Quiz
Infection control/care plans/health and safety - Veterinary Nursing Exam
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1According to the Orem model of nursing, needs that vary as a result of the patients age/life stage are:
- ADevelopmental self-care requisites
- BUniversal self-care requisites
- CHealth deviation requisites
- DSelf-care deficits
2Which of the following best describes a politico-economic factor affecting the activities of living?
- AInjury or disease
- BThe patient being insured
- CPatient separation anxiety
- DOwner views on preventative health care
3Which of the following is not a universal care requisite according to Orem?
- AAir
- BWater
- CDying
- DActivity and rest
4Pain which has gone beyond the normal response of tissues to that which involves the central nervous system is known as:
- AAcute
- BAdaptive
- CChronic
- DMaladaptive
5Which of the following best describes diastolic blood pressure?
- APressure when the heart is contracting
- BPressure when the heart is relaxed
- CMaximum pressure in the arteries
- DMaximum pressure in the veins
6Which of the following may benefit from the placement of a wound drain as part of the postoperative management?
- ARemoval of a large subcutaneous mass
- BAural haemotoma repair
- CRemoval of a closed pyometra
- DRepair of an incised wound
7Which of the following would represent an ideal body condition score characteristic?
- ARibs, spine and pelvic bone visible
- BNo palpable fat on chest
- CObvious waist
- DNo abdominal fat
- ESpine not palpable
8Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of hydrotherapy?
- AObesity
- BPulmonary disease
- CNeurological dysfunction
- DImprovement of physical well-being
9Which of the following feeding tubes would be indicated for use in a patient with a megaoesophagus?
- ANaso-oesophageal
- BOesophagostomy
- CGastrostomy
- DJejunostomy
10Which of the following is an enteral route of drug administration?
- AIntraperitoneal
- BIntraosseous
- CIntravenous
- DIntraoral
11Which of the following should be avoided when administering an intramuscular injection?
- ALumbar
- BBicep femoris
- CQuadriceps
- DTriceps
- ECervical dorsal
12Which type of bandage can be stretched, released, and will revert back to its original condition?
- ACohesive
- BAdhesive
- CNon-conforming
- DConforming
13Which type of bandage is:
Vet wrap = [blank_start]Cohesive[blank_end]
WOW bandage = [blank_start]Non-conforming[blank_end]
Bandesive = [blank_start]Adhesive[blank_end]
Orthoband = [blank_start]Padding[blank_end]
Knit-fix = [blank_start]Conforming[blank_end]- ACohesive
- BNon-conforming
- CAdhesive
- DPadding
- EConforming
14Which of the following dressings would be the best for a malodorous wound?
- ACharcoal
- BHydrocolloid
- CParaffin gauze
- DCalcium-alginate
15What would be an ideal temperature for an adult dog hospitalised in isolation?
- A9-15 °C
- B21-26 °C
- C18-21 °C
- D10-15 °C
- E15-18 °C
16What is the definition of reverse barrier nursing?
- AThe isolation of immunocompromised patients for their own protection
- BThe protocol followed when a patient can be re-introduced to the normal hospital environment following isolation
- CThe discharge of a patient following hospitalisation in isolation
- DRoutine nursing of a non-infectious patient
17Which of the following species may exhibit crib biting when hospitalised?
- ACat
- BDog
- CHorse
- DFerret
18Which of the following represents the correct order of the stages within the nursing process?
- AAPIE
- BPIEA
- CIPAE
- DEAPI
- EAPEI
19How many air volume changes per hour should there be in an isolation facility?
- A4
- B6
- C10
- D12
- E21
20What is the recommended minimum ratio of isolation kennels to dog kennels?
- A1:10
- B1:30
- C1:50
- D1:70
21What is the recommended minimum ratio of isolation kennels to cat kennels?
- A1:10
- B1:30
- C1:50
- D1:70
22What colour would the mucous membranes be in a patient with hypoxaemia?
- ARed
- BYellow
- CBlue
- DWhite
23Which of the following would be a common early clinical sign of dehydration?
