    1. AExpert
    2. BLay
    3. CSpecialized
    4. DTechnical
55. 5555. What type of evidence tends to prove or disprove a fact in question?

    1. ACircumstantial
    2. BPrejudicial
    3. CReal
    4. DRelevant
56. 5656. Evidence witnessed by the person giving the testimony is:

    1. AReal evidence
    2. BCircumstantial evidence
    3. CHearsay
    4. DDirect evidence
57. 5757. The examination of a witness by the attorney who calls the witness to the stand to testify is called:

    1. ACross examination
    2. BDirect examination
    3. CRebuttal examination
    4. DSurrebuttal examination
58. 5858. Which amendment contains the “confrontation clause,” or the right to cross-examine witnesses?

    1. AFourth
    2. BFifth
    3. CSixth
    4. DEighth
59. 5959. Which of the following is NOT one of the possible affirmative defenses used in a defendant's case?

    1. ADuress
    2. BEntrapment
    3. CHearsay
    4. DInsanity
60. 6060. Which type of defense used in a defendant's case includes the submission of evidence showing that the accused was not at or near the scene of the crime at the time the crime was committed?

    1. AAffirmative defense
    2. BAlibi defense
    3. CHearsay defense
    4. DPrejudicial defense
61. 6161. After the defense closes its case, the prosecution is permitted to bring new evidence forward that was not used during its initial presentation to the jury. This is called the ____ stage of the trial.

    1. ACross-examination
    2. BClosing argument
    3. CRebuttal
    4. DSurrebuttal
62. 6262. The ____ are made by each side's attorney after the cases for the plaintiff and defendant have been presented.

    1. ACharges
    2. BClosing arguments
    3. COpening statements
    4. DRebuttals
63. 6363. A(n) ____ jury is one in which the jury members are so irreconcilably divided in their opinions that they cannot reach a verdict.

    1. ADecided
    2. BHung
    3. CSequestered
    4. DUnanimous
64. 6464. What is the formal decision rendered by the jury?

    1. AIndictment
    2. BInformation
    3. CVerdict
    4. DOpinion
65. 651. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic philosophical reasons for sentencing?

    1. ADeterrence
    2. BIncapacitation
    3. CRetribution
    4. DRevenge
66. 662. The strategy of preventing crime through the threat of punishment is called:

    1. ADeterrence
    2. BIncapacitation
    3. CRehabilitation
    4. DRetribution
67. 673. What is the oldest and most common justification for punishment?

    1. ADeterrence
    2. BIncapacitation
    3. CRehabilitation
    4. DRetribution
68. 684. Which of the following sentencing philosophies is viewed as the most humane?

    1. ADeterrence
    2. BIncapacitation
    3. CJust deserts
    4. DRehabilitation
69. 695. What type of sentencing occurs when a judge determines the minimum and maximum terms of imprisonment?

    1. ADeterminate
    2. BIndeterminate
    3. CMandatory
    4. DTruth in
70. 706. A period of incarceration that is fixed by a sentencing authority and cannot be reduced by judges or other corrections officials is called ____ sentencing.

    1. ADeterminate
    2. BIndeterminate
    3. CMandatory
    4. DTruth in
71. 717. What type of sentencing law requires that murderers and others convicted of serious crimes complete a certain percentage their sentences with no time off for good behavior?

    1. ADeterminate sentencing laws
    2. BIndeterminate sentencing laws
    3. CMandatory sentencing laws
    4. DTruth in sentencing laws
72. 728. Truth-in-sentencing laws, in the majority of states, require murderers and other offenders convicted of serious crime to serve at least ____ of the sentence handed down by the judge.

    1. A60%
    2. B75%
    3. C85%
    4. D100%
73. 739. A sum of money paid in compensation for damages done to the victim is:

    1. AA fine
    2. BCommunity service
    3. CRestitution
    4. DBond
74. 7410. House arrest, electronic monitoring, and boot camp are all examples of:

    1. AProbation
    2. BIncarceration
    3. CCommunity service
    4. DAlternative sanctions
75. 7511. Who prepares the presentence investigation report?

