Operational Procedures 01-21

1. 11.1. The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

   1. Aa. The aircraft manufacturer’s list
   2. Bb. The aircraft State of Registry
   3. Cc. The Operator.
   4. Dd. The manufacturer.
2. 21.2. The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

   1. Aa. The aircraft manufacturer’s list
   2. Bb. The aircraft State of Registry
   3. Cc. The Operator.
   4. Dd. The manufacturer.
3. 31.3. Which of these can be more restrictive:

   1. Aa. MEL
   2. Bb. MMEL
4. 41.4. Reference shall be made to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for equipment found unserviceable at any time:

   1. Aa. From engine start-up until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight.
   2. Bb. prior to the aircraft take-off.
   3. Cc. prior to the flight time stage.
   4. Dd. during the flight
5. 51.5. The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the …………………………………. to determine whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should ………………………………… become inoperative. Which of the following completes the statement:

   1. Aa. Maintenance, Supervisor any system
   2. Bb. Chief Steward, the galley equipment
   3. Cc. Operator, any aircraft safety system
   4. Dd. Commander, any instrumentation or system of equipment
6. 61.6. The document taking account of the aeroplane types and variants operated including procedures to be followed is the:

   1. Aa. MEL
   2. Bb. MMEL
   3. Cc. Operations Manual
   4. Dd. CDL
7. 71.7. What kind of aircraft operation is considered a photography flight?

   1. Aa. Aerial work
   2. Bb. Operative Flight
   3. Cc. Transportation Flight
   4. Dd. Visual Flight
8. 81.8. An aerodrome can always be used as an alternate if it has all the services and equipment to satisfy the performance of the aeroplane:

   1. Aa. True
   2. Bb. False
9. 91.9. The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the center line of a runaway can see the runway Surface markings is called:

   1. Aa. Visibility
   2. Bb. Runway Visual Range
   3. Cc. Ceiling
   4. Dd. None of the above
10. 102.1. Why are Operators required to establish a quality control system?

    1. Aa) To give the travelling public reassurance that the operation is properly regulated.
    2. Bb) So that they can display the EN ISO 9000 logo on their headed note paper.
    3. Cc) To ensure safe operational practices and airworthy aeroplanes.
    4. Dd) To ensure that EASA 145 is complied with regarding engineering maintenance.

11. 112.2. Which of the following does a quality system require?

    1. Aa) A quality manager.
    2. Bb) An operations manual.
    3. Cc) Non-conformance monitoring.
    4. Dd) To be in accordance with the model quality system detailed by the Authority.
12. 122.3. Passengers can be accommodated only in:

    1. Aa) Areas of the aeroplane designed for the purpose
    2. Bb) Areas in which cargo is not carried
    3. Cc) Parts of the aeroplane in which dangerous cargo is not carried
    4. Dd) Areas in which access is not permitted on the ground
13. 132.4. No persons other than flight crew are allowed on the flight deck. Which of the following correctly identifies permitted exceptions?

    1. Aa) Invited passengers; Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons
    2. Bb) Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons; Personnel permitted by the Operations Manual
    3. Cc) Cabin Crew members; Police Officers; Personnel permitted by the Operations Manual
    4. Dd) Operators employees; Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons
14. 142.5. What must the Commander ensure that all those on the flight deck are familiar with?

    1. Aa) Check lists
    2. Bb) Standard operating procedures (SOPs)
    3. Cc) Contents of the Operations Manual
    4. Dd) Safety procedures
15. 152.6. Which of the following are not to be operated on board aeroplanes?

    1. Aa) Mobile phones
    2. Bb) Electric razors
    3. Cc) Electronic calculators
    4. Dd) Hand-held electronic games
16. 162.7. Who is responsible for ensuring that no person acts recklessly or negligently, so as to endanger an aeroplane or the persons on board, Orto permit an aeroplane to endanger persons or property?

    1. Aa) The Operator
    2. Bb) The Commander
    3. Cc) The Authority of the State of Registration
    4. Dd) The authority of the State of the Operator
17. 172.8. Which combination of the following list of documents correctly identifies those that must be carried on each flight?
    1. Certificate of Registration (CofR) 2. Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) 3. Noise certificate
    4. Air Operators Certificate (AOC) 5. Aircraft radio license 6. Third party liability insurance certificates
    7. Crew licenses with appropriate ratings

    1. Aa) 1, 2,5and7
    2. Bb) 1,2 and 7
    3. Cc) 2,5 and 7
    4. Dd) All of them
18. 182.9. Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?

    1. Aa) Yes
    2. Bb) No, only the parts concerning crew duty
    3. Cc) No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight
    4. Dd) No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and those concerning crew duty
19. 192.10. Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried on all flight?
    1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP) 2. Mass and balance Documentation 3. NOTAMS 4. The Technical Log
    5. Maps and Charts 6. Passenger and cargo manifests

    1. Aa) All except 1
    2. Bb) All except 3
    3. Cc) All except 6
    4. Dd) All except 4
20. 202.11. Certain documents are to be retained by the Operator on the ground. If it is not possible to leave the documents in safe custody such that in the event of their being required in the course of an accident investigation or for any reason given by the authority, they may be:

    1. Aa) Be kept in the personal possession of the Commander
    2. Bb) Carried on the aeroplane and stored in a document case in the cargo/luggage hay
    3. Cc) Carried on the aeroplane providing they are stowed in a fire proof container
    4. Dd) Posted by registered mail to the Operator, or taken by bonded courier
21. 212.12. The Operator and the Commander are required to produce documents and records relating to a flight:

    1. Aa) Within a reasonable period of time
    2. Bb) Within 10 days
    3. Cc) Within 7 days
    4. Dd) Within 48 hours
22. 222.13. What is a 'dry lease'?

    1. Aa) Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible fuel etc...
    2. Bb) Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased
    3. Cc) Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased
    4. Dd) Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew
23. 232.14. Where an aeroplane is Dry Leased Out to a non-EASA operator who is an operator certified by an ICAO contracting State, responsibility has to be assumed for the maintenance of the aeroplane. Who is responsible for assuming the responsibility?

    1. Aa) The operator who is to operate the aeroplane
    2. Bb) An EASA approved maintenance operator
    3. Cc) The Authority of the State of the Operator who is receiving the aeroplane
    4. Dd) ICAO
24. 242.15. If an EASA operator is wet leasing out an aeroplane, who is the operator?

    1. Aa) The EASA Operator
    2. Bb) The Lessee
    3. Cc) The EASA authority for the State of the Lessee
    4. Dd) The EASA authority for the State of the Lessor
25. 253.1. An Air Operators Certificate (AOC) is required by any operator operating aeroplanes for which of the following purposes?

    1. Aa. Public transport of fare paying passengers only
    2. Bb. Carriage of passengers and cargo for hire and reward with aeroplanes of max take off mass greater than 5700 kg
    3. Cc. Commercial air transport
    4. Dd. Public transport where more than 21 passengers are carried
26. 263.2. An applicant for an AOC must permit the authority to examine which of the following?