- AProlonged CRT
- BSunken eyes
- CSkin changes
- DDry mucous membranes
24Which of the following is a method of respiratory physiotherapy?
- ATapotement
- BCoupage
- CEffleurage
- DPetrissage
25Which of these types of bandage would be used to reduce oedema in an equine patient?
- AConforming
- BPressage
- CEhmer
- DVelpeau
26Which of the following would be at the highest risk of myopathy?
- ACat
- BGreat dane
- CShih tzu
- DHorse
- EBearded dragon
27Which of the following categories of debridement would the use of a wet to dry dressing come under?
- AAutolytic
- BChemical
- CMechanical
- DSurgical
28Which of the following would benefit from a sand bath whilst hospitalised?
- AChinchilla
- BHorse
- CRabbit
- DMouse
29Which of the following patients would you place in a kennel measuring 91cm high x 152cm wide x 72cm deep?
- ALabrador
- BMiniature schnauzer
- CBasset hound
- DSpinone
30Which of the following would be secured using a Chinese finger trap suture?
- AOesophagostomy tube
- BFoley catheter
- COver the needle cannula
- DStomach tube
31Which of the following is the minimum recommended clearance above a horse's ears in a stable?
- A30cm
- B60cm
- C100cm
- D120cm
32What would be the minimum expected urinary output for a patient over a 6 hour period?
- A1ml
- B6ml
- C12ml
- D30ml
33Which of the following is a direct method of monitoring blood pressure?
- ADoppler
- BOscillometric
- CSphygmomanometry
- DCentral venous pressure
34A fluctuating temperature with two differing levels is known as:
- APyrexia
- BDiphasic
- CHyperthermia
- DTemperature deficit
35Which of the following pulse points would NOT be appropriate for use in a conscious patient?
- ADigital
- BFemoral
- CCoccygeal
- DSub-lingual
36Orthopnea describes breathing which:
- AIs with an open mouth
- BIs deep for a short time, then slight
- CIs eased by the patient standing or upright
- DCauses the chest to move in an opposite motion
37Flail chest is breathing which:
- AIs with an open mouth
- BIs eased by the patient standing or upright
- CIs deep for a short time, then slight
- DCauses the chest to move in an opposite motion
38Pulse which naturally alters by increasing on inspiration and decreasing on expiration is known as:
- ASinus arrhythmia
- BWater hammer
- CPulse deficit
- DHypokinetic
39A delay from heart rate to pulse is known as:
- ASinus arrhythmia
- BPulse deficit
- CWater hammer
- DHypokinetic
40A patient suffering from congestion would have which of the following mucous membrane colours?
- ABrick red
- BYellow
- CWhite
- DBlue
41The expected minimum urinary output for a 20kg patient over an 8 hour period would be:
- A50ml
- B160ml
- C320ml
- D420ml
42Paralysis occurring on only one side of the body is known as:
- AQuadriplegia
- BTetraplegia
- CParaplegia
- DHemiplegia
43The term for decreased respiratory rate is:
- AOrthopnea
- BTachypnoea
- CBradypnoea
- DDyspnoea
44Which of the following patients would be a cause for concern when monitoring their vital signs?
- AA cat with a pulse rate of 140bpm
- BA rabbit with a temperature of 40°C
- CA dog with a respiratory rate of 25bpm
- DA guinea pig with a CRT of 2 seconds
45Who must veterinary practices be registered with before they can supply veterinary medicines?
- ARCVS
- BVMD
- CDEFRA
- DAMTRA
46What common group of drugs are known for causing reactions such as anaphylaxis?
- ANSAIDS
- BAntibiotics
- COpioids
- DSteroids
47Which drugs cannot be ordered electronically?
- ASchedule 2
- BSchedule 2 + 3
- CSchedule 5
- DPOM-V
48Pharmacy records should be retained for how long?
- A3 years
- B5 years
- C2 years
- DIndefinitely
49Which items should be unpacked first from an order?
- AFridge items + controlled drugs
- BFridge items + liquids
- CControlled drugs + special order items
- DLiquids + vials
50How long should a controlled drugs register be retained for following the last dated entry (minimum)?