    1. AThe judge
    2. BA probation officer
    3. CThe prosecutor
    4. DThe court clerk
76. 7612. What is the primary factor in a judge's sentencing decision?

    1. AAggravating circumstances
    2. BJudicial philosophy
    3. CMitigating circumstances
    4. DSeriousness of the crime
77. 7713. Any circumstance accompanying the commission of a crime that may justify a lighter sentence is known as a(n) ____.

    1. AAggravating circumstance
    2. BConviction circumstance
    3. CMitigating circumstance
    4. DReal circumstance
78. 7814. A(n) ____ circumstance is any circumstance accompanying the commission of a crime that may justify a harsher sentence.

    1. AAggravating
    2. BConviction
    3. CMitigating
    4. DReal
79. 7915. Mitigating circumstances may include:

    1. AA prior record
    2. BA passive role in the offense
    3. CUse of a weapon
    4. DDisregard for the safety of others
80. 8016. A situation in which those convicted of similar crimes do not receive similar sentences is:

    1. ASentencing disparity
    2. BSentencing discrimination
    3. CSentencing bias
    4. DSentencing equity
81. 8117. A situation in which the length of a sentence appears to be influenced by a defendant’s race, gender, economic status, or other factor not directly related to the crime he or she committed is:

    1. ASentencing disparity
    2. BSentencing discrimination
    3. CSentencing bias
    4. DSentencing equity
82. 8218. Sentencing guidelines require judges to determine a defendant’s sentencing using:

    1. AA list of statutorily created criminal sentences
    2. BA sentencing grid
    3. CA presentence investigation report
    4. DThe prosecutor’s recommendation
83. 8319. In an effort to eliminate the inequities of disparity by removing judicial bias from the sentencing process, many states and the federal government have turned to ____, which require judges to dispense legislatively determined sentences based on factors such as the seriousness of the crime and the offender’s prior record.

    1. AMandatory sentencing laws
    2. BIndeterminate sentencing laws
    3. CSentencing guidelines
    4. DTruth-in-sentencing laws
84. 8420. A stipulation in many federal and state sentencing guidelines that allows a judge to adjust his or her sentencing decision based on the special circumstances of a particular case is called a(n) ____.

    1. AAggravating circumstance
    2. BDeparture
    3. CDisposition
    4. DMitigating circumstance
85. 8521. Statutorily determined punishments that must be applied to those who are convicted of specific crimes are:

    1. AMandatory sentencing guidelines
    2. BHabitual offender laws
    3. CIndeterminate sentencing laws
    4. DDeterminate sentencing laws
86. 8622. Statutes that require lengthy prison sentences for those who are convicted of multiple felonies are:

    1. AMandatory sentences
    2. BHabitual offender laws
    3. CTruth-in-sentencing laws
    4. DDeterminate sentencing
87. 8723. Which is the dominant method of execution in the United States today?

    1. AThe gas chamber
    2. BElectrocution in an electric chair
    3. CHanging
    4. DLethal injection
88. 8824. In ____ the U.S. Supreme Court did not rule that the death penalty inherently violated the Eighth Amendment’s protection against cruel and unusual punishment or the Fourteenth Amendment’s guarantee of due process, only that it did so as practiced by the states.

    1. AAtkins v. Virginia
    2. BFurman v. Georgia
    3. CGregg v. Georgia
    4. DRoper v. Simmons
89. 8925. According to the bifurcated process in capital cases, the decision to sentence a defendant to death must be made by:

    1. AThe judge
    2. BThe legislature
    3. CThe jury
    4. DThe prosecutor
90. 9026. Which Amendment guards against "cruel and unusual punishment?"

    1. AFourth
    2. BFifth
    3. CSixth
    4. DEighth
91. 9127. In the past 10 years, the annual number of executions in the United States:

    1. AHas remained stable
    2. BHas increased dramatically
    3. CHas decreased
    4. DHas dropped to almost zero
92. 9228. Which goal of corrections focuses on preparing the offender for a return to the community unmarred by further criminal behavior?