    1. Aa. All safety aspects of the operation
    2. Bb. The administration, financial stability and the maintenance schedules of the operation
    3. Cc. Any previous records of running an air transport operation
    4. Dd. The medical records of all employees of the company involved directly with the operation of aeroplanes
27. 273.3. In order to qualify for the issue of an AOC the operator must comply with certain requirements. Which combination of the following list of requirements satisfies what a prospective operator must demonstrate to the authority?
    1. The operator must not already hold an AOC issued by another authority unless approved
    2. The operator must only operate from the State of Registry
    3. The operator must have a registered office in the State issuing the AOC
    4. The operator must satisfy the Authority that he is able to conduct safe operations
    5. The operator must only employ EASA qualified personnel

    1. Aa. All the above
    2. Bb. 1, 3 and 5 only
    3. Cc. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. Dd. 1, 3 and 4 only
28. 283.4. An AOC may be revoked, suspended or varied if the Authority deems it necessary. On what grounds can this action be taken?

    1. Aa. If the profitability/financial stability of the operation gives cause for concern
    2. Bb. If the operation is unable to comply with the safety requirements
    3. Cc. If the Quality System is not EN/ISO 9000 approved
    4. Dd. If the operator is found guilty of unfair trading practices
29. 293.5. The terms of an AOC require the operator to maintain an organization capable of:

    1. Aa. Exercising operational and administrative control
    2. Bb. Exercising financial and administrative control
    3. Cc. Exercising operational control and supervision
    4. Dd. Exercising operational and quality control
30. 303.6. With regard to the organization of the operation, the Authority is required to be satisfied that:

    1. Aa. The organization is financially well managed
    2. Bb. The organization has a management structure approved by EN/ISO 9000
    3. Cc. The organization is staffed by JAR-145 personnel only
    4. Dd. The organization details a progressive management structure for operations as well as maintenance personnel
31. 313.7. The operator is required to staff certain employment areas. These are:

    1. Aa. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, administration, CDL
    2. Bb. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations, CDL
    3. Cc. Flight operations, maintenance, personnel training, ground operations, CDL
    4. Dd. Flight operations, crew training, administration, quality assurance
32. 323.8. In order to be satisfied that the operator is worthy to be granted an AOC which of the following may be required of the operator?

    1. Aa. A cash deposit of 10 000 euro be lodged with the EASA
    2. Bb. One or more demonstration flights be conducted
    3. Cc. The operation must be carried out for a period of six months without incident
    4. Dd. 10000 passengers must be carried ion a period of 6 months
33. 334.1. The MEL of an aircraft is found in the:

    1. Aa. Operations Manual
    2. Bb. Flight Record
    3. Cc. Flight Manual
    4. Dd. EASA Data Base
34. 344.2. Who is responsible for approving an Operations Manual of an Operator?

    1. Aa. EASA
    2. Bb. The State of the Operator
    3. Cc. The Operator
    4. Dd. The State Authority of the Operator
35. 354.3. Which of the following is correct?

    1. Aa. The Ops Manual is a part of the Flight Manual
    2. Bb. The Flight Manual is a part of the Ops. Manual
    3. Cc. The Ops and the Flight Manual are two different documents that have nothing to do with each other
    4. Dd. The Ops and the Flight Manual are the same document
36. 364.4. Where can you find the flight procedures and limitations for a particular plane used by an Operator?

    1. Aa. Ops Manual Part A
    2. Bb. Ops Manual Part B
    3. Cc. Ops Manual Part C
    4. Dd. Ops Manual Part D
37. 374.5. Where can you find the procedures and conditions used to perform or not a missed approach for a particular Operator?

    1. Aa. Ops Manual Part A
    2. Bb. Ops Manual Part B
    3. Cc. Ops Manual Part C
    4. Dd. Ops Manual Part D
38. 384.6. Who shall establish and maintain a method of supervision of flight operations?

    1. Aa. EASA
    2. Bb. The State of the Operator
    3. Cc. The Operator
    4. Dd. The State Authority of the Operator
39. 394.7. Which of the following are essential content of an operations manual?
    1. The Operator's flight time limitation scheme 2. Aircraft checklists 3. Aircraft system details
    4. Everyday operating procedures 5. Quality and Safety Program

    1. Aa. All of the above
    2. Bb. All except 5
    3. Cc. All except 4
    4. Dd. All except 4 and 5
40. 404.8. Who is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are briefed before take-off?

    1. Aa. The Operator
    2. Bb. The Commander
    3. Cc. The State of the Operator
    4. Dd. The Senior Flight Attendant
41. 414.9. Passengers are required to be briefed about the location and use of life jackets on what occasions?

    1. Aa. When required by the Operator
    2. Bb. When the Commander authorises the use of life jackets
    3. Cc. If the carriage of life jackets in the aeroplane is required
    4. Dd. Where flight over water (including lakes and rivers) is likely
42. 424.10. Passengers are to be secured in their seats by seat belts or harnesses during take-off and landing, turbulence and an emergency. When also must they be secured?

    1. Aa. During climb and descent
    2. Bb. During a practice emergency
    3. Cc. Whilst asleep with the seat fully reclined
    4. Dd. Whenever the precaution is considered necessary
43. 434.11. What instructions are to be given to passengers during an emergency in flight?

    1. Aa. Instruction regarding the use of life jackets
    2. Bb. Instructions concerning emergency actions that may be considered necessary
    3. Cc. Emergency evacuation instructions
    4. Dd. Instructions for the use of smoke hoods
44. 445.1. Who is responsible for establishing aerodrome operating minima (AOM)?

    1. Aa. ATC at the aerodrome
    2. Bb. The Commander
    3. Cc. The State of the Operator
    4. Dd. The Operator
45. 455.2. Who is responsible for authorizing the method of calculation of AOM?

    1. Aa. ATC at the aerodrome
    2. Bb. The Commander
    3. Cc. The State of the Operator
    4. Dd. The Operator
46. 465.3. Which of the following is not considered when establishing AOM?

    1. Aa. The frequency of meteorological reports
    2. Bb. Adequacy and provision of ground aids
    3. Cc. Dimensions and characteristics of runways
    4. Dd. The competence and experience of flight crews
47. 475.4. An Operational Flight Plan (OFP) must specify the take-off alternate ( diversion) aerodrome for use in the event of a flight emergency shortly after take-off when:

    1. Aa. The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima
    2. Bb. The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft to roll to a standstill if the brakes fail
    3. Cc. The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load
    4. Dd. There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure aerodrome
48. 485.5. Which of the following is valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome?