- A2 years
- B3 years
- C5 years
- D6 years
51The misuse of drugs act 1971 controls all dangerous drugs
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
52The misuse of drugs regulations 1985 is NOT concerned with controlled drugs.
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
53Which legislation classifies the controlled drugs into 5 schedules?
- AThe misuse of drugs regulations 1985
- BThe misuse of drugs act 1971
- CThe veterinary medicine regulations 2002
- DThe cascade prescribing system
54Which drugs must have their destruction witnessed by a police officer?
- ASchedule 1
- BSchedule 2
- CSchedule 3
- DSchedule 2 + 3
55What is the minimum/maximum temperature range for the pharmacy?
- A5-8°C
- B8-25°C
- C11-30°C
- D5-28°C
56[blank_start]An ampoule[blank_end] is single use, snap to open
[blank_start]A vial[blank_end] can be single or multi use- AAn ampoule
- BA vial
57Which type of bin would a denaturing kit go into after it has been used?
- AGeneral waste
- BPharmaceutical waste
- CHazardous waste
- DInfectious waste
58If not otherwise specified by the manufacturer, how long should open vials be kept for before disposal?
- A14 days
- B7 days
- C28 days
- D3 months
59How long are written prescriptions for controlled drugs valid for?
- A14 days
- B28 days
- C3 months
- D6 months
60How long are written prescriptions for POM-V drugs valid for?
- A14 days
- B28 days
- CUp to 3 months
- DUp to 6 months
61POM-V medications can be prescribed by all veterinary staff
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
62POM-VPS drugs can be prescribed by SQPs
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
63Which organisation is responsible for training and CPD for SQPs?
- AAMTRA
- BRCVS
- CVMD
- DVMR
64Within what time scale should controlled drugs be entered into the register?
- ABefore leaving the practice that day
- BWithin 24 hours
- CWithin 48 hours
- DWithin a week
65What is the acceptable temperature range for a fridge?
- A2-8°C
- B0-5°C
- C2-10°C
- D4-10°C
66What is the minimum time that invoices for controlled drugs should be retained?
- A1 year
- B2 years
- C3 years
- D5 years
67Which regulations require practices to assess risk to health and safety from veterinary medicines?
- ACOSHH
- BRIDDOR
- CHSAWA
- DVMR
68What is the SARSS scheme for?
- AAdverse reactions
- BTraining SQPs
- CControlled drugs
- DCategorising medications
69Which of the following is an act of veterinary surgery and should only be carried out by a veterinary surgeon?
- AFirst aid on wildlife
- BEuthanasia of a rabbit
- CExtraction of teeth from a cat
- DUrinary catheterisation of a dog
70The safe use and control of x-ray chemicals within practice is primarily governed by which of the following regulations?
- AThe health and safety at work act
- BThe control of pollutants act
- CThe ionising radiation regulations
- DControl of substances hazardous to health
71Which piece of equipment involves the process of cavitation?
- AUltrasound scanner
- BUltrasonic bath
- CEthylene oxide
- DAutoclave
72Which of the following is the recommended screen break time?
- A5-10 mins break after 50-60 mins continuous screen time
- B15 mins break after 2 hours continuous screen time
- C15-20 mins break after 50-60 mins continuous screen time
- D30 mins break after 2 hours continuous screen time
73How much mandatory CPD does a RVN have to do?
- A35 hours per year
- B15 hours over 3 years
- C45 hours over 3 years
- D45 hours per year
74Monitoring general anaesthesia during a procedure is ultimately the responsibility of:
- AThe anaesthetic nurse present during the procedure
- BThe veterinary surgeon performing the procedure
- CThe senior RVN present at the time
- DThe senior partner of the practice
75Who should an adverse suspected drug reaction be reported to via the SARSS scheme?
- AAnimal medicines training regulatory authority
- BRoyal college of veterinary surgeons
- CVeterinary medicines directorate
- DRoyal pharmaceutical society
- EDEFRA
76Which of the following cannot be performed by lay staff?