    1. ADeterrence
    2. BDiversion
    3. CIncapacitation
    4. DReintegration
93. 9329. A strategy to keep those offenders who qualify away from prison and jail and toward community-based and intermediate sanctions is:

    1. ADeterrence
    2. BDiversion
    3. CIncapacitation
    4. DReintegration
94. 9430. Reintegration has a strong theoretical basis in the ____ philosophy of punishment.

    1. ARetributive
    2. BIncapacitative
    3. CDeterrence
    4. DRehabilitative
95. 9531. The most common form of punishment in the United States is:

    1. AImprisonment
    2. BProbation
    3. CCommunity service
    4. DRestitution
96. 9632. What is a judicially imposed condition in which an offender is sentenced after being convicted of a crime, but is not required to begin serving the sentence immediately?

    1. ACommunity corrections
    2. BProbation
    3. CSplit sentence probation
    4. DSuspended sentence
97. 9733. In ____, also known as shock probation, the offender is sentenced to a specific amount of time in prison or jail, to be followed by a period of probation.

    1. AIntermittent incarceration
    2. BShock incarceration
    3. CSuspended sentence
    4. DSplit sentence probation
98. 9834. About ______________ of all probationers have been found guilty of a felony.

    1. AOne-tenth
    2. BOne-third
    3. COne-half
    4. DThree-fourths
99. 9935. Which of the following reasons could contribute to an offender being denied probation?

    1. Aa. Conviction of multiple charges
    2. Bb. Were on parole at the time of their arrest
    3. Cc. Using a weapon during the commission of a crime
    4. Dd. All of these
100. 10036. In general, the conditions placed on a probationer fall into three categories. Which of the following is not one of these conditions?

     1. ACumulative conditions
     2. BPunitive conditions
     3. CStandard conditions
     4. DTreatment conditions
101. 10137. Conditions imposed on all probationers are:

     1. ACommunity
     2. BPunitive
     3. CStandard
     4. DTreatment
102. 10238. Failing to report a change of address is a ____ violation which may result in revocation of probation.

     1. ACommon
     2. BPunitive
     3. CStandard
     4. DTechnical
103. 10339. During this hearing the probation agency presents evidence to support its claim of violation, and the probationer can attempt to refute this evidence.

     1. APreliminary hearing
     2. BRevocation hearing
     3. CPreliminary sentencing
     4. DRevocation sentencing
104. 10440. A process by which the government seizes private property attached to criminal activity is:

     1. ACommunity service
     2. BFines
     3. CForfeiture
     4. DRestitution
105. 10541. Which of the following is not one of the options of intermediate sanctions that judges have in sentencing?

     1. ACommunity service
     2. BFines
     3. CImprisonment
     4. DRestitution
106. 10642. Which of the following is true regarding intermediate sanctions?

     1. AIntermediate sanctions are less restrictive than probation and more restrictive than imprisonment
     2. BIntermediate sanctions provide a number of additional sentencing options for wrongdoers who require stricter supervision than that supplied by standard probation
     3. CIntermediate sanctions are not designed to match specific punishment and treatment of an individual offender with a corrections program that reflects the offender's situation
     4. DIntermediate sanctions are not intended to alleviate pressure on overcrowded facilities and understaffed probation departments
107. 10743. What is an alternative to trial offered by a judge or prosecutor, in which the offender agrees to participate in a specified counseling treatment program in return for withdrawal of the charges?

     1. ADay reporting center
     2. BHome confinement
     3. CPretrial diversion program
     4. DProbation office
108. 10844. If an offender chooses to attend drug court, they place themselves in the hands of a ____ who will enforce a mixture of treatment and sanctions in an attempt to cure their addiction.