    1. Aa. Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin-engined aeroplane
    2. Bb. Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3-engined aeroplane with one engine out
    3. Cc. Not more than 1 hour flying distance for any aeroplane with one engine out
    4. Dd. 2 hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise speed for a 4-engined aeroplane
49. 495.6. In deciding if an aerodrome is useable as a take-off diversion, which of the following is correct:

    1. Aa. It must be capable of CATIIIA operations
    2. Bb. The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome of departure
    3. Cc. The RVR and cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of take-off
    4. Dd. For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the operator or the State of Registration and no approach is permitted to have a visual element (i.e. no circling approaches)
50. 505.7. A destination alterative aerodrome must be specified for:

    1. Aa. Any flight for public transport over 40km
    2. Bb. Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach can be made
    3. Cc. A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exists
    4. Dd. Any flight where a take-off diversion has been planned
51. 515.8. A flight may be conducted under VFR only if:

    1. Aa. VMC exists all along the route to be flown under VFR
    2. Bb. An IFR flight plan has previously been filed and the flight conditions are VMC
    3. Cc. A VFR flight plan has been filed and a clearance received
    4. Dd. The maximum take-off mass does not exceed 4 700Kg
52. 525.9. In order for a flight to be commenced under IFR:

    1. Aa. IMC must be expected to exist all along the route
    2. Bb. It must be reasonably expected that an instrument approach will be flown at the destination
    3. Cc. A met report must indicate that IMC exists somewhere along the route
    4. Dd. The met conditions must be equal to or better than the specified minima at the destination or destination alternate
53. 535.10. If information indicates that landing at ETA at the destination or one of the destination alternates would not be possible within the established minima, then:

    1. Aa. The flight may commence provided an en-route alternate (diversion) aerodrome will remain open throughout the duration of the flight
    2. Bb. The flight may commence if the operator authorizes reduced minima
    3. Cc. The flight may not commence
    4. Dd. The flight may commence providing sufficient holding fuel (2 hours plus 15% of cruising fuel) is carried as a contingency load
54. 545.11. If while en-route the last met report for the ETA is below the Destination Aerodrome Operating Minima:

    1. Aa. The flight may continue to the destination
    2. Bb. The flight may continue to the destination but will not commence the instrumental approach
    3. Cc. The flight must not continue and the aeroplane should land whenever it is possible
    4. Dd. The flight may continue if the Destination Alternate met report is above Aerodrome Operating Minima
55. 555.12. A precision approach runaway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:

    1. Aa. a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
    2. Bb. a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
    3. Cc. a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
    4. Dd. a RVR of 300 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
56. 565.13. The appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that during a period commencing ……………… hour before and ending ……………… hour after the ……………………………., the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima

    1. Aa. two, two, ETA
    2. Bb. one, one, ETA
    3. Cc. two, two, ETD
    4. Dd. one, one, ETD
57. 575.14. For a Cat III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:

    1. Aa. 50 m
    2. Bb. 150 m
    3. Cc. 100 m
    4. Dd. 75 m
58. 585.15. Which of the following is as VFR Operating Minima?

    1. Aa. 5000 ft AGL, 1500 mts vertically and 3000 mts horizontally from clouds
    2. Bb. 5000 ft AGL, 1500 mts horizontally and 3000 mts vertically from clouds
    3. Cc. 3000 ft AGL, 1500 mts horizontally and 5000 mts vertically from clouds
    4. Dd. 1500 ft AGL, 3000 mts horizontally from clouds and 5000 mts vertically from clouds
59. 596.1. An airplane with one passenger deck, equipped with 295 seats and effectively carrying 195 passengers must be equipped with:

    1. Aa. 3 emergency medical kit.
    2. Bb. 2 emergency medical kit.
    3. Cc. 3 first aid kit.
    4. Dd. 2 first aid kit.
60. 606.2. In an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least:

    1. Aa. 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is greater.
    2. Bb. 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is greater.
    3. Cc. 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is greater.
    4. Dd. 20% of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is greater.
61. 616.3. An airborne weather radar is mandatory on board, except for aeroplanes with:

    1. Aa. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 9 if pressurized.
    2. Bb. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 9 if non-pressurized.
    3. Cc. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 19 if pressurized.
    4. Dd. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 19 if non-pressurized.
62. 626.4. Which statements about the Public Address System is not true:

    1. Aa. It is mandatory for aeroplanes with an MOPSC of 19 or more.
    2. Bb. It can be integrated into the interphone system used by the flight crew.
    3. Cc. It must be accessible for immediate use from each flight crew station.
    4. Dd. It must be audible at the lavatories.
63. 636.5. A windshield wiper (or equivalent means of clearing water) is to be fitted in aeroplanes with MTOM greater than 5700 kgs:

    1. Aa. To the commander station.
    2. Bb. To the second-pilot station.
    3. Cc. To both stations.
    4. Dd. If rain conditions are expected during the flight.
64. 646.6. An A320 departs from Barcelona to Madrid with 150 passengers on board and with a take-off mass of 70000 kgs. Which of the following is not required on board?:

    1. Aa. Medical kits according to normative.
    2. Bb. First aid kits according to normative.
    3. Cc. An airborne weather radar.
    4. Dd. PBE for crew members.
65. 656.7. On a pressurized aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:

    1. Aa. provide passengers on board with oxygen following a cabin depressurization.
    2. Bb. assist a passenger with breathing disorders.
    3. Cc. provide selected passengers with oxygen.
    4. Dd. to protect crew when fighting fires.
66. 666.8. Following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is:

    1. Aa. 15000 ft.
    2. Bb. 13000 ft.
    3. Cc. 10000 ft.
    4. Dd. 8000 ft.
67. 676.9. First aid oxygen carried on a pressurized aircraft is used for:

    1. Aa. passengers following a decompression.
    2. Bb. passengers or crew when required
    3. Cc. crew only.
    4. Dd. passengers notified as having medical condition
68. 686.10. Doors and curtains between compartments must be secured:

    1. Aa. during the whole fight.
    2. Bb. while meal is being served.
    3. Cc. for take-off and landing.
    4. Dd. for turbulence.
69. 696.11. If there is a passenger who requires oxygen due to pathological respiratory disorders, which of the
    following shall be used:

    1. Aa. first aid oxygen
    2. Bb. supplemental oxygen
    3. Cc. not oxygen at all
    4. Dd. aeroplane must descend below 13000 ft
70. 706.12. 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the
    entire flight at pressure altitudes greater than:

    1. Aa. 15000 ft.
    2. Bb. 14000 ft.
    3. Cc. 13000 ft.
    4. Dd. 10000 ft.
71. 716.13. 10% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the
    entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:

    1. Aa. 10000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.
    2. Bb. 14000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.
    3. Cc. 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
    4. Dd. 10000 ft but not exceeding 14000 ft.
72. 727.1. If required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:

    1. Aa. plus a 10%
    2. Bb. in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest capacity
    3. Cc. plus 30%
    4. Dd. in the case of a loss of two rafts
73. 737.2. An aircraft with a MTOM of 50000 kgs and 150 passengers on board has a flight crew of 10 members. How many PBEs will be required for that flight?