- AGiving an intramuscular injection
- BMonitoring anaesthesia
- CClipping a dog's nails in a nurse clinic
- DDispensing an AVM-GSL medication
77Which of the following would permit a nurse to induce anaesthesia?
- AThe anaesthesia is given to effect by an RVN
- BThe anaesthesia is given incrementally by an RVN
- CThe anaesthesia is given as a specific quantity by a SVN under direction
- DThe anaesthesia is given as a specific quantity by a SVN under supervision
78Which of the following cannot be performed by an RVN?
- AMinor surgery
- BMedical treatment
- CNursing diagnosis
- DMedical diagnosis
79Which of the following is the second stage of a risk assessment?
- AIdentify the hazards
- BRecord the findings
- CDecide who might be harmed and how
- DEvaluate the risks and decide on the precautions to be taken
80Accidents and near misses at work should be reported under the RIDDOR scheme if it results in the person having more than:
- A3 days off work
- B7 days off work including a weekend
- C7 days off work excluding a weekend
- D10 days off work
81The daily consecutive rest period for each adult worker in each 24 hour period should be:
- A8 hours
- B9 hours
- C10 hours
- D11 hours
82A 17 year old SVN employed at the practice should have a break of 30 minutes after they have worked for:
- A4.5 hours
- B6 hours
- C6.5 hours
- D8 hours
83What thickness of lead equivalent should be contained in gloves used as small animal radiographic protective equipment?
- A0.25mm
- B0.35mm
- C0.5mm
- D1mm
84Adult workers have a maximum permissible dose of 100 msV over a 5 year period. What is the maximum dose in any single year within the 5 year period, which they can receive?
- A20 msV
- B25 msV
- C50 msV
- D100 msV
85The Ionising Radiation Regulations 1999 (Medical Use) govern the use of radiography in practice. Who issues these regulations?
- AHSE
- BVDS
- CRCVS
- DNRPB
86The most suitable way to move a 42kg anaesthetised Italian Spinone from the prep room to the operating theatre would be with a:
- ASlide
- BStretcher
- CHoist
- D2 people manually supporting the patient
87Controlled drugs should be disposed of by:
- ADirect disposal into a blue bin
- BDirect disposal into a yellow bin
- CDenaturing and disposal into a blue container
- DDenaturing and disposal into an orange container
88Which piece of equipment needs pressurised leak testing?
- AAutoclave
- BEndoscope
- CSuction equipment
- DAnaesthetic vaporiser
89Place the following in the correct sequence representing the order in which they should be carried out, when using clippers.
1=site the blades
2=snap down the blades
3=switch on the clippers
4=switch on at plug- A4 3 2 1
- B1 2 3 4
- C4 1 3 2
- D1 4 2 3
90What piece of equipment would you be dealing with, if the routine maintenance involved cleaning the specula, checking the bulb, and ensuring the batteries are fully charged?
- AOtoscope
- BEndoscope
- CLaparoscope
- DOphthalmoscope
91Prior to use, a refractometer should be calibrated using:
- ATap water
- BSaline
- CChlorhexidine
- DDistilled water
92Which of the following is not true regarding PAT testing?
- ATesting is not required by law
- BIt should be done on a yearly basis
- CA qualified electrician is not required to perform the test
- DFrequency of testing is based on the type of equipment and place of use
93On a prescription for controlled drugs, which of the following must be written in both text and numerical form?
- AClient's address
- BThe strength of the medication
- CThe total quantity to be dispensed
- DThe length of time the prescription is valid for
94Practices who have less than 5 employees do not require a
- ARadiation protection supervisor
- BWritten health and safety policy
- CRadiation protection advisor
- DAppointed first aider
95Which of the following pieces of legislation is RIDDOR part of?
- AThe health and safety at work act
- BThe health and safety first aid regulations
- CControl of substances hazardous to health
- DWorkplace (health, safety and welfare) regulations 2002
96A licence from the Veterinary Medicines Directorate would be required under the cascade system for which of the following circumstances?
