Bryan Suringa
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Medicine Quiz on Module 1 Set A, created by Bryan Suringa on 11/06/2020.

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Module 1 Set A

Module 1 Set A

Question 1 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are true regarding phase 1 drug metabolism?

Select one of the following:

  • Also known as conjugation reaction

  • Includes only oxidation

  • Generally tends to provide a functional group or “handle” to the molecule

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 2 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are true regarding phase II drug metabolism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Allows the attachment of small, polar and ionizable endogenous compounds

  • Allows the termination or attenuation of a biologic activity

  • serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 3 of 50

1

Which of the following undergo an oxidative reaction?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Olefins

  • alcohols, aldehydes

  • aromatic moieties

  • nitro and azo compounds

Explanation

Question 4 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are examples of drugs that are extensively metabolized by the first pass effect?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lidocaine

  • Nitroglycerin

  • Morphine

  • meperidine

Explanation

Question 5 of 50

1

Glucuronidation is the most common conjugative pathway in drug metabolism. Which of the following is/are responsible for this?

Select one or more of the following:

  • readily available supply of D-glucuronic acid

  • numerous functional groups that can combine enzymatically with glucuronic acid

  • utilization of D-glucuronic acid to conjugate steroids, heparin, chondroitin, catecholamines and thyroxine

  • AOTA

Explanation

Question 6 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are factors affecting drug metabolism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Age

  • economic status

  • species and strain

  • gender

Explanation

Question 7 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are true regarding methylation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • generally leads to polar or water-soluble metabolites

  • important in the biosynthesis of many endogenous compounds like epinephrine and melatonin

  • constitutes only a minor pathway for conjugating drugs or xenobiotics

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 8 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are considered slow acetylators?

Select one or more of the following:

  • eskimos

  • egyptians

  • filipinos

  • jews

Explanation

Question 9 of 50

1

Which of the following may induce metabolism of other drugs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • phenytoin

  • cimetidine

  • meprobamate

  • rifampicin

Explanation

Question 10 of 50

1

The term that denotes the selective metabolism of two or more similar functional groups or two or more similar atoms that are positioned in different regions of a molecule.

Select one of the following:

  • stereoisomerism

  • regioselectivity

  • selective toxicity

  • substrate stereoselectivity

Explanation

Question 11 of 50

1

The process involved in the biotransformation of amitriptyline to nortriptyline.

Select one of the following:

  • N-demethylation

  • Aromatic hydroxylation

  • Epoxidation

  • Ester hydrolysis

Explanation

Question 12 of 50

1

The biotransformation of chloral hydrate via aldehyde reduction forms?

Select one of the following:

  • desipramine

  • mesoridazine

  • trichloroethanol

  • sulindac

Explanation

Question 13 of 50

1

What process is involved in the biotransformation of prednisone to prednisolone?

Select one of the following:

  • ketone reduction

  • O-demethylation

  • sulfoxide reduction

  • Aromatic hydroxylation

Explanation

Question 14 of 50

1

What process is involved in the biotransformation of phenylbutazone to oxybutazone?

Select one of the following:

  • aromatic hydroxylation

  • ketone reduction

  • N-acetylation

  • S-oxidation

Explanation

Question 15 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are metabolites?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 6-mercaptopurine

  • phenylbutazone

  • prednisolone

  • acetaminophen

Explanation

Question 16 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are parent drug/s?

Select one or more of the following:

  • digitoxin

  • hydrocortisone

  • primidone

  • propranolol

Explanation

Question 17 of 50

1

The property of chemicals to destroy one form of life without harming another.

Select one of the following:

  • stereoisomerism

  • regioselectivity

  • selective toxicity

  • substrate stereoselectivity

Explanation

Question 18 of 50

1

Which of the following may be used to classify chemotherapeutic agents?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chemical type

  • biologic properties

  • therapeutic indications

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 19 of 50

1

Which of the following is/are characteristics of an ideal antiseptic?

Select one or more of the following:

  • rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms

  • retain activity in the presence of body fluids

  • high surface tension

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 20 of 50

1

An agent that prevents infection by the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms when applied to inanimate objects.

Select one of the following:

  • Antiseptic

  • disinfectant

  • antibiotic

  • sanitizer

Explanation

Question 21 of 50

1

Generally accepted other names of alcohol USP

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ethanol

  • wood alcohol

  • spiritus vini rectificatus

  • wine spirit

Explanation

Question 22 of 50

1

Ethanol that has been rendered unfit for use in intoxicating beverages by the addition of other substances.

Select one of the following:

  • Denatured alcohol

  • wood alcohol

  • isopropyl alcohol

  • formaldehyde

Explanation

Question 23 of 50

1

Phenol coefficient is defined as the ratio of a disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of a bacterium. What microorganism is used in determining the phenol coefficient?

Select one of the following:

  • Bacillus subtilis

  • Enterobacter aerogenes

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • Salmonella typhi

Explanation

Question 24 of 50

1

A 2% solution of iodine in 50% alcohol with sodium iodide.

Select one of the following:

  • Iodine solution

  • iodine tincture

  • lugol’s solution

  • mayer’s reagent

Explanation

Question 25 of 50

1

A preparation of 5% Iodine in water with potassium iodide?

Select one of the following:

  • Iodine solution

  • iodine tincture

  • lugol’s solution

  • mayer’s reagent

Explanation

Question 26 of 50

1

A preparation of 2% iodine in water with sodium iodide?

Select one of the following:

  • Iodine solution

  • iodine tincture

  • lugol’s solution

  • mayer’s reagent

Explanation

Question 27 of 50

1

Povidone-Iodine

Select one or more of the following:

  • Water-soluble complex that releases iodine slowly

  • provides a non-toxic, non-irritating,non-volatile and non-staining form of iodine

  • used as an antiseptic for skin application before surgery and injection

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 28 of 50

1

A dye available as vaginal suppositories for the treatment of yeast infections.

Select one of the following:

  • Malachite green

  • methylene blue

  • phenolphthalein

  • gentian violet

Explanation

Question 29 of 50

1

Dye used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning?

Select one of the following:

  • Malachite green

  • methylene blue

  • phenolphthalein

  • gentian violet

Explanation

Question 30 of 50

1

A potent antifungal substance with a polyene structure from Streptomyces nodosus

Select one of the following:

  • Nystatin

  • griseofulvin

  • natamycin

  • amphotericin B

Explanation

Question 31 of 50

1

The aglycone portion of nystatin consisting of a 38-membered ketone ring with a single tetracene and diene chromophores isolated from each other by a methylene group, one carboxyl, one keto, and eight hydroxyl groups.

Select one of the following:

  • Mykinac

  • mycostatin

  • nystatinolide

  • candeptin

Explanation

Question 32 of 50

1

Polyene antibiotic first isolated in 1951 from a strain of Streptomyces noursei by hanzen and brown.

Select one of the following:

  • Nystatin

  • amphotericin b

  • natamycin

  • griseofulvin

Explanation

Question 33 of 50

1

Griseofulvin

Select one or more of the following:

  • Recommended for the systemic treatment of refractory ringworm infections

  • its bioavailability is notoriously poor

  • it is supplied in “microsize” and “ultramicrosize” forms

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 34 of 50

1

A series of synthetic antibacterial agents patterned after nalidixic acid, with an effective antibacterial spectrum largely confined to gram-negative bacteria.

Select one of the following:

  • quinolones

  • dihydrotriazines

  • biguanides

  • polyenes

Explanation

Question 35 of 50

1

The structure found among the quinolones which is essential for their antibacterial activity is 1,4-dihydro-4-oxo-3-pyridine carboylic acid.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 50

1

Its congeners represent important alternatives for the treatment of urinary tract infections caused by strains of Proteus resistant to other agents.

Select one of the following:

  • Norfloxacin

  • cinoxacin

  • nitrofurantoin

  • nalidixic acid

Explanation

Question 37 of 50

1

Antibiotic

Select one or more of the following:

  • A synthetic product produced as a structural analogue of a naturally occurring antibiotic

  • it antagonizes the growth or the survival of one or more species of microorganisms

  • it is effective in low concentration

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 38 of 50

1

One who led the isolation of streptomycin from Streptomyces griseus:

Select one of the following:

  • Pasteur & Joubert

  • waksman

  • Vuillemin

  • Florey and Chain

Explanation

Question 39 of 50

1

Antibiotic that binds with ribosome 30s subunit

Select one of the following:

  • Chloramphenicol

  • tetracycline

  • erythromycin

  • lincomycins

Explanation

Question 40 of 50

1

Benzylpenicillin binds preferentially to:

Select one of the following:

  • PBP 1a & 1b

  • PBP 2

  • PBP 3

  • PBP 6

Explanation

Question 41 of 50

1

Methicillin is chemically called as:

Select one of the following:

  • 2-ethoxy-1-napthylpenicillin

  • 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin

  • 5-methyl-3-(2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin

  • 2,6-dimethoxyphenyl penicillin

Explanation

Question 42 of 50

1

Amoxicillin

Select one of the following:

  • D-?-Amino-p-hydroxybenzyl-penicillin

  • ?-Carboxy-3-thienyl penicillin

  • ?-(1-methanesulfonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin

  • D-?-aminobenzyl penicillin

Explanation

Question 43 of 50

1

Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it to contain a fused ring system which is the:

Select one of the following:

  • ?-lactam thiazolidine

  • ?-lactam penam

  • 6-aminopenicillanic acid

  • ?-lactam phenyl penicillin ring

Explanation

Question 44 of 50

1

Members of the 4-isoxazolyl penicillin family require these substituents for effectiveness against ?-lactamase producing Staphylococcus aureus.

Select one of the following:

  • 3-aryl & 5-methyl group

  • 3-acyl & 6-methyl group

  • 3-phenyl & 2-methoxy group

  • 3-phenyl & 2-methyl group

Explanation

Question 45 of 50

1

These are major antigenic determinants that are formed when penicillins or its rearrangement products in vivo react with lysine-e-amino groups of proteins resulting to allergic reactions.

Select one of the following:

  • Penicillenic acids

  • penicilloyl proteins

  • penicillanic proteins

  • penicillanic acids

Explanation

Question 46 of 50

1

This is prepared by the reaction of ampicillin with acetone

Select one of the following:

  • Unipen

  • hetacillin

  • unasyn

  • methicillin

Explanation

Question 47 of 50

1

Class 1 ?-lactamase inhibitors have hetero atom leaving at position 1. Which of these is/are Class II inhibitors:
I. Carbapenems
II. Sulbactam
III. Clavulanic Acid

Select one of the following:

  • I only

  • I, II

  • II, III

  • III only

Explanation

Question 48 of 50

1

Augmentin is a combination of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • K salt of Clavulanic Acid

  • amoxicillin

  • ampicillin

  • sulbactam

Explanation

Question 49 of 50

1

Unasyn is a fixed-dose combination of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Amoxicillin

  • sulbactam

  • ampicillin

  • clavulanic

Explanation

Question 50 of 50

1

Primaxin is a combination of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tazocillin

  • imipenem

  • piperacillin

  • cilastatin

Explanation

Question 51 of 50

1

Imipenem is the most successful of a series of chemically stable derivatives of thienamycin in which the primary amino group is converted to a non-nucleophilic basic function. Imipenem is also:

Select one of the following:

  • 5-acetamido thienamycin

  • 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin

  • n-formimidoyl thienamycin

  • ?-imidazolyl ethylamine

Explanation

Question 52 of 50

1

D-(4-amino-4-carboxybutyl) is:

Select one of the following:

  • Penicillin N

  • synnematin B

  • cephalosporin N

  • chloramphenicol B

Explanation

Question 53 of 50

1

Cephalosporin C contains:

Select one of the following:

  • Penicillanic acid

  • thiazolidine ring

  • lactone ring

  • dihydrothiazine ring

Explanation

Question 54 of 50

1

A parenteral cephamycin

Select one of the following:

  • Cefoxitin

  • ceftazidime

  • cephalexin

  • cefadroxil

Explanation

Question 55 of 50

1

Zinacef is the first of a series of a-methoxyimino-acyl-substituted cephalosporins that constitute most of the third generation agents. Zinacef is:

Select one of the following:

  • Sterile cefotaxime Sodium, USP

  • Cefuroxime Sodium, USP

  • Moxalactam Disodium, USP

  • Cefepime, USP

Explanation

Question 56 of 50

1

The factors that contribute to an extremely long serum half-life of sterile ceftriaxone disodium, USP

Select one or more of the following:

  • High fraction of protein binding in the plasma

  • slow urinary excretion

  • it is not metabolized in vivo

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 57 of 50

1

This increases stability to ?-lactamases while increasing activity against G(-) bacteria at the same time in monobactams:

Select one of the following:

  • 4-methyl group

  • 3-methoxy group

  • oximinoacyl group

  • 2-aryl group

Explanation

Question 58 of 50

1

The 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used in chemotherapy:

Select one of the following:

  • Amikacin

  • gentamicin

  • streptomycin

  • kanamycin

Explanation

Question 59 of 50

1

MOA of Aminoglycosides:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Interferes with cell wall synthesis

  • act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis

  • interferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 60 of 50

1

Extrachromosomals which are self-replicative and transferable by conjugation that is responsible for the transfer of resistance from one bacterium to another.

Select one of the following:

  • R-factor

  • F-factor

  • S-factor

  • X-factor

Explanation

Question 61 of 50

1

SAR of Aminoglycosides: important for characteristic broad-spectrum antibacterial activity & is the primary target for bacterial inactivating enzymes.

Select one of the following:

  • Ring I

  • Ring II

  • Ring III

  • Ring IV

Explanation

Question 62 of 50

1

Known as Streptomycin B

Select one of the following:

  • Streptomycin

  • Mannisidostreptomycin

  • Hydroxystreptomycin

  • Paromomycin Sulfate, USP

Explanation

Question 63 of 50

1

Acid hydrolysis of Streptomycin yields:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Streptidine

  • Streptobiosamine

  • Deoxystreptamine

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 64 of 50

1

Neomycin is obtained from:

Select one of the following:

  • S. fradiae

  • S. rimosus

  • S. kanamyceticus

  • Micromonospora purpurea

Explanation

Question 65 of 50

1

The synthesis of this semisynthetic aminoglycoside involves simple acylation of the 1-amino group of the deoxystreptamine ring of Kanamycin A with L-amino-a-hydroxybutyric acid (L-AHBA)

Select one of the following:

  • Tobramycin

  • Netilmicin

  • Amikacin

  • Gentamicin

Explanation

Question 66 of 50

1

A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of an octahydronaphthalene, a hydrocarbon system that comprises four annelated six-membered rings.

Select one of the following:

  • Macrolides

  • tetracycline

  • lincomycins

  • sulfonamides

Explanation

Question 67 of 50

1

7-Chloro-6-demethyl tetracycline is:

Select one of the following:

  • demeclocycline

  • Oxytetracycline

  • minocycline

  • Doxycycline

Explanation

Question 68 of 50

1

Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Large lactone ring

  • ketone group

  • a glycosidically linked amino sugar

  • an asymmetric carbon atoms in the acylamidopropanediol chain

Explanation

Question 69 of 50

1

Bacillus subtilis strain that was isolated from debrided tissue of a compound fracture in 7-year old Margaret Tracy produced this antibiotic.

Select one of the following:

  • Gramicidin

  • Bacitracin

  • Colistin

  • Polymyxin

Explanation

Question 70 of 50

1

The first of the widely used broad-spectrum antibiotic that was isolated by Ehrlich in 1947 from S. venezuelae

Select one of the following:

  • Clindamycin

  • Chloramphenicol

  • Vancomycin

  • Novobiocin

Explanation

Question 71 of 50

1

Erythromycin B differs from Erythromycin A only at carbon 12, at which hydroxyl group is replaced by ______, which renders it more acid stable.

Select one of the following:

  • Bromine

  • Chlorine

  • Hydrogen

  • Oxygen

Explanation

Question 72 of 50

1

These are sulfur-containing antibiotics isolated from S. lincolnensis

Select one of the following:

  • Bacitracin

  • novobiocin

  • lincomycins

  • vancomycins

Explanation

Question 73 of 50

1

7-Chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin

Select one of the following:

  • Cleocin

  • Unasyn

  • Unipen

  • Lincocin

Explanation

Question 74 of 50

1

Bacitracin’s bactericidal effect through an inhibition of mucopeptide cell wall synthesis is enhanced by:

Select one of the following:

  • P

  • Zn

  • Cl

  • S

Explanation

Question 75 of 50

1

Analogue of podophyllotoxin that is an inhibitor of Topoisomerase II which contains methyl as its R group:

Select one of the following:

  • Vindoline

  • Etoposide

  • Vincristine

  • Epipodophyllotoxin

Explanation

Question 76 of 50

1

The complex structures in vinca alkaloid composed of indole-containing moiety and an indoline-containing moiety:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Indoline

  • Vindoline

  • Vindesine

  • Catharanthine

Explanation

Question 77 of 50

1

Is an antineoplastic agent preparation from E. coli containing the enzyme L-asparagine amidohydrolase

Select one or more of the following:

  • Asparaginase

  • Elspar

  • Pipobroman

  • Platinol

Explanation

Question 78 of 50

1

An antineoplastic drug active against rapidly proliferating cells in the synthesis phase during which it prevents the formation of deoxyribonucleotides by inhibition of ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase.

Select one of the following:

  • Carboplatin

  • hydroxyurea

  • mitoguazone

  • hycanthone

Explanation

Question 79 of 50

1

Used primarily for polycythemia vera:

Select one of the following:

  • Hexamethylamine

  • asparaginase

  • tamoxifen

  • pipobroman

Explanation

Question 80 of 50

1

D-Homo-17a-oxa androsta-1,4-dione prepared by microbial transformation of progesterone

Select one of the following:

  • Tamoxifen

  • testolactone

  • megestrol

  • ethinyl estradiol

Explanation

Question 81 of 50

1

Interferons are secreted by cells in response to viral infections or other chemical or biologic inducers. The major classes of interferons are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • alpha

  • Beta

  • Lambda

  • Gamma

Explanation

Question 82 of 50

1

It is a highly purified protein containing 165 amino acids manufactured from a strain of E.coli bearing a genetically engineered plasmid containing an interferon alfa-2a gene from human leukocytes.

Select one or more of the following:

  • RIFN

  • IFLrA

  • Roferon-A

  • Interon

Explanation

Question 83 of 50

1

This is absolutely essential for the in-vitro carbonic anhydrase inhibitory activity and for the production of a diuresis in vivo.

Select one of the following:

  • Sulfamoyl group

  • neptazane

  • amino group

  • Imino group

Explanation

Question 84 of 50

1

Diamox

Select one of the following:

  • Acetazolamide

  • Hydrochlorothiazide

  • Amoxicillin

  • Dichlorphenamide

Explanation

Question 85 of 50

1

Benzothiazine-1,1-dioxide nucleus is contained in:

Select one of the following:

  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

  • thiazide diuretics

  • loop diuretics

  • phenoxyacetic acids

Explanation

Question 86 of 50

1

4-Chloro-N-furfuryl-5-sulfamoyl anthranilic acid is:

Select one of the following:

  • Bumetanide

  • furosemide

  • ethacrynic acid

  • chlorothiazide

Explanation

Question 87 of 50

1

Primary compound selected from a host of pteridine analogues and resembles the structure of folic acid and certain dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors.

Select one of the following:

  • Spironolactone

  • amiloride

  • theophylline

  • triamterene

Explanation

Question 88 of 50

1

A pyrazinoyl guanidine diuretic that inhibits the electrogenic entry of 2% to 3% of the filtered load of Na into the tubule cells.

Select one of the following:

  • Triamterene

  • spironolactone

  • amiloride

  • aldosterone

Explanation

Question 89 of 50

1

The major adverse effect of midamor:

Select one of the following:

  • hypomagnesemia

  • hyponatremia

  • hypocalcemia

  • hyperkalemia

Explanation

Question 90 of 50

1

?-imidazolylethylamine, an autacoid, is widespread in nature being found in ergot and other plants and in all organs and tissues of the human body. It’s also known as:

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1H-imidazole-4-ethenamine

  • histamine

  • serotonin

  • NOTA

Explanation

Question 91 of 50

1

The major source of histamine in the body results from the decarboxylation of this amino acid:

Select one of the following:

  • Tryptophan

  • Histidine

  • Tyrosine

  • Phenylalanine

Explanation

Question 92 of 50

1

Drowsiness is a side effect of antihistamines that is most common to the:

Select one of the following:

  • Ethylenediamines

  • tertiary aminoalkyl ethers

  • phenothiazines

  • cimetidine

Explanation

Question 93 of 50

1

A propylamine derivative:

Select one of the following:

  • Diphenhydramine

  • Clemastine

  • Carbinoxamine

  • Brompheniramine

Explanation

Question 94 of 50

1

Dramamine

Select one of the following:

  • Doxylamine

  • Dimenhydrinate

  • Diphenhydramine

  • Cyclizine

Explanation

Question 95 of 50

1

The piperazine, imidazoline and phenothiazine type antihistamines contain the following moiety:

Select one of the following:

  • Aminoalkyl ethers

  • ethylene diamine

  • propylamine

  • butyrophenone

Explanation

Question 96 of 50

1

Antihistamine resulting from the chlorination of pheniramine in the para position of the phenyl ring that gives a tenfold increase in potency with no appreciable changes in toxicity.

Select one of the following:

  • Brompheniramine

  • chlorpheniramine

  • pyrrobutamine

  • promethazine

Explanation

Question 97 of 50

1

A sulfone derivative investigated initially to be the most effective drug for the treatment of leprosy and has useful antimalarial property but was too toxic.

Select one of the following:

  • 4,4’-diamidodiphenylsulfide

  • 4,4’-diaminodiphenylsulfone

  • 3,4’-diaminediphenylsulfide

  • 3,4’-diamidodiphenylsulfone

Explanation

Question 98 of 50

1

What antibiotic caused a major advance in the treatment of tuberculosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Isoniazid

  • ethionamide

  • rifampin

  • cycloserine

Explanation

Question 99 of 50

1

Ethambutol is remarkably stereospecific. Toxicities of its isomers are about equal but their activity varies considerably. Factors that have pronounced effect on the activity are:

Select one of the following:

  • Length of the alkylene chain

  • nature of the branching with the alkyl substituents in the nitrogens

  • extent of N-alkylation

  • pyranolone ring at the C4 of the compound

Explanation

Question 100 of 50

1

Ethionamide is a second-line treatment drug for tuberculosis and used in the treatment of INH-resistant tuberculosis or when the patient is intolerant to INH and other drugs. What is its structural difference with the INH series?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 - substitution

  • 2 - substitution

  • addition of a thiazolidine ring

  • addition of a pyranolone ring

Explanation

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