    1. Aa. 10
    2. Bb. 11
    3. Cc. 150
    4. Dd. 160
74. 747.3. An airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than:

    1. Aa. 1.80 m
    2. Bb. 1.83 m
    3. Cc. 1.86 m
    4. Dd. 1.89 m
75. 757.4. Aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61-200 passengers will require the following number of megaphones on the passenger deck:

    1. Aa. 0
    2. Bb. 2
    3. Cc. 1
    4. Dd. 5
76. 767.5. How must the colour of the Break-In Points be?:

    1. Aa. White or yellow
    2. Bb. Yellow or red
    3. Cc. Red or white
    4. Dd. It does not matter as far as they can be seen.
77. 777.6. There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h 45m from an aerodrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulations is:

    1. Aa. 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats
    2. Bb. 60 life jackets
    3. Cc. one 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
    4. Dd. 60 life jackets and two 30-seat life boats
78. 787.7. How is an evacuation slide inflated?

    1. Aa. Using air from the air conditioning system
    2. Bb. Using air from the aircraft’s pneumatic system
    3. Cc. Using the engine bleed air
    4. Dd. Using a pressurized gas cylinder which is combined with the slide itself
79. 797.8. Which of the following statements about the location of the fire extinguishers on board is not correct:

    1. Aa. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in the flight crew compartment
    2. Bb. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in the main passenger compartment
    3. Cc. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in each gallery between passenger compartment.
    4. Dd. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in cargo compartment
80. 807.9. An aircraft with a MTOM of 232000 kgs and certificated to carry 300 passengers requires:
    1) one crash axe or crowbar on the flight crew compartment.
    2) one crash axe or crossbar in the rear gallery area.
    3) one crash axe or cross bar in the mid gallery area.

    1. Aa. 2
    2. Bb. 1
    3. Cc. 1, 2
    4. Dd. 1, 2, 3
81. 817.10. A private jet with a MOPSC of 7 wants to flight from Paris to London, but its Emergency Lighting System works using the energy supply from the electrical system of the aircraft. Is it allowed to perform that flight?:

    1. Aa. Yes, it has no limitations because its MOPSC is lower than 9.
    2. Bb. No.
    3. Cc. Yes, but only during daylight.
    4. Dd. No, because it’s a requirement in order to get a AOC.
82. 827.11. Which of the following is/are automatically activated in case of an accident?:
    1. Automatic fixed (ELT(AF))
    2. Automatic portable (ELT(AP))
    3. Automatic deployable (ELT(AD))
    4. Survival ELT (ELT(S))

    1. Aa. 1, 2.
    2. Bb. 1, 2, 3.
    3. Cc. 1, 2, 3, 4.
    4. Dd. None
83. 837.12. Which of the following is more likely to be carried in a life-raft?:

    1. Aa. Automatic fixed (ELT(AF))
    2. Bb. Automatic portable (ELT(AP))
    3. Cc. Automatic deployable (ELT(AD))
    4. Dd. Survival ELT (ELT(S))
84. 847.13. Which of the following can be portable?:
    1. Automatic fixed (ELT(AF))
    2. Automatic portable (ELT(AP))
    3. Automatic deployable (ELT(AD))
    4. Survival ELT (ELT(S)):

    1. Aa. 1, 2.
    2. Bb. 2, 3.
    3. Cc. 2, 3, 4.
    4. Dd. 2, 4.
85. 857.14. An aircraft with a MTOM of 70000 kgs and carrying 150 passengers, departures from Madrid destination
    Mallorca. Which of the following is required?:
    1) at least 160 life jackets
    2) at least 6 life-rafts of 30 people each
    3) at least one ELT (AF)
    4) at least one axe
    5) at least two first aid kits
    6) at least one medical kit
    7) a flight crew interphone system

    1. Aa. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
    2. Bb. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7.
    3. Cc. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7.
    4. Dd. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7.
86. 868.1. An audio selector panel operable from each flight crew member station is needed:

    1. Aa. In every flight
    2. Bb. In VFR flights
    3. Cc. In IFR flights
    4. Dd. If required by the State of the Operator
87. 878.2. Where minimum navigation performance (MNPS) is prescribed by a Regional Air Navigation Agreement (RNAV) the aeroplane shall be fitted with equipment which:

    1. Aa. Has been authorized by the State of the Operator
    2. Bb. Has been authorized by the Operator
    3. Cc. Has been authorized by the regional ATCU
    4. Dd. Performs within specified longitudinal accuracy
88. 888.3. Aircraft are to be fitted with navigation equipment which will enable it to proceed:

    1. Aa. In accordance with the Operational Flight Plan
    2. Bb. Along the prescribed RNP routes
    3. Cc. Between two reporting points on an airway
    4. Dd. In accordance with any ATC clearance received
89. 898.4. At least two independent radio communication systems are necessary when:
    1. IFR flights.
    2. VFR flights.
    3. VFR flights when not-based on visual marks.

    1. Aa. 1,2
    2. Bb. 1,3
    3. Cc. 1,2,3
    4. Dd. 2,3
90. 908.5. An aeroplane departs from Barcelona destination Madrid performing a VOR based navigation according to its Flight Plan. Once in Madrid it will perform an ILS approach to the runway in service. Which of the following are mandatory:
    1. one VOR. 2. one ADF 3. one DME 4. one ILS 5. an area navigation system 6. a second DME
    7. a second VOR 8. a second ADF

    1. Aa. all of the above
    2. Bb. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    3. Cc. 1, 3, 4, 7
    4. Dd. 1, 3, 4, 6, 7
91. 919.1. What is it necessary for an organization to take care of the maintenance of the aeroplanes of an EASA certified Operator?:

    1. Aa. To have its own working place
    2. Bb. To have an EASA-145 certification
    3. Cc. To have an AOC
    4. Dd. To be a part of the Operator owning the aeroplanes
92. 929.2. For the approval of an AOC by the State authorities, an Operator must present a Maintenance System and show itself capable of maintaining its own aeroplanes:

    1. Aa. True
    2. Bb. False
93. 939.3. The Maintenance System is part of the:

    1. Aa. AOC
    2. Bb. Operations Manual
    3. Cc. Flight Manual
    4. Dd. MEL
94. 949.4. If an operator´s aeroplane maintenance is contracted out to an external maintenance organization. Which of the following must be included in the Maintenance System so it can be approved?

    1. Aa. The contract and its technical specifications
    2. Bb. The procedure to be followed to ensure maintenance management
    3. Cc. The Maintenance Quality System
    4. Dd. The number of workers in charge of the maintenance
95. 959.5. Is monitoring needed when maintenance has been contracted out?

    1. Aa. Yes
    2. Bb. No
96. 969.6. What is the Maintenance Management Exposition?

    1. Aa. A document that exposes the maintenance programs performed by a organization.
    2. Bb. A document with the procedures to follow during the maintenance operations.
    3. Cc. A document describing the structure of the maintenance organization.
    4. Dd. A document to be presented to the State Authorities in order to perform maintenance operations.
97. 979.7. Which of the following must be approved by the State Authorities?

    1. Aa. The Maintenance System.
    2. Bb. The Maintenance Quality System.
    3. Cc. Aeroplane Maintenance Programme.
    4. Dd. A,b and c.
98. 989.8. Where can you find the procedures to execute any maintenance operation?

    1. Aa. In the Maintenance System.
    2. Bb. In the Maintenance Quality System.
    3. Cc. In the Aeroplane Maintenance Programme.
    4. Dd. A,b and c.
99. 999.9. Can an operator introduce alternative procedures to those prescribed in its Maintenance System?

    1. Aa. No, it has to include them before performing them.
    2. Bb. No, in any case.
    3. Cc. Yes, as far as they are secure.
    4. Dd. Yes, as far as an equivalent safety case has first been legally approved and supported by EASA.
100. 1009.10. Who is responsible to ensure the continued validity of the Maintenance Programme so it will not be revoked in a future?

     1. Aa. The Operator.
     2. Bb. The State Authorities.
     3. Cc. The Maintenance Organization.
     4. Dd. None of the above.
101. 10110.1) Flight crew to include a qualified flight engineer?

     1. Aa) Yes
     2. Bb) No, providing the flight engineer´s duty can be performed by another flight crew member without detriment to his/her primary duty
     3. Cc) No, if the planned flight duration (including flight time required to divert to the further alternate) is less than 3 hours
     4. Dd) No, if the airplane is certified to carry more than 31 passengers and less than 30 onboard
102. 10210.2) When are all flight crew members required to be at their duty stations?

     1. Aa) In an emergency
     2. Bb) In IMC
     3. Cc) During an instrument approach where RVR is at minima
     4. Dd) For a routine take offs and landings
103. 10310.3) When flight crew members are at their duty station they must:

     1. Aa) Fully fasten the safety harness
     2. Bb) Wear a communication headset
     3. Cc) Fully raise the seat
     4. Dd) Keep the seats belts fastened
104. 10410.4) Who is responsible for completing the journey log and or the general declaration?

     1. Aa) The operator
     2. Bb) The Pilot in command
     3. Cc) The purser
     4. Dd) The flight engineer
105. 10510.5) Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the airplane is airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the airplane is airworthy?

     1. Aa) The commander
     2. Bb) The operator
     3. Cc) The maintenance supervisor
     4. Dd) A JAA authorized person
106. 10610.6) Which of the following is NOT required to be certified for the pilot before a flight commences?

     1. Aa) The load is distributed and secured properly
     2. Bb) A full fuel load is on board
     3. Cc) The mass and center of gravity are within limits
     4. Dd) a maintenance released has been issued for the airplane
107. 10710.7) When is a Flight navigator required as part of the Flight crew?

     1. Aa) When the pilots are not considered capable (in the opinion of the Authority of the State of the operator) of the safe navigation of the airplane
     2. Bb) if the MEL indicates that the necessary navigational system is inoperative
     3. Cc) When flying over remote areas
     4. Dd) When precise navigational procedures
108. 10810.8) What requirement must be fulfilled before a pilot is appointed Pilot In Command by the operator?

     1. Aa) He must have flown a total of no less than 3000 hours on type
     2. Bb) he must have made at least 3 take-offs and landings in the same type in the preceding 90 days
     3. Cc) he must have held a First Officer´s position on type for 13 months
     4. Dd) He must have flown a total of not less than 1000 hours on type and have held a First Officer´s position on type with the current operator for 3 months
109. 10910.9) An operator shall ensure that all cabin crew members comply with requirements of Subpart O and any other safety requirement applicable to cabin crew. Define the "cabin crew"

     1. Aa) Any crew member, who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned to him by the operator in the cabin of an airplane
     2. Bb) Any crew member, other than a flight crew member, who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned to him by the operator or the commander in the cabin of an airplane
     3. Cc) Any crew member assigned by the operator, who performs duties in the cabin of the aircraft during the flight, in the interest of safety of passengers
     4. Dd) Any person assigned by the operator to perform specific duties in the cabin of an aircraft during the flight - for example a security staff
110. 11010.10) The minimum crew for all turbo propeller airplanes is 2 when:

     1. Aa) There are 9 or more passengers carried
     2. Bb) The sitting configuration is more than 9
     3. Cc) The sitting configuration is more than 19
     4. Dd) There are more than 19 passengers carried
111. 11110.11) When the presence of cabin crew member(s) on a passenger carrying flight is required by regulations, the minimum number of cabin crew members on board generally is:

     1. Aa) 1 cabin crew member for every 25, or fraction of 25, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane.
     2. Bb) 1 cabin crew member for every 50, or fraction of 50, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane
     3. Cc) 1 cabin crew member for every 75, or fraction of 75, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane
     4. Dd) 1 cabin crew member for every 90, or fraction of 90, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane
112. 11210.12) When are the flight crew members allowed to leave their stations?

     1. Aa) In the performance of their duties
     2. Bb) At any time specify by the operations manual
     3. Cc) When having lunch
     4. Dd) only when the captain allows it
113. 11310.13) An operator shall not appoint a person to the post senior cabin crew member unless that person has at least ____ experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate courses

     1. Aa) 6 months
     2. Bb) 9 months
     3. Cc) 12 months
     4. Dd) 24 months
114. 11410.14) According to EU-OPS, an operator shall ensure that each cabin crew member is at least:

     1. Aa) 20 years of age
     2. Bb) 17 years of age
     3. Cc) 21 years of age
     4. Dd) 18 years of age
115. 11510.15) A transport category airplane equipped with 188 passenger seats is performing a flight from Paris to Madrid. The home-based of the airplane is Paris. In Madrid one of the cabin crew members becomes sick and has to be taken to the hospital. A total of 150 passengers are on board. Can the flight continue back to Paris as scheduled?

     1. Aa) No, a total of 4 cabin crew members are always required
     2. Bb) Yes, provided a special permit is obtained from the authority
     3. Cc) Yes, provided that a report is submitted to the authority after completion of the flight
     4. Dd) Yes, provided that 1 passenger is off-loaded and a report is submitted to the authority after completion of the flight
116. 11611.1) When are we considered to be acclimatized?

     1. Aa) Being in the 2-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of arrival
     2. Bb) Being in the 1-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of arrival
     3. Cc) Being in the 2-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of departure
     4. Dd) Being in the 1-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of departure
117. 11711.2) What does disruptive schedule means?

     1. Aa) Cannot rest 10 hours at least
     2. Bb) Cannot rest 8 hours at least
     3. Cc) Work in the middle of the night
     4. Dd) Not having the optimal sleep window due to work
118. 11811.3) Flight duty period is related with the next concept

     1. Aa) Schedule delays
     2. Bb) Route, take-offs and landings
     3. Cc) Flight without autopilot
     4. Dd) All of the above
119. 11911.4) Total flight hours done by operating crew member shall be:

     1. Aa) 100 hours in 30 days
     2. Bb) 1000 hours in 24 months
     3. Cc) 100 hours in 28 days
     4. Dd) 900 hours in 13 months
120. 12011.5) Flight departure time is 0800z from Paris. Cabin crew members request more than an hour to prepare the cabin. Flight crew should send FDP time. Which time should send?