A drug was used which- Atreats the same condition in a different species
- Btreats the same species but for a different condition
- Cneeds to be imported from overseas
- Dis primarily intended for human use
97The active ingredient which poses a health and safety risk in x-ray developer is
- APhenidone Hydroquinone
- BBarium fluorohalide
- CAmmonium Thiosulphate
- DLithium fluoride
98Which of the following would be the correct disposal of a needle contaminated with medication?
- ARe-sheath, remove by hand and place into a yellow sharps container
- BRe-sheath, remove by hand and place into an orange sharps container
- CRemove needle using the facility in the top of a yellow sharps container without re-sheathing
- DRemove needle using the facility in the top of an orange sharps container without re-sheathing
99Accident book records must be retained r=for
- A2 years
- B3 years
- C5 years
- D7 years
100Which of the following defines a micro-organism which can synthesise its own food?
- AHeterotroph
- BAutotroph
- CParatenic
- DObligate
101Most bacteria are defined as:
- AHeterotrophs
- BAutotrophs
- CParatenic
- DEukaryotic
102Commensal microorganisms normally live on the body without causing harm or disease.
- ARichtig
- BFalsch
103Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for the majority of dermatophyte cases in cats?
- ATrichophyton Equinum
- BLinognathus setosus
- CMicrosporum canis
- DEscherichia coli
104Which of the following is the common process of asexual bacterial replication?
- AMitosis
- BBudding
- CConjugation
- DBinary fission
105Donor cells will result from
- AMitosis
- BMeiosis
- CBinary fission
- DConjugation
106Which bacteria is composed of a single circle?
[blank_start]Cocci[blank_end]- ACocci
107Which bacteria is composed of two circles?
[blank_start]Diplococci[blank_end]- ADiplococci
108Which bacteria is rod-shaped?
[blank_start]Bacilli[blank_end]- ABacilli
109Which bacteria is shaped like a chain of cocci?
[blank_start]Streptococci[blank_end]- AStreptococci
110Which bacteria is shaped like a bunch of grapes?
[blank_start]Staphylococci[blank_end]- AStaphylococci
111Which bacteria is spiral shaped?
[blank_start]Spirochete[blank_end]- ASpirochete
112What type of bacteria causes strangles?
[blank_start]Streptococci[blank_end]- AStreptococci
113What type of bacteria causes leptospirosis and lyme disease?
[blank_start]Spirochete[blank_end]- ASpirochete
114Which of the following terms is associated with an Endotoxin?
- AThe toxin is secreted from a live bacterial cell
- BResponsible for causing laminitis in horses
- CProduced by gram positive bacteria
- DFavour dry conditions
115Which of the following is not a bacterial disease in horses?
- ARhodococcus equi
- BStreptococcus equi equi
- CTaylorella equigenitalis
- DTrichophyton mentagrophyte
116Which of the following neuro-toxic bacterial infections is a potential health risk for veterinary staff, for which vaccination is offered?
- AToxoplasma gondii
- BClostridium tetani
- CEscherichia coli
- DRabies
117Within how many days must a report be received by the HSE following a dangerous occurrence?
- A7
- B8
- C10
- D14
118How many stages does a risk assessment contain?
- A3
- B4
- C5
- D6
119What is the maximum time frame advised between PAT testing equipment in a veterinary practice?
- A6 months
- B1 year
- C3 years
- D2 years
120Sharps which have been contaminated with medications need to be disposed of in which of the following containers?
- AYellow with an orange lid
- BPlain yellow
- CYellow with a purple lid
- DYellow with a blue lid
121Mask and gloves used as PPE during a dental procedure should be disposed of in:
- AA yellow bag with a black vertical stripe
- BA yellow bag with a purple stripe
- CA plain yellow bag
- DAn orange bag
122What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation which a 17 year old SVN in practice can receive per annum?
- A1 msV
- B6msV
- C20 msV
- D50 msV
123The active ingredient which poses an H+S risk in x-ray fixer is
- APhenidone hydroquinone
- BBarium fluorohalide
- CAmmonium thiosulphate
- DLithium fluoride
124During a diastolic blood pressure reading, pressure would be:
- AHigher in the veins
- BHigher in the arteries
- CLower in the veins
- DEqual in both arteries and veins
125The radiographic controlled area should be a minimum of what distance away from the tube head?
- A1m
- B2m
- C5m
- D7m
126What is the expected rest period for an adult worker in a 7 day period according to the Working Time Regulations?
- A6 hours
- B8 hours
- C11 hours
- D24 hours
127Which of the following types of fire extinguisher would be used on an electrical fire?
- ACarbon dioxide
- BDry powder
- CWater
- DFoam
128Which of the following would not under any circumstances be reportable under RIDDOR?
- AAutoclave explosion
- BExposure to soda lime
- COutbreak of parvovirus
- DExcessive radiation from the x-ray machine
129Which of the following statements is true regarding anaesthesia equipment safety?
- ARefill the vapouriser at the start of the day, service it 6 monthly, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen
- BRefill the vapouriser at the end of the day, service it 6 monthly, and disconnect the oxygen first, then the nitrous
- CRefill the vapouriser at the start of the day, service it bi-annually, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen
- DRefill the vapouriser at the end of the day, service it annually, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen
130Which of the following is true regarding the controlled drugs register?
- AA computerised back up must be kept of the written records
- BEntries must be made within 48 hours
- CAll entries must be made in red indelible ink
- DIt must be a bound book
131How much CPD must a vet complete over a 3 year period?
- A105 hrs
- B100 hrs
- C50 hrs
- D45 hrs
132Which of the following types of surgical equipment would you store unsterilised?
- AOrthopaedic implants
- BArtery forceps
- CRetractors
- DScissors
133Which of the following disinfectants would emit a dangerous gas if in contact with urine?
- APhenols
- BAlcohol
- CBiguanides
- DHypochlorites
134Which of the following disinfectant categories is toxic to cats?
- AAldehydes
- BIodophors
- CBiguanides
- DPhenols
135If an autoclave is required to sterilise an item in under 5 minutes and the pressure is set at 30psi what temperature setting should be selected?
- A121°C
- B126°C
- C134°C
- D137°C
136Which of the following describes ethylene oxide indicator tape?
- AGreen background, yellow to red colour change of stripes
- BCream background, self-colour to brown change of stripes
- CYellow background, green to purple change of stripes
- DWhite background, yellow to blue colour change of stripes
137Which of the following diseases is caused by bacilli bacteria?
- AEscherichia coli
- BLeptospirosis
- CStrangles
- DMRSA
138Which of the following would be a vector for the spread of bartonella henselae?
- ATicks
- BUrine
- CCat faeces
- DCat scratch
139Which of the following describes a disease that can be passed from humans to animals?
- AAnthroponosis
- BNotifiable
- CZoonosis
- DVirulent
140Differential diagnosis of disease forms part of which process within the SOAP patient assessment method
- ASubjective
- BObjective
- CAssessment
- DPlanning
141Which of the following describes the RLT model of nursing vs the Orem model?
- AAnimal's abilities vs activities of living
- BActivities of living vs self care
- CDisease focus vs animal's abilities
- DUniversal care requisites vs self-care
142Clinical signs associated with dehydration emerge when the patient is experiencing what level of dehydration?
- ALess than 5%
- B5-6%
- C6-8%
- D12-15%
143Which of the following ventilation methods would be best for use in isolation facilities?
- APassive
- BAir conditioning
- CPositive pressure
- DNegative pressure
144Which of the following should be placed in a hospital stable which measures 4.25m x 4.25m?
- APonies up to 14.2hh
- BHorses up to 16.2 hh
- CHorses over 16.2 hh
- DA foaling mare
145Which of the following categories does chlorhexidine fall under?
- AIodophors
- BPhenolics
- CBiguanides
- DHalogenated tertiary amines
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- Covers all units from this exam, including infection control, care plans, health and safety etc.
- Autor
- Hattie ,,
- Sprache
- English
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