j.salvino
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

FINAL NTEN 127 Quiz on Final Review Questions, created by j.salvino on 04/13/2016.

28
0
0
j.salvino
Created by j.salvino about 8 years ago
Close

Final Review Questions

Question 1 of 43

5

The domain name part of a DNS name is _______ and consists of two or
more words, separated by ______.

Select one of the following:

  • peer-based; periods

  • hierarchical; commas

  • unranked; commas

  • hierarchical; periods

Explanation

Question 2 of 43

5

What are the servers at the top of the DNS hierarchy called?

Select one of the following:

  • Down-level servers

  • Authoritative sources

  • Root servers

  • Forwarders

Explanation

Question 3 of 43

5

A __________ is any machine issuing queries to a DNS server

Select one of the following:

  • DNS server

  • DNS client

  • DNS resolver

  • HOSTS file

Explanation

Question 4 of 43

5

You need to have your DNS database automatically update its records.
What do you need to configure?

Select one of the following:

  • DNS Auto updates

  • DNS database update

  • Dynamic DNS

  • secure only

Explanation

Question 5 of 43

5

What do you call the source responsible for maintaining a domain’s
resource records?

Select one of the following:

  • Authoritative source

  • Root server

  • Down-level server

  • Authenticate source

Explanation

Question 6 of 43

5

The typical query one DNS server sends to a root name server is called
a(n) _______.

Select one of the following:

  • forwarded query

  • referral

  • recursive query

  • iterative query

Explanation

Question 7 of 43

5

What is the primary benefit of a DNS forwarder?

Select one of the following:

  • Making the most of iterative queries to other DNS servers

  • Exchanging iterative queries for recursive queries across the
    network perimeter

  • Reducing the burden on the Internet’s root name servers

  • Reducing the traffic and making efficient use of available
    bandwidth across the network perimeter

Explanation

Question 8 of 43

5

What is the primary purpose of name caching?

Select one of the following:

  • Name caching greatly reduces traffic on the company network

  • Name caching enables the second name resolution request for
    the same name to bypass the referral process.

  • Name caching saves an extraordinary amount of time for the user

  • Name caching validates why you should deploy caching-only
    servers.

Explanation

Question 9 of 43

5

What is the first packet sent to a DHCP server when a computer boots
up?

Select one of the following:

  • DHCPINFORM

  • DHCPDISCOVER

  • DHCPOFFER

  • DHCPACK

Explanation

Question 10 of 43

5

How do DHCP servers respond to a DHCPDISCOVER message?

Select one of the following:

  • DHCPINFORM

  • DHCPRELEASE

  • DHCPACK

  • DHCPOFFER

Explanation

Question 11 of 43

5

How does a DHCP client communicate which offered IP address it will
accept from which DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

  • The client sends a DHCPREQUEST message to the server

  • The client sends a DHCPREQUEST message to all servers
    the IP address of the chosen DHCP server.

  • The client sends a DHCPACK message to all servers with the
    IP address of the chosen DHCP server

  • The client selects the closest server and beeps audibly to
    accept the offer.

Explanation

Question 12 of 43

5

The following is the process in which IP addresses are handed out to
clients through DHCP:
Discover
Offer
Request
Assign

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 13 of 43

5

During DHCP lease negotiation, what happens if the client requests an
IP address from the server but the server has already assigned the
offered IP address?

Select one of the following:

  • The server responds with a DHCPACK message to the client

  • The server responds with a DHCPNAK message to the
    client.

  • The server responds with a DHCPSOS message to the client

  • The server ignores the client until the lease negotiation
    expires and process restarts

Explanation

Question 14 of 43

5

What is the default lease period for DHCP dynamic address allocation?

Select one of the following:

  • 96 hours

  • 8 days

  • 4.5 days

  • 3.5 days

Explanation

Question 15 of 43

5

How far into the lease period does a DHCP client begin requesting
renewal of the IP address?

Select one of the following:

  • 50 percent, or about 2 days into the lease

  • 75 percent, or about 2 days into the lease

  • 50 percent, or at 4 days into the lease

  • 87.5 percent, or about 7 days into the lease

Explanation

Question 16 of 43

5

You want to use DHCP to reserve a range of address that should not be
automatically assigned.

Select one of the following:

  • Restrictions

  • Strings

  • Reservations

  • Exclusions

Explanation

Question 17 of 43

5

The ability to enable the DHCP server to provide addresses from more
than one scope to clients on the same physical subnet is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Subscope

  • Superscope

  • Scope

  • Multiscope

Explanation

Question 18 of 43

5

If no DHCP server is available on the client’s network, you can use a
_____________ to forward DHCP broadcasts from the client’s network
to the DHCP server.

Select one of the following:

  • DHCP IP Helper

  • DHCP Relay Agent

  • DNS

  • Hosts File

Explanation

Question 19 of 43

5

Which of the following are advantages to using NTFS file system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Compression

  • Encryption

  • Quotas

  • Security

Explanation

Question 20 of 43

5

Which of the following protocols or services are required by Active
Directory?

Select one or more of the following:

  • DHCP

  • TCP/IP

  • ASDN

  • DNS

  • BLNA

  • NetBEUI

Explanation

Question 21 of 43

5

Which of the following statements would allow for faster backups?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Full backups are performed

  • Windows keeps a shadow copy of the source volume

  • Each volume is backed up separately

  • Incremental backups are performed

Explanation

Question 22 of 43

5

What functionality allows you to recover deleted Active Directory
objects without the need of using a backup?

Select one of the following:

  • Active Directory Recycle Bin

  • Active Directory Authoritative Restore

  • Active Directory Non-Authoritative Restore

  • Active Directory Secure Restore

Explanation

Question 23 of 43

5

How many of the statements regarding AD are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • After making changes to AD the server must be rebooted.