     1. Aa) Adjust time to flight crew activity
     2. Bb) Start flight duty period according with cabin crew member´s time
     3. Cc) FDP will be from takeoff to landing time
     4. Dd) Cabin crew members have no time restrictions
121. 12111.6) In case of unforeseen circumstances, maximum FDP can be modified by:

     1. Aa) The State Authority
     2. Bb) The operator
     3. Cc) Pilot in Command
     4. Dd) None of the above
122. 12211.7) If on the final sector of a flight, after takeoff an unforeseen circumstance occurs and the allowed increase time is exceeded:

     1. Aa) Proceed to the departure or destination aerodrome, it does not matter
     2. Bb) Fly back to the departure aerodrome
     3. Cc) Continue to the planned destination/alternate aerodrome
     4. Dd) Call The operator to be authorized
123. 12311.8) Which is the minimum rest period after a FDP?

     1. Aa) 8 hours minimum but no more than 10 hours
     2. Bb) 8 hours minimum
     3. Cc) 10 hours
     4. Dd) 12hours
124. 12412.1) An operational flight plan must specify the takeoff alternate aerodrome for use in the event of a flight emergency shortly after takeoff when:

     1. Aa) The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima
     2. Bb) The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft to roll to a standstill if the brakes fail
     3. Cc) The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load
     4. Dd) There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure aerodrome
125. 12512.2) Which of the following is valid criteria for a takeoff diversion aerodrome?

     1. Aa) Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin engine aeroplane
     2. Bb) Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3 engine aeroplane with one engine out
     3. Cc) Not more than 1 hour flying distance for any aeroplane with one engine out
     4. Dd) 2 hours or less flying time at “one engine out” cruise speed for a 4 engine aeroplane
126. 12612.3) In deciding if an aerodrome is usable as takeoff diversion, which of the following is correct:

     1. Aa) It must be capable CAT III A operations
     2. Bb) The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome departure
     3. Cc) The RVR cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of takeoff
     4. Dd) For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the Operator or the State of Registration and no approach have is permitted to have a visual element (ie no circling approaches)
127. 12712.4) A destination alternative aerodrome must be specify for:

     1. Aa) Any flight for public transport over 40 Km
     2. Bb) Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainly That at ETA a visual approach can be made
     3. Cc) A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exits
     4. Dd) Any flight where a takeoff diversion has been planned
128. 12812.5) According to EU-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined turbo propeller aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass exceeding 8.618 Kg and a maximum approved setting configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:

     1. Aa) 90 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
     2. Bb) 30 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
     3. Cc) 60 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
     4. Dd) 120 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
129. 12912.6) According to EU-OPS 1, an operator must select two destinations alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecast for destination, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing __ hour(s) before and ending __ hour(s) after the estimated, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima.

     1. Aa) 2; 2; time of arrival
     2. Bb) 1; 1; time of arrival
     3. Cc) 2; 2; time of departure
     4. Dd) 1; 1; time of departure
130. 13012.7) For 3 and 4 engine aeroplanes, the takeoff alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:

     1. Aa) 2 hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
     2. Bb) 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
     3. Cc) 1 hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
     4. Dd) 1 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
131. 13112.8) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available?

     1. Aa) Non-precision minima (RVR and ceiling at or above minima)
     2. Bb) Non-precision minima plus 200ft/1000m
     3. Cc) RVR according to CAT I
     4. Dd) Circling minima
132. 13212.9) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available?

     1. Aa) RVR according to CAT I
     2. Bb) Circling minima
     3. Cc) Non-precision minima plus 200ft/1000m
     4. Dd) Non-precision minima
133. 13312.10) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome if it is equipped with a non-precision approach only?

     1. Aa) Non-precision minima (RVR and ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200ft/1000m
     2. Bb) RVR/ visibility specify in accordance with EU-OPS 1.225, and the ceiling at or above MDH
     3. Cc) RVR/ visibility specify in accordance with EU-OPS 1.225
     4. Dd) Circling minima
134. 13413-14.1) An aircraft flying at FL 370 on MNPS airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 45ºto the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated from its assigned route and climb:

     1. Aa) or descent 1000ft or descend 500ft
     2. Bb) or descent 1000ft
     3. Cc) or descend 500ft
     4. Dd) 500ft or descend 1000ft
135. 13513-14.2) If the whole flight is in MNSPA on the organized track system, what should be entered on the flight plan?

     1. Aa) PTS + daily code
     2. Bb) Position at every 10 deg latitude
     3. Cc) NAT + daily code
     4. Dd) OTS + daily code
136. 13613-14.3) The frecuency designated for VHF air to air comnunicationswhen out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:

     1. Aa) 121.5 Mhz
     2. Bb) 123.45 Mhz
     3. Cc) 243 Mhz
     4. Dd) 118.5 Mhz
137. 13713-14.4) An aircraft may operate in MNSPA along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least:

     1. Aa) 1 inertial navigation system (INS)
     2. Bb) 2 inertial systems (INS)
     3. Cc) 2 independent long range navigation systems (LRNS)
     4. Dd) 1 long range navigation system (LNRS)
138. 13813-14.5) A flight via SHANNON-GANDER great circle with no MNPS certification can be planned:

     1. Aa) At FL 280 or less
     2. Bb) outside schedules flight time
     3. Cc) at mach number 0.7 or less
     4. Dd) at a constant airspeed of 480 kts
139. 13913-14.6) What is the track message?

     1. Aa) The publication of the preferred route message (PRM)
     2. Bb) The ATC clearance given before the boundary window
     3. Cc) The complete MNSP flight plan
     4. Dd) The publication of organized track system (OTS)
140. 14013-14.7) In the area where MNSP is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL290 and FL410 inclusive is:

     1. Aa) 2000 fts
     2. Bb) 500 fts
     3. Cc) 1000 fts
     4. Dd) 1500 fts
141. 14113-14.8) RVSM in-flight procedure-cross checks of the primary altimeters shall be made at intervals of approximately one hour. This primary altimeters shall agree within:

     1. Aa) 50fts
     2. Bb) 100fts
     3. Cc) 150fts
     4. Dd) 200fts
142. 14213-14.9) In MNPA, the speed reference of a turbo-jet aircraft is the:

     1. Aa) Indicated airspeed
     2. Bb) Mach number
     3. Cc) ground speed
     4. Dd) true airspeed
143. 14313-14.10) MNPS is the abbreviation for:

     1. Aa) Minimum Navigation Positioning System
     2. Bb) Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System
     3. Cc) Military Network Performance Structure
     4. Dd) Minimum Performance Navigation Specification
144. 14413-14.11) How does one define the planned tracks north of 70ºN?

     1. Aa) Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 10º
     2. Bb) Latitude degrees with meridians spaced at 20º
     3. Cc) longitude spaced at 5º intervals
     4. Dd) latitude spaced at 5 intervals
145. 14513-14.12) In the NMPSA, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

     1. Aa) Notify air traffic control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time
     2. Bb) request authorization from control to track another aircraft
     3. Cc) set a different heading approximately 45º from the previous one
     4. Dd) immediately climb or descent 1000fts
146. 14613-14.13) Contingency at FL410 necessitates diversion to an alternate against NAT traffic without ATC clearance but able to maintain altitude:

     1. Aa) turn left or right and climb 1000fts/ descend 500fts
     2. Bb) climb or descend 500fts
     3. Cc) climb 500fts
     4. Dd) descend 500fts
147. 14713-14.14) The validity period of a night time OTS in MNPSA is normally at 30ºW, between:

     1. Aa) 0100 UTC to 0800UTC
     2. Bb) 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC
     3. Cc) 1130 UTC to 1800 UTC
     4. Dd) 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC
148. 14813-14.15) The minimum time track is defined for:

     1. Aa) a period of 12 hours
     2. Bb) a given travel
     3. Cc) a period of 24 hours
     4. Dd) aircraft flying in MNPSA
149. 14915.1) Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?

     1. Aa) It draws attention to the possibility of furhter failures and their effects
     2. Bb) The MEL is required by ICAO and must be approved by the State of Registration
     3. Cc) The responsibility if acceptance of any unserviceability within the MEL rests ultimately over the Operator.
     4. Dd) The MEL allows airplanes to be flown with unserviceabilities which would otherwise require immediate certification
150. 15015.2) The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is:

     1. Aa) To permit the Authority to specify what equipment must be carried in an aircraft with mas take off mass greater than 5700 Kg
     2. Bb) To permit one MEL to exist for the operator´s entire fleet
     3. Cc) To permit the operator to change the content of the MEL Whilst keeping a master copy
     4. Dd) Not to be used as an operator MEL
151. 15115.3) The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the ______ to determine whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should _____ become inoperative. Which of the following completes the statement?

     1. Aa) Maintenance supervisor / any system
     2. Bb) Chief Steward / the galley equipment
     3. Cc) Operator / any aircraft safety system
     4. Dd) Commander / any instrumentation or system of equipment
152. 15215.4) The MEL of an aircraft is found in the:

     1. Aa) Operations manual
     2. Bb) Flight record
     3. Cc) Flight manual
     4. Dd) EU-OPS
153. 15315.5) The MMEL is drawn up by :

     1. Aa) The operator
     2. Bb) The manufacturer/the type certificate holder
     3. Cc) The aircraft manufacturer list
     4. Dd) The aircraft state of registry
154. 15415.6) The MEL is drawn up by:

     1. Aa) The aircraft manufacturer´s list
     2. Bb) The aircraft State of registry
     3. Cc) The operator
     4. Dd) The manufacturer
155. 15515.7) Which of the following statements is NOT true:

     1. Aa) The most favorable temperatures for icing are between 5ºC and -5ºC
     2. Bb) The most favorable temperatures for icing are between 0ºC and -10ºC
     3. Cc) Icing becomes rare at -18ºC
     4. Dd) While flying, we must avoid icing conditions
156. 15615.8) In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:

     1. Aa) De-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid
     2. Bb) Apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing procedures
     3. Cc) Operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems
     4. Dd) De-ice the aircraft
157. 15715.9) When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:
     1. An increase in the T/O distance
     2. A decrease of the T/O run
     3. An increase in the stalling speed
     4. A decrease of the stalling speed
     5. A decrease of the climb gradient

     1. Aa) 1,3,5
     2. Bb) 2,4,5
     3. Cc) 1,2,3
     4. Dd) 2,3,5
158. 15815.10) During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these conditions:

     1. Aa) The T/O performance of the aircraft will not be affected
     2. Bb) There is no risk of ice accretion
     3. Cc) The aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type
     4. Dd) A longer start procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft
159. 15916.1) The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:

     1. Aa) Above 5000ft
     2. Bb) Below 2500ft
     3. Cc) Between 2500ft and 3500ft
     4. Dd) Between 3500ft and 5000ft
160. 16016.2) Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall:

     1. Aa) Immediately inform the local ATS unit
     2. Bb) Inform immediately the bird control unit (BCU) directly by radio
     3. Cc) Submit a written hazard bird strike upon arrival and within 48 hours
     4. Dd) Inform other aircraft in the vicinity by radio
161. 16116.3) The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:

     1. Aa) IBHA (ICAO Bird Hazard Annex)
     2. Bb) IBSA (ICAO Bird Safety Alert)
     3. Cc) IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System)
     4. Dd) IBSR (ICAO Bird Strike Report)
162. 16216.4) When can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded?

     1. Aa) At PIC´s discretion where safety is an issue
     2. Bb) If there is work in progress on the aerodrome
     3. Cc) If the RVR is less than 1500 m
     4. Dd) Never, it must always be complied with
163. 16316.5) When using ICAO noise abatement procedure (NADP 1) the flap retraction is commenced at:

     1. Aa) 1000ft
     2. Bb) 2000ft
     3. Cc) 1500ft
     4. Dd) 3000ft
164. 16416.6) According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is not to be initiated at less than:

     1. Aa) 1500ft above aerodrome elevation
     2. Bb) 1000ft above aerodrome elevation
     3. Cc) 800ft above aerodrome elevation
     4. Dd) 2000ft above aerodrome elevation
165. 16517-18.1) Who is responsible to provide emergency and abnormal procedures?

     1. Aa) The Operator
     2. Bb) The Flight Engineer
     3. Cc) Commander
     4. Dd) The Authority
166. 16617-18.2) What must the commander ensure that all those on the flight deck are familiar with?

     1. Aa) Check list
     2. Bb) Standard operating procedures (SOPs)
     3. Cc) Contents of the Operations manual
     4. Dd) Safety procedures
167. 16717-18.3) Which statement is most correct with regard to the use of fire extinguishers?

     1. Aa) CO2 is best used in a cargo airplane on cargo fires
     2. Bb) Water is the best used on small fires
     3. Cc) Halon is the best used on fires within the passenger compartment
     4. Dd) Dry powder is the best used on cockpit fires
168. 16817-18.4) In case of an engine exhaust pipe (tailpipe) fire while on the ground, you should abort the starting procedure and:

     1. Aa) Put the fire shut off handle and trigger the engine fire extinguishers
     2. Bb) Fight the nozzle fire with a water fire extinguisher
     3. Cc) Carry out a dry cranking
     4. Dd) Carry out a dump cranking
169. 16917-18.5) A hand water fire extinguisher should be used on a fire of:

     1. Aa) Paper, fabric, carpet
     2. Bb) Metals
     3. Cc) Flammable gases
     4. Dd) Flammable liquids
170. 17017-18.6) Apart from fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is tipically located on board

     1. Aa) Crash axes or crowbars
     2. Bb) Water and all type of beverage
     3. Cc) A hydraulic winch and a big box of tools
     4. Dd) A big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets
171. 17117-18.7) What items for use in firefighting would you expect to see close to a fire extinguisher?