     1. AJudge
     2. BJury
     3. CProbation officer
     4. DProsecutor
109. 10945. On successful completion of a drug court program, the offender is usually rewarded by:

     1. AHaving all charges against them dropped
     2. BSpending a limited time in jail
     3. CSpending a limited time in prison
     4. DSpending a limited time on probation
110. 11046. A community-based corrections center to which offenders report on a daily basis for the purpose of treatment, education, and incapacitation is a:

     1. ADay reporting center
     2. BTreatment center
     3. CPretrial diversion program
     4. DProbation office
111. 11147. A punishment-oriented form of probation in which the offender is placed under stricter and more frequent surveillance and control than conventional probation by probation officers with limited caseloads is a(n):

     1. ADay reporting center
     2. BHome confinement
     3. CIntensive supervision probation
     4. DPretrial diversion program
112. 11248. A community-based sanction in which offenders serve their terms of incarceration in their homes is called:

     1. AHome confinement
     2. BIntensive supervision probation
     3. CPretrial diversion program
     4. DShock incarceration
113. 11349. This is the criticism that intermediate sanctions designed to divert offenders from prison actually increase the number of citizens who are under the control and surveillance of the American corrections system.

     1. ADiversion
     2. BReintegration
     3. CScared Straight
     4. DWidening the net
114. 11450. The idea that the more effectively offenders are controlled, the more likely they are to be caught violating the terms of their conditional release is called _____________________________.

     1. AWidening the net
     2. BThe paradox of community corrections
     3. CDiversion
     4. DReintegration
115. 11551. This is an early form of correctional facility that emphasized separating inmates from society and from one another so that they would have an environment in which to reflect on their wrongdoing, and ponder their reformation.

     1. Aa. Jail
     2. Bb. Penitentiary
     3. Cc. Prison
     4. Dd. Supermax facility
116. 11652. Eventually, the penitentiary at Walnut Street succumbed to the same problems that continue to plague institutions of confinement. What were these problems?

     1. Aa. Excessive costs and overcrowding
     2. Bb. Excessive costs and intruding politics
     3. Cc. Intruding politics and overcrowding
     4. Dd. Overcrowding and violence
117. 11753. If Pennsylvania's prisons were designed to transform wrongdoers into honest citizens, those in New York focused on:

     1. Aa. Idleness
     2. Bb. Obedience
     3. Cc. Silence
     4. DPrivacy
118. 11854. An essay by ____ provided critics of the medical model with statistical evidence that rehabilitation efforts did nothing to lower recidivism rates.

     1. Aa. Progressives
     2. Bb. Quakers
     3. Cc. Robert Martinson
     4. Dd. Warden organizations
119. 11955. The ____ held that institutions should offer a variety of programs and therapies to cure inmates of their "ills," whatever their root causes.

     1. Aa. Congregate system
     2. Bb. Medical model
     3. Cc. Separate confinement system
     4. Dd. Supermax system
120. 12056. Which of the following is not one of the reasons cited for the growth in incarcerated populations?

     1. Aa. Federal prison growth
     2. Bb. Increased probability of incarceration
     3. Cc. Inmates serving more time for each crime
     4. Dd. Private prisons
121. 12157. Incarceration rates have increased dramatically, particularly due to:

     1. Aa. Terrorism
     2. Bb. Harsher penalties for sex offenders
     3. Cc. The war on drugs
     4. Dd. The increasing number of juveniles tried and incarcerated as adults
122. 12258. Which level of prisons is considered a correctional institution designed and organized to control and discipline dangerous felons, as well as prevent escape, with intense supervision, cement walls, and electronic, barbed wire fences?

     1. Aa. Maximum-security prisons
     2. Bb. Medium-security prisons
     3. Cc. Minimum-security prisons
     4. Dd. Supermax prisons
123. 12359. Which prison design is composed of a "wagon-wheel"-like structure that was created with the dual goals of separation and control?

     1. Aa. Campus style
     2. Bb. Courtyard style
     3. Cc. Radial design
     4. Dd. Telephone-pole design
124. 12460. What type of prison design is characterized by having housing units scattered among functional units such as the dining room, recreation area, and treatment centers?

     1. Aa. Campus style
     2. Bb. Courtyard style
     3. Cc. Radial design
     4. Dd. Telephone-pole design
125. 12561. Inmates who compile extensive misconduct records are usually housed, along with violent and repeat offenders, in ____.