  • In order to defrag the AD database, you need to stop the AD service

  • After making changes to an AD domain controller you must force other
    controllers to be updated

  • When compacting an AD database, it will create an additional compacted
    copy of the current database

Explanation

Question 24 of 43

5

What Windows feature captures and stores copies of folders and files at
specific points in time, allowing users or administrators to recover
accidentally deleted or overwritten files as well as compare different
versions of the same file?

Select one of the following:

  • Version Management Copies

  • Shadow Copy Version Control

  • Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes

  • Version Control Shadow Copy Provider

Explanation

Question 25 of 43

5

Within a domain, the primary hierarchical building block is the
_________.

Select one of the following:

  • forest

  • organizational unit

  • group

  • user

Explanation

Question 26 of 43

5

What is a key difference between a domain tree hierarchy and the
organizational unit (OU) hierarchy within a domain?

Select one of the following:

  • Ability to apply Group Policy

  • Members allowed within

  • Membership

  • Inheritance

Explanation

Question 27 of 43

5

What is the only OU created by default after installing Active Directory?

Select one of the following:

  • Users OU

  • Domain Controllers OU

  • Global OU

  • Computers OU

Explanation

Question 28 of 43

5

Resource access for individuals takes place through their ______.

Select one of the following:

  • computer accounts

  • user accounts

  • authentication

  • shared folders

Explanation

Question 29 of 43

5

What is the SAM account name and the User Principal Name for the
account ella@contoso.com?

Select one of the following:

  • SAM account name is ella@contoso.com, and the User
    Principal Name is ella

  • SAM account name is ella, and the User Principal Name is
    ella@contoso.com

  • Both the SAM account name and the User Principal Name
    are: ella@contoso.com

  • Both the SAM account name and the User Principal Name
    are: ella

Explanation

Question 30 of 43

5

What are the two built-in user accounts are created on a computer
running Windows Server 2012?

Select one of the following:

  • system and guest

  • default and guest

  • domain administrator and local administrator

  • administrator and guest

Explanation

Question 31 of 43

5

When would administrators choose to use a User Template?

Select one of the following:

  • When an administrator wants to save time while creating
    single users with many attributes

  • When an administrator wants to save task steps while
    delegating user creation to other users

  • When an administrator wants to ensure quality assurance in
    creating new objects

  • When an administrator is accustomed to using User Templates

Explanation

Question 32 of 43

5

Can a domain user, who does not possess explicit object creation
permissions, create computer objects?

Select one of the following:

  • . No, not without the object creation permission

  • Yes, an authenticated user can create a server object, after
    authenticating to a different domain server

  • Can create workstation and server objects

  • Yes, authenticated users can create workstation, but not server
    objects

Explanation

Question 33 of 43

5

Which of the following is NOT a group scope?

Select one of the following:

  • Security groups

  • Universal groups

  • Global groups

  • Domain local groups

Explanation

Question 34 of 43

5

The three types of Group Policy Objects (GPOs) include local, domain
and _____.

Select one of the following:

  • OU

  • universal

  • starter

  • nonlocal

Explanation

Question 35 of 43

5

Where is the path to the default GPT structure for a domain?

Select one of the following:

  • %systemroot%\SYSVOL\sysvol\<domain name>\Policies\

  • %systemroot%\SYSVOL\sysvol\<domain name>\Policies\{GUID}

  • %systemroot%\SYSVOL\sysvol\<domain name>\Policies

  • %systemroot%\SYSVOL\sysvol\<domain name>

Explanation

Question 36 of 43

5

Group Policy settings are divided into two subcategories: User
Configuration and Computer Configuration. Each of those two are
further organized into three subnodes. What are the three?

Select one of the following:

  • Software settings, Windows settings, and Delegation Templates

  • Software settings, Windows settings, and Administrative
    Templates

  • Security settings, Windows settings, and Delegation Templates

  • Security settings, Windows settings, and Administrative
    Templates

Explanation

Question 37 of 43

5

Configuring a Central Store of ADMX files help solve the problem of
________

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive REQ_QWORD registry entries on every workstation

  • Replication time for copying policies

  • Windows 7 workstations not able to receive policies

  • SYSVOL bloat

Explanation

Question 38 of 43

5

You want to ensure that only the GPOs set at the OU level affect the
Group Policy settings for objects within the OU. Which option can they
use to do this?

Select one of the following:

  • The Enforce option

  • The Block Policy Inheritance option

  • The Disable option

  • The Deny permission

Explanation

Question 39 of 43

5

You want to ensure that a certain GPO that is applied at the domain
level is not overridden at lower levels. Which option can they use to do
this?

Select one of the following:

  • The Enforce option

  • The Block Policy Inheritance option

  • The Disable option

  • The Deny permission

Explanation

Question 40 of 43

5

Which of the following levels can CPOs be applied?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sites

  • Groups

  • OUs

  • Domains

Explanation

Question 41 of 43

5

What is the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that you
use to create GPOs and manage their deployment to AD DS objects?

Select one of the following:

  • Group Policy Management console

  • Active Directory Administrative Center

  • Server Manager

  • Disk Management

Explanation

Question 42 of 43

5

What is the technique called that you can modify the default permission
assignments so that only certain users and computers receive the
permissions and, consequently, the settings in the GPO?

Select one of the following:

  • Inheritance

  • Special identity linking

  • Permission granting

  • Security filtering

Explanation

Question 43 of 43

5

In order to be accessible to other domain controllers, logon/logoff and
startup/shutdown scripts should be placed in the SYSVOL share

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation