What is the proprietary name of a drug?

the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered

the name of the active ingredient in the medication

What is the generic name of a drug?

the name of the active ingredient in the medication

the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered

The five drug schedules all come under which legislation?

the misuse of drugs regulations 2001

controlled drugs regulations 2020

the health and safety at work act 1974

Quiz

VN04 revision

Sofia Almeida 164 Fragen 1.532 Aufrufe

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1What does PHARMACODYNAMICS mean?
1. Awhat the drug does to the body
2. Bwhat the body does to the drug
2What does PHARMACOKINETICS mean?
1. Awhat the body does to the drug
2. Bwhat the drug does to the body
3Where should an adverse reaction be reported to?
1. ASARSS
2. BAMTRA
3. CVMD
4. Dpractice manager
4What does i.m stand for?
1. Aintramusclar
2. Bintravenous
3. Cintraperitoneal
4. Dsubcutaneous
5What does i.v stand for?
1. Aintravenous
2. Bintramuscular
3. Cintraperitoneal
4. Dsubcutaneous
6What does i.p stand for?
1. Aintraperitoneal
2. Bintramuscular
3. Cintravenous
4. Dsubcutaneous
7What does p.o/per os mean?
1. Aby mouth
2. Bby ear
3. Con skin
8What does a.c mean?
1. Abefore meals
2. Bafter meals
3. Con an empty stomach
4. Dwith food
9What does b.i.d stand for?
1. Atwice daily
2. Bonce daily
3. Cthree times daily
4. Devery 2 hours
10What does e.o.d stand for?
1. Aevery other day
2. Bevery day
3. Cfour times daily
4. Dthree times daily

11What does o.m stand for?
1. Aother muscles
2. Bintramuscular
3. Cother oriffices
4. Dsubmuscular
12What does o.m stand for?
1. Aevery morning
2. Bevery night
3. Cevery hour
4. Devery day
13What does o.n. stand for?
1. Aevery night
2. Bevery morning
3. Cevery day
4. Donce daily
14What does p.c. stand for?
1. Aafter meals
2. Bbefore meals
3. Cwith food
4. Dno food
15What does q. stand for?
1. Aevery
2. Bevery 4 hours
3. Csingle dose
4. Ddouble dose
16What does q.i.d. / q.d.s. stand for?
1. Afour times daily
2. Btwo times daily
3. Conce daily
4. Dquarter daily
17What does t.i.d. / t.d.s. stand for?
1. Athree times daily
2. Bfour times daily
3. Ctwo times daily
4. Donce daily
18What does p.r.n. stand for?
1. Aas needed
2. Bevery other day
3. Cevery day
4. Dwithout
19What does stat stand for?
1. Aimmediately
2. Bwithout
3. Cas needed
4. Donce daily
20What does h. stand for?
1. Ahour
2. Bas needed
3. Cevery day
4. Dwithout
21What does s.i.d. / o.d. stand for?
1. Aonce daily
2. Btwice daily
3. Cevery hour
4. Das needed
22What does q.s. stand for?
1. Aas much as suffices
2. Bas needed
3. Cevery day
4. Dwithout
23What does ad. lib. stand for?
1. Aas desired
2. Bas needed
3. Cevery other day
4. Dwithout
24What does amp. stand for?
1. Aampoule
2. Bcapsule
3. Ctablet
4. Dsuspension
25What is the proprietary name of a drug?
1. Athe name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered
2. Bthe name of the active ingredient in the medication
26What is the generic name of a drug?
1. Athe name of the active ingredient in the medication
2. Bthe name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered
27Ketaset, keraject, ketavet and vetalar are all ____ names of the drug.
1. Aproprietary
2. Bgeneric
28Which schedule does cannabis and LSD come under?
1. Aschedule 3
2. Bschedule 1
3. Cschedule 4
4. Dschedule 5
29Which schedule of drug requires a Home Office License?
1. Aschedule 1
2. Bschedule 2
3. Cschedule 3
4. Dschedule 4
30Which of the following schedule of drug has no use within veterinary medicine?
1. Aschedule 1
2. Bschedule 2
3. Cschedule 5
4. Dschedule 3
31Morphine, methadone, pethidine, fentanyl and ketamine are all in which schedule?
1. Aschedule 2
2. Bschedule 3
3. Cschedule 1
4. Dschedule 5
32Bartiurates, bupremorphine and midazolam are all in which schedule?
1. Aschedule 3
2. Bschedule 2
3. Cschedule 5
4. Dschedule 1
33Which schedule of drugs are subject to strict storage, precription, dispensing, destruction and record keeping requirements?
1. Aschedule 2
2. Bschedule 1
3. Cschedule 5
4. Dschedule 3
34Tramadol is in which drug schedule?
1. Aschedule 3
2. Bschedule 2
3. Cschedule 1
4. Dschedule 5
35Diazepam and anabolic steroids come under which drug schedule?
1. Aschedule 4
2. Bschedule 2
3. Cschedule 1
4. Dschedule 5
36Pardale, Codeine/Paracetamol are all in which drug schedule?
1. Aschedule 5
2. Bschedule 1
3. Cschedule 2
4. Dschedule 4
37Schedule 3 drugs are all required to follow CD prescription writing requirements. True or False?
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
38How long must invoices for schedule 5 drugs be kept for a minimum of?
1. A2 years
2. B5 years
3. C6 months
4. Dthey don't have to be kept
39The five drug schedules all come under which legislation?
1. Athe misuse of drugs regulations 2001
2. Bcontrolled drugs regulations 2020
3. Cthe medicines act 1968
4. Dthe health and safety at work act 1974
40How often should CDR's be recorded?
1. Aweekly
2. Bmonthly
3. Cevery 6 months
4. Devery fortnight
41The responsibility of recording CDR ultimately lies with who?
1. Athe veterinary surgeon
2. Bthe veterinary nurse
3. Cany suitably qualified person
4. DSQP
42Which of the following drugs is a schedule 3 drug?
1. Abupremorphine
2. Bketamine
3. Ccodeine
4. Dcannabis
43Which schedule 3 drug should be stored in a CD cabinet?
1. Abupremorphine
2. Bmorphine
3. Cfentanyl
4. Dketamine
44Which schedule 3 drug can be prescribed to a patient for a genuine clinical reason under the cascade?
1. Abupremorphine
2. Bfentanyl
3. Ccodeine
4. Dketamine
45Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
1. Abupremorphine
2. Bfentanyl
3. Cmorphine
4. Dcodeine
46Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
1. Adiethylpropion
2. Bmethamphetamine
3. Cketamine
4. Dfentanyl
47Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
1. Aflunitrazepam
2. Bfentanyl
3. Cketamine
4. Dmethadone
48Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
1. Atemazepam
2. Bketamine
3. Cfentanyl
4. Dmethadone
49Drugs from which schedule are advised to be kepy in a CD cabinet?
1. Aschedule 1
2. Bschedule 5
3. Cschedule 3
50CD containers/cabinets should indicate that there are CD's kept inside. True or False?
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
51What is the british standard coding for medicine cabinets?
1. ABS 2881 : 1989
2. BBS 2441 : 1988
3. CBS 1986 : 2234
4. DBS 2222 : 1111
52How many levels of security should CD medicine cabinets have by the british standard coding?
1. Athree layers
2. Btwo layers
3. Cone layer
4. Dfive layers
53The CD cabinet should be...
1. Abolted to the wall or floor
2. Bkept in a locked room
3. Ckept away from the public
4. Dkept inside of a safe
54The CD cabinet should be
1. Adouble-locked with seperate keys
2. Bkept under a safe combination
3. Ckept inside a locked room
4. Dkept away from the public
55Where can a veterinary professional find further guidance on safe storage of CD's?
1. ACDLOs (controlled drugs liason officer)
2. Bpolice
3. Csenior veterinary surgeons
4. Dmisuse of drugs regulator
56If on a call out visit how should CD's be transported safely?
1. Aa locked glove compartment, bag, box or case which must be kept locked when not in use
2. Ba locked car at all times when not being used
3. Cthey cannot be transported outside of the veterinary practice
4. Da portable steel safe with a code to access it
57How should one dispose of out-of-date and returned drugs?
1. Acat litter
2. Bdenaturing kits
3. Csoapy water
4. Ddown the drain
58How should one dispose of residual or waste drugs?
1. Acat litter
2. Bsoapy water
3. Cdenaturing kits
4. Dpoured down the drain
59'There is no legal requirement to have the disposal of waste witnessed'. Leftover medicine (including CDs) is considered waste. True or False?
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
60According to the RCVS pratice standards scheme, what must be written on an in use injectable medicine?
1. Aopening date or use by date
2. Bdate of broachment and initials
3. Copening date and initials
4. Ddate of broachment
61Which colour bin should non-hazardous medicinal waste be placed in?
1. Ablue
2. Bornage
3. Cpurple
4. Dyellow
62Which one of the following processes occurs during phase II of the metabolic process to eliminate drugs from the body?
1. Aconjugation
2. Bhydrolysis
3. Coxidation
4. Dredistribution
63In which part of the nephron does glucose reabsorption occur?
1. Acollecting duct
2. Bdistal convoulted tubule
3. Cproximal convoluted tubule
4. Dloop of henle
64In which part of the nephron does aldosterone act to increase Na+ reabsorption?
1. Adistal convoluted tubule
2. Bproximal convoluted tubule
3. Ccollecting duct
4. Dloop of henle
65What is the correct order of the pharmacokinetic process?
1. Aabsorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
2. Babsorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion
3. Cmetabolism, absorption, distribution, excretion
4. Dmetabolism, distribution, absorption, exretion
66In order to acquire a marketing authorisation, a new medicinal product should have been tested for which of the following?
1. Asafety, efficacy, quality
2. Bquality, efficiency, safety
3. Csafety, cost, efficacy
4. Defficacy, quality, reliability
67Which term refers to the movement of drugs within the body?
1. Apharmacokinetics
2. Bpharmacodynamics
3. Cpharmacology
4. Dpharmacy
68In terms of drug interaction what is the term antagonism defined as?
1. Aone drug inhibits the effects of another drug
2. Bone ineffective drug enhances the effect of another drug
3. Cresponse is equal to the combined responses of individual drugs
4. Dresponse is greater than the combined responses of individual drugs
69What does a 2% solution correspond to?
1. A2g per 100ml
2. B2g per 1000ml
3. C2mg per 100ml
4. D2mg per 1000ml
70A 6kg dog required an injection. The dosage is 5mg/kg of a 2.5% suspension. What volume in mls should be injected?
1. A0.8
2. B1.2
3. C1.5
4. D2.4
71What does the abbreviation o.n. mean when written on a prescription?
1. Aby mouth
2. Bas required
3. Cevery night
4. Donce a day
72Which of the following is the correct term for a medicinal product that supresses nausea and vomiting?
1. Aantiemetic
2. Banticholinergic
3. Csympathomimetic
4. Dantineoplastic
73Which of the following controlled drugs fall under schedule 3 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations?
1. Amorphine
2. Bbupremorphine
3. Cmethadone
4. Dpethidine
74Which of the following people would NOT be deemed suitable for witnessing the disposal of a controlled drug?
1. Aa VMD inspector
2. Ba veterinary surgeon from a different branch of the same company
3. Ca police drug liaison officer
4. Da veterinary surgeon from a different practice/company
75How long should a register of controlled drugs be kept for?
1. Aminimum of 2 years
2. Bminimum of 5 years
3. Cminimum of 3 years
4. Dminimum of 4 years
76Of these commonly used parenteral administration routes, which results in the lowest bioavailability?
1. Asubcutaneous
2. Bintramuscular
3. Cintravenous
4. Dintraperitoneal
77Which organ is responsible for the first-pass effect?
1. Aliver
2. Bkidney
3. Cbrain
4. Dsmall intestine
78Which of the following is NOT an example of a NSAID?
1. Aprednisolone
2. Bcarprofen
3. Cgrapiprant
4. Dfibrocoxib
79A bacteriostatic antimicrobial has what effect on bacteria?
1. Ainhibits reproduction
2. Bkills them
3. Cinhibits development
4. Dalters their cell membrane to prevent nutrient absorption
80For how long before the administration of pimobendan should food be withheld from the patient?
1. A1 hour
2. B2 hours
3. C3 hours
4. D8 hours
81Which non-steriodial anti-inflammatory drug should be avoided in cats, as they are unable to metabolise it effectively?
1. Aparacetamol
2. Bmeloxicam
3. Ccarprofen
4. Dketoprofen
82Who holds the register of approved Veterinary Practice Premises?
1. Aanimal medicines training regulatory authority
2. Broyal college of veterinary surgeons
3. Cveterinary medicines directorate
4. Ddepartment for environment, food and rural affairs
83Which of the following shows all of the categories from which a SQP can prescribe and supply?
1. APOM-VPS, NFA-VPS
2. BPOM-V, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL
3. CNFA-VPS, AVM-GSL, POM-V
4. DAVM-GSL, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS
84For the administration of prednisolone by the owner at home, which of the following would NOT be a warning discussed with them?
1. Akeep away from cats due to toxicity risk
2. Bwear gloves during administration and wash hands after use
3. Cstop if the patient develops a corneal ulcer
4. Ddo not stop the course suddenly, or without consulting the vet
85How can the Safe Custody Regulations be met when storing controlled drugs in a practice car?
1. Akeep them in a locked glove
2. Ba locked container fixed within the boot of the car
3. Ca locked bag or box that is removed and constantyly attended when the vehicle is left unattended
4. Dall answers are correct
86Unless specified differently on the data sheet, for how long can a medicine be used from a multi-dose vial once broached?
1. A7 days
2. B28 days
3. C14 days
4. D5 days
87Which of the following patient factors are likely to reduce the onset and duration of action of a medication administered subcutaneously?
1. Adehydration
2. Bshock
3. Ca poor regional blood supply
4. Dall of the above
88What type of medicine should be dispensed into a fluted bottle?
1. Amedicines for external application
2. Bmedicines for oral application
3. Call liquid medicines
4. Dpowders and granules
89When did the VMD establish a joint bill with the department of health and social care?
1. A2020
2. B2013
3. C2018
4. D2015
90In which part of the medicines and medical devices bill is veterinary medicine covered?
1. APART 1
2. BPART 2
3. CPART 4
4. DPART 3
91Powers in the medicines and medical devices bill do not allow creation of entirely new regulatory regimes. True or False?
1. Atrue
2. Bfalse
92What does TP stand for in regards to legislation (UK GOV)?
1. Atreatment plan
2. Btransition period
3. Cturning point
4. Dtesting period
93Which clause delegates the power to a specific body to make regulations about veterinary medicines?
1. Aclause 10
2. Bclause 8
3. Cclause 9
4. Dclause 7
94Which clauses hold specific matters that may be amended and supply VMR appropriately?
1. Aclauses 8 and 9
2. Bclauses 9 and 10
3. Cclauses 7 and 8
4. Dclauses 8 and 10
95What are the three top priorities when making regulations?
1. Asafety of veterinary medicines in relation to animals, humans and the environment, availablity of veterinary medicines, attractiveness of UK as a place in which to develop or supply veterinary medicines
2. Bsafety and distribution of veterinary medicines, safety of the environment in relation to veterinary medicines, safety of animals and humans in the development of veterinary medicines
96Who is the appropriate authority as set out in clause 8 of the MMD bill?
1. ASecretary of State and/or Northern Ireland Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (‎DAERA)
2. BVeterinary Medicines Directorate (VMD)
3. CAnimal Medicines Training and Regulatory Authority Medical (AMTRA)
4. DDepartment of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DEFRA)
97Clause 9 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
1. Amanufacture, marketing, supply and field trials
2. Bmanufacture and supply
3. Cmanufacture, testing and supplies
4. Dmarketing and supply
98Clause 10 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
1. Afees, offences, powers of inspectors, costs
2. Bmarketing and distrubution
3. Cfees, offences and testing
4. Dcosting and distribution
99Clause 11 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
1. Ainterpretation and definitions of part 2 of the bill
2. Bbills, costs and supply
3. Cmarketing and distribution
4. Dfees, offences and payable fees
100Which of the following is NOT true?
1. Aany proposed changes to the VMR will be subject to formal, public consulation
2. Binterested stakeholders have opportunity to provide feedback
3. Cfeedback considered before revised VMR go to parliament
4. Dany propsed changes to the VMR do not require public feedback and will only be assessed by the appropriate people/organisations
101Which of the following is NOT a responsiblity of the VMD?
1. Amonitoring adverse reactions
2. Bauthorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines
3. Cmaking and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines
4. Dresponsible for representing the UK's royal veterinary surgeons community
102A veterinary practice must first apply to the RCVS and then the VMD to register their practice.
1. Atrue
2. Bfalse
103Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
1. Aregistering and storing CD's securely in line with the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001
2. Ba record of all POM-V and POM-VPS drugs bought, sold and administered within the practice
3. Chow medicines are stored in relation to conditions and temperature and daily minimum and maximum temperature recordings
4. Da written record of every endo/ecto parasitic treatment and when it has been dispensed and to whom
104Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
1. Aall prescriptions are completed with the correct information
2. Bthe practice has a kit and PPE to deal with medicine spillages
3. Cthat any medicine dispensed in a container, other than the original, needs to be correctly labelled and that the client is provided with safety guidelines
4. Dthat all medicine is labelled with the date that it was recieved into practice
105Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
1. Aif a small practice treats chickens, a record of the withdrawal period required before the eggs are safe to eat
2. Bthat open medicines are used within the recommended time frame
3. Cthat cytotoxic, cytostatic and certain hormonal medicines are stored, handled and disposed of correctly
4. Dthe record of every cytotoxic waste in and out of the building
106Which of the following is concerned with controlling the prescription and dispension procedures in veterinary practices in the UK?
1. Athe VMD
2. Bthe veterinary medicines regulations 2013
3. Cthe misuse of drugs act 2001
4. DAMTRA
107Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
1. AMonitoring adverse reactions
2. Bclassification of veterinary medicines
3. Csupply of veterinary medicines - whether they can be supplied by a veterinary surgeon or a suitably qualified person
4. Drequirements for the suitably qualified person
108Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
1. AAuthorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines
2. Bprecription requirements
3. Cprescribing cascade
4. Dregistraton of premises
109Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
1. Amaking and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines
2. Bstorage and disposal requirements
3. Cprescribing cascade
4. Dclassification of veterinary medicines
110Which of following is true as of 2003 following a report by the competitions commission?
1. Aveterinary surgeons are obliged to offer prescriptions to allow clients to buy medicines from another practice/pharmacy
2. Bveterinary surgeons do not have to offer prescriptions
3. Cif a veterinary surgeon supplies a prescription for a veterinary brand of a medication then the pharmacist or SQP dispensing can supply any brand name or generic name of that drug
4. Dveterinary surgeons have to supply a client with the cheapest possible option of a medication
111If a veterinary surgeon wishes to put an animal on a particular medication, what is the first step...
1. Aif a medication for the condition exists then they must use the medication licensed for that animal or condition
2. Bthey can use any medication outside of that animals species as long as it is for animal use only
3. Cthey can use any licensed medication in the UK as they see fit (inc. for humans)
4. Dthey can use any licensed medication in the EU as they see fit
  (inc. for humans)
112In the circumstance that there is no authorised medication for a specific condition in a specific species what is the first step the veterinary surgeon can take in prescribing under the cascade?
1. Aa medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
2. Ba medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
3. Ca veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used
4. Dthe veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
113In the circumstance that there is no licensed medication in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
1. Aa medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
2. Ba veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used.
3. Cthe veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
114In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
1. Aa veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used
2. Bthe veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
3. Cmedication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
115In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product authorised by another EU state use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
1. Athe veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
2. Ba medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
3. Cmedication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
116When using a medication that is licensed elsewhere in the EU, an import license must be obtained from the secretary of state.
1. ARichtig
2. BFalsch
117The administration of medication prescribed under the cascade is carried out under the authorisation of the veterinary surgeon, but who is responsible overall for this?
1. Athe SQP
2. Bthe person supplying
3. Cthe veterinary surgeon
4. Dthe veterinary nurse
118Which category of drugs contain narcotic substances?
1. APOM-V
2. BPOM-VPS
3. CNFA-VPS
4. DAVM-GSL
119Which of the following can be supplied by any retailer?
1. APOM-V
2. BPOM-VPS
3. CAVM-GSL
4. DNFA-VPS
120How long is the WITHDRAWAL PERIOD?
1. A28 days
2. B2 weeks
3. C1 month
4. D6 months
121When treating equines as non-food animals the veterinary surgeon must obtain a declaration from the owner and this must be recorded in the equine passport.
1. ARichtig
2. BFalsch
122Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
1. Apethidine
2. Bbupremorphine
3. Cpentobarbitone
4. Dphenobarbitone
123Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
1. Afentanyl
2. Bbupremorphine
3. Cphenobarbitone
4. Dpentobarbitone
124Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
1. Amorphine
2. Bbupremorphine
3. Cdiazepam
4. Dmidazolam
125Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
1. Aphenobarbitone
2. Bdiazepam
3. Canabolic steroids
4. Dfentanyl
126Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
1. Apentobarbitone
2. Bdiazepam
3. Cpethidine
4. Dmidazolam
127Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
1. Adiazepam
2. Bbupremorphine
3. Cmorphine
4. Dketamine
128Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
1. Amidazolam
2. Bbupremorphine
3. Cpethidine
4. Dphenobarbitone
129Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
1. Aanabolic steroids
2. Bmorphine
3. Cketamine
4. Dpentobarbitone
130How long are prescriptions for drugs in schedules 2 and 3 valid for?
1. A28 days
2. B30 days
3. C6 months
4. D2 weeks
131Are repeat prescriptions allowed for schedule 2 and 3 drugs?
1. Ayes
2. Bno
132How long are prescriptions in schedule 4 valid for?
1. A6 months
2. B2 weeks
3. C58 days
4. D28 days
133Are schedule 4 repeat prescriptions allowed?
1. Ayes
2. Bno
134Which schedule includes preperations that contain a low concentration of a controlled drug such as codeine or morphine?
1. Aschedule 4
2. Bschedule 5
3. Cschedule 1
4. Dschedule 3
135Who regulates controlled drugs are defined in the misuse of drugs regulations 2001?
1. Ahome office
2. BVMD
3. CAMTRA
4. DDEFRA
136Which of the following schedule 2 drugs does not have to be locked in the CD's cabinet?
1. Aquinalbarbitone
2. Bketamine
3. Cmorphine
4. Dfentanyl
137Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
1. Adiethylpropion
2. Bketamine
3. Cdiazepam
4. Dmorphine
138Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
1. Aflunitrazepam
2. Bdiazepam
3. Cmorphine
4. Dfentanyl
139Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
1. Atemazepam
2. Bdiazepam
3. Cketamine
4. Dmethadone
140What is the correct temperature in which refridgerated drugs must be kept?
1. A2-8 degrees celcius
2. B2-10 degrees celcius
3. C-2-4 degrees celcius
4. D-2-6 degrees celcius
141At which temperature should drugs be kept at room temperature?
1. A15-25 degrees
2. B18-15 degrees
3. C5-10 degrees
4. D10-17 degrees
142At which humidity should the room be in order to keep tablets and capsules in correct conditions?
1. A60%
2. B70%
3. C20%
4. D50%
143How many members of staff are needed to record and witness the withdrawal of a schedule 2 controlled drug?
1. Aone
2. Bthree
3. Ctwo
4. Dfour
144How often should a check of all records and the current level of pharmaceutical preparations/stock take be performed?
1. Ayearly
2. Bevery 2 years
3. Cevery 2 weeks
4. Devery 6 months
145The controlled drugs register must be out of sight of the general public.
1. ARichtig
2. BFalsch
146The species and identity of the animal must be included on a prescription.
1. ARichtig
2. BFalsch
147How long should a copy of a written prescription be kept in the practice?
1. A5 years
2. B2 years
3. C3 years
4. D28 days
148A record of the batch number and expiry date of the product prescribed must be kept.
1. ARichtig
2. BFalsch
149Analgesic drugs are either opioid or non-opioid.
1. ARichtig
2. BFalsch
150Which of the following drugs is a partial opioid agonist?
1. ABuprenorphine
2. BMethadone
3. CMorphine
4. DPethidine
151Which of the following is a natural agent?
1. AMorphine
2. BMethadone
3. CKetamine
4. DFentanyl
152What are the names of the three receptors/peripheral sites that opioids bind to?
1. AMu delta and kappa
2. BOP1 OP2 OP3
3. CMOP DOP KOP
4. Dall of the above
153Morphine , Methadone, Codeine , Pethidine , Fentanyl , Buprenorphine and Butorphanol are all…
1. ANon opioid analgesics
2. BOpioid analgesics
154Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
1. AMethadone
2. Bbuprenorphine
3. CCodeine
4. DDiazepam
155Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
1. AMorphine
2. BButorphanol
3. CDiazepam
4. DBuprenorphine
156Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
1. APethidine
2. BBuprenorphine
3. CDiazepam
4. DCannabis
157Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
1. AFentanyl
2. BBuprenorphine
3. CDiazepam
4. DCarprofen
158Which of the following is a mixed agonist/antagonist?
1. AButorphanol
2. BCodeine
3. CMethadone
4. DBuprenorphine
159What is a mixed agonist/antagonist?
1. Abind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
2. Bbind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
3. Cpossess both properties
160What is a Partial opioid agonists?
1. Abind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
2. Bbind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
3. Cpossess both properties
161What is a Full opioid agonists?
1. Abind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
2. Bbind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
3. CPossesses both properties
162Where are opioids metabolised?
1. ALiver
2. BKidneys
3. CSmall intestine
4. DStomach
163Where are opioids excreted from?
1. AKidneys
2. BLiver
3. CBile
4. DKidneys or bile
164Which of following antagonises the effects of opioids?
1. ANaloxone
2. BAntisedan
3. CCodeine
4. DDiazepam

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Beschreibung: Quiz am VN04 revision, erstellt von Sofia Almeida am 23/06/2021.
Autor: Sofia Almeida
Sprache: English
Aufrufe: 1.532
Schlagwörter: level 3
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