     1. Aa. Jail
     2. Bb. Maximum-security
     3. Cc. Medium-security
     4. Dd. Minimum-security
126. 12662. The ____ prison is defined as a correctional facility reserved for those inmates who have extensive records of misconduct in maximum-security prisons; it is characterized by extremely strict control and supervision over the inmates, including extensive use of solitary confinement.

     1. Aa. Maximum-security
     2. Bb. Medium-security
     3. Cc. Minimum-security
     4. Dd. Supermax
127. 12763. Which level of prisons is relatively rare and extremely controversial due to its overly harsh methods of punishing and controlling the most dangerous prisoners?

     1. Aa. Maximum-security
     2. Bb. Medium-security
     3. Cc. Minimum-security
     4. Dd. Supermax
128. 12864. The main difference between police agencies and correctional facilities is that correctional facilities sometimes lack:

     1. Aa. A chain of command
     2. BBureaucracy
     3. Cc. Continuity of purpose
     4. Dd. A military structure
129. 12965. The management structures of both police agencies and correctional facilities are similar in that both have:

     1. Aa. A chain of command
     2. Bb. Continuity of purpose
     3. Cc. A decentralized leadership structure
     4. Dd. A military structure
130. 13066. The ____ is ultimately responsible for the operation of the prison.

     1. Aa. Sheriff
     2. Bb. Attorney General
     3. Cc. Warden
     4. Dd. Chief
131. 13167. Custodial employees in prisons, those who deal directly with inmates,

     1. Aa. Make up more than three-quarters of a prison’s staff
     2. Bb. Make up more than half of a prison’s staff
     3. Cc. Make up approximately 40% of a prison’s staff
     4. Dd. Make up 100% of a prison’s staff, because all employees are categorized as custodial
132. 13268. Arguments against private prisons include:

     1. Aa. There is too much red tape involved in their management
     2. Bb. The operators cut corners
     3. Cc. Conditions are primitive and unsanitary
     4. Dd. They are too expensive
133. 13369. The incentive to privatize is primarily to:

     1. Aa. Best rehabilitate inmates
     2. Bb. Decrease the cost of incarceration
     3. Cc. Increase public safety
     4. Dd. Increase the salaries of correctional officers
134. 13470. Which of the following is a correctional facility, usually operated by county government, used to hold persons awaiting trial or those who have been found guilty of misdemeanors?

     1. AJail
     2. Bb. Maximum-security prison
     3. Cc. Medium-security prison
     4. Dd. Minimum-security prison
135. 13571. Which type of facility is responsible for receiving individuals pending arraignment and holding them while awaiting trial?

     1. Aa. Jail
     2. Bb. Maximum-security prison
     3. Cc. Medium-security prison
     4. Dd. Minimum-security prison
136. 13672. Which of the following is not one of the roles performed by jails?

     1. Aa. Hold individuals convicted of felonies
     2. Bb. Receive individuals pending arraignment and holding them while awaiting trial
     3. Cc. Temporarily detaining juveniles pending transfer to juvenile authorities
     4. Dd. Hold the mentally ill pending transfer to health facilities
137. 13773. Disenfranchisement refers to:

     1. Aa. Barring convicts from obtaining driver’s licenses
     2. Bb. Taking away a convict’s ability to participate in mainstream society
     3. Cc. Taking away the convict’s right to vote
     4. Dd. Violating the civil rights of inmates
138. 13874. High rates of incarceration likely lead to:

     1. Aa. Higher rates of criminal offending
     2. Bb. Greater democratic participation
     3. Cc. Increased delinquent behavior among the children of the incarcerated
     4. Dd. A decline in the unemployment rate
139. 13975. Having a parent in prison puts a child at greater risk of:

     1. Aa. Suffering financial hardship
     2. Bb. Reduced supervision
     3. Cc. Reduced discipline
     4. Dd. All of these

Beschreibung

SOC 170 Quiz am SOC 170 Final Exam, erstellt von Sean O'Brien am 16/12/2018.

Autor

Sean O'Brien

Sprache

English

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7

Schlagwörter

soc 170

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