     1. Aa) Axe
     2. Bb) Gloves
     3. Cc) Breathing equipment
     4. Dd) All of the above
172. 17217-18.8) If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the initial action to be taken by the flight deck crew is to:

     1. Aa) Determine the origin of the smoke
     2. Bb) Start an emergency descend
     3. Cc) Put on the oxygen masks and goggles
     4. Dd) Cut off all air conditioning units
173. 17319.1) Due to risk of tire explosion, after landing, when the breaks are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear

     1. Aa) From any direction
     2. Bb) Sidewards
     3. Cc) Either from the front or the rear
     4. Dd) From the inboard side
174. 17419.2) Following a heavy mass landing on a short RWY, you should check:

     1. Aa) Temperature of the hydraulic fluid
     2. Bb) Pressure of the hydraulic fluid
     3. Cc) Pressure of the pneumatic tires
     4. Dd) Temperature of the breaks
175. 17519.3) In the case of overheating of the breaks following the landing, the appropriate acton at the parking position is:
     1) Set parking brake on
     2) Set parking break off, with chokes in position
     3) Spray water on the breaks
     4) Ventilate the breaks

     1. Aa) 2, 4
     2. Bb) 2, 3
     3. Cc) 1, 3
     4. Dd) 1, 4
176. 17619.4) A warning device alerts the crew in case if excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude

     1. Aa) 10.000fts
     2. Bb) 14.000fts
     3. Cc) 8.000fts
     4. Dd) 12.000fts
177. 17719.5) Following an explosive decompression at FL370, your first action will be:

     1. Aa) To put on the oxygen mask
     2. Bb) To set the transponder to 7700
     3. Cc) To warn the ATC
     4. Dd) To comfort your passengers
178. 17819.6) A rapid decompression may be caused by:
     1) A leak in a door seal during normal pressurized flight
     2) Loss of cabin compartment window
     3) Malfunction of all pressurization systems
     4) Loss of a cargo-hold door

     1. Aa) 1, 3
     2. Bb) 1, 2, 3, 4
     3. Cc) 2, 4
     4. Dd) 1, 2, 3
179. 17919.7) Gradual decompression is caused by:
     1) Window leak
     2) Door leak
     3) Window blown
     4) Emergency escape hatch open

     1. Aa) 1, 2
     2. Bb) 1, 2, 3, 4
     3. Cc) 3, 4
     4. Dd) 2, 3
180. 18019.8) What would be evident during a rapid decompression?
     1) Violent rush of gas from lungs
     2) Expansion of body gases
     3) Blast of air to the exterior
     4) Mist in the cabin

     1. Aa) 1, 2, 3, 4
     2. Bb) 1, 2, 4
     3. Cc) 2, 3, 4
     4. Dd) 1, 2, 3
181. 18120.1) The Windshear is:

     1. Aa) A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
     2. Bb) A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
     3. Cc) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a short distance
     4. Dd) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a large distance
182. 18220.2) To counter the effects of windshear, the amount of control action that is required is:

     1. Aa) medium
     2. Bb) small
     3. Cc) substantial
     4. Dd) none
183. 18320.3) What do you do in a microburst?
     1) Apply engine power
     2) Retract speed breaks
     3) Retract flaps and gear
     4) Retract all drag devices
     5) Pitch up to steak shaker

     1. Aa) 1, 3, 5
     2. Bb) 1, 4, 5
     3. Cc) 1, 2, 5
     4. Dd) 2, 3, 5
184. 18420.4) In the “worst case” scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in coordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:

     1. Aa) Reduce speed to V2 and hold
     2. Bb) Climb away at Vat+20
     3. Cc) Increase the pitch angle until the steak shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle
     4. Dd) Slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
185. 18520.5) While approaching the outer marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a microburst. You will expect to encounter:

     1. Aa) Windshear (vertical and horizontal)
     2. Bb) Wake turbulence
     3. Cc) Supercooled water
     4. Dd) Convention motion of air mass
186. 18620.6) Wake turbulence is created by:

     1. Aa) Behind high buildings less than 300 m from the RWY
     2. Bb) The wingtips of heavy aircraft during the T/O and landing
     3. Cc) Cumulonimbus clouds
     4. Dd) Wind forces greater than 50 Kts
187. 18720.7) When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar time minimum approach separation is shall be:

     1. Aa) 1 minute
     2. Bb) 2 minute
     3. Cc) 3 minute
     4. Dd) 4 minute
188. 18820.8) What is the weight range for medium category aircraft?

     1. Aa) 5.700kg to 100.000kg
     2. Bb) 7.000 kg to 136.000kg
     3. Cc) 5.700kg to 136.000kg
     4. Dd) 7.001kg to 135.999kg
189. 18920.9) The wake turbulence:

     1. Aa) Starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices
     2. Bb) Starts as soon as the airplane is running for T/O and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing
     3. Cc) Starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing
     4. Dd) Starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground
190. 19020.10) To avoid the wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver:

     1. Aa) Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
     2. Bb) Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
     3. Cc) Above and upwind the larger aircraft
     4. Dd) Below and upwind the larger aircraft
191. 19121.1) If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aircraft operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:

     1. Aa) Remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment
     2. Bb) Locked from within the compartment
     3. Cc) Directly locked from outside the compartment
     4. Dd) Remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment
192. 19221.2) What transponder code should be used by the commander of an aircraft to provide recognition that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijack)

     1. Aa) Code 7700
     2. Bb) Code 7600
     3. Cc) Code 7500
     4. Dd) Code 2000
193. 19321.3) In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board pressurized aircraft and disregarding fuel considerations:

     1. Aa) You descend to the FL corresponding the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
     2. Bb) You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude
     3. Cc) You limb to the maximum flight level which does not need to the use of pressurization
     4. Dd) You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in clean configuration until the final approach
194. 19421.4) What is the evacuation time for an airplane with 149 seats?

     1. Aa) 60 sec
     2. Bb) 90 sec
     3. Cc) 120 sec
     4. Dd) 132 sec
195. 19521.5) The ICAO rules governing flight over water for a single engine airplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:

     1. Aa) Limits such flights to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails
     2. Bb) Does not permit such flight in any circumstances
     3. Cc) Limits flight to up to 10 min flying time to the nearest shore
     4. Dd) Limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore
196. 19621.6) Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:
     1) Remain on the RWY
     2) Clear the RWY using the first available taxiway
     3) Keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical supply on
     4) Turn off all the systems

     1. Aa) 2, 3
     2. Bb) 1, 3
     3. Cc) 1, 4
     4. Dd) 2, 4
197. 19721.7) The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

     1. Aa) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board
     2. Bb) A landing on land or sea from which is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
     3. Cc) A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants
     4. Dd) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board or on the surface

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Quiz am Operational Procedures 01-21, erstellt von Miguel Angel Escudero am 13/04/2020.

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Miguel Angel Escudero

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