Andres Felipe Londono
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Quiz on Figuras, created by Andres Felipe Londono on 02/03/2017.

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Andres Felipe Londono
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Figuras

Question 1 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 1) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the

Select one of the following:

  • Green Arc

  • Yellow Arc

  • White Arc

Explanation

Question 2 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall

Select one of the following:

  • 10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down.

  • 25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration.

  • 10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall, than in a wings-level stall with flaps up.

Explanation

Question 3 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 4) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky?

Select one of the following:

  • FL390.

  • FL300 sloping to FL 400 feet MSL.

  • FL340.

Explanation

Question 4 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 5, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending into AL, GA, SC and northern FL indicate a

Select one of the following:

  • vTropical storm.

  • Hurricane.

  • Tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico.

Explanation

Question 5 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over Canada?

Select one of the following:

  • 80

  • 103

  • 130

Explanation

Question 6 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 6.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low- Level Significant Weather Prog Chart?

Select one of the following:

  • Showery precipitation (e.g. rainshowers) embedded in an área of continuous rain covering half or
    more of the area.

  • Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain showers) covering half or more of the area.

  • Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area.

Explanation

Question 7 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 5, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect

Select one of the following:

  • Moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240.

  • Moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.

  • No turbulence is indicated.

Explanation

Question 8 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E?

Select one of the following:

  • Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24.000 feet MSL, and tops at 40.000
    feet MSL.

  • Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than 1/8 coverage, and tops at FL370.

  • Frequent lighting in thunderstorms at FL370.

Explanation

Question 9 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D?

Select one of the following:

  • Forecast isolated thunderstorm, tops at FL 440, more than 1/8 coverage.

  • Existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops above 43.000 feet with less than 1/8 coverage.

  • Forecastisolatedembeddedcumulonimbuscloudswithtopsat43.000feetMSL,
    andlessthan1/8coverage.

Explanation

Question 10 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within the area indicated by arrow C?

Select one of the following:

  • Light turbulence at FL 370 within the area outlined by dashes.

  • Moderate turbulence at 32.000 feet MSL.

  • Moderate to sever CAT has been reported at FL 320.

Explanation

Question 11 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?

Select one of the following:

  • The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.

  • The height of the existing layer of CAT.

  • The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.

Explanation

Question 12 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?

Select one of the following:

  • The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.

  • The height of the existing layer of CAT.

  • The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.

Explanation

Question 13 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?

Select one of the following:

  • 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51.000 feet MSL.

  • Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24.000 feet with tops to 48.000 feet.

  • 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.

Explanation

Question 14 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 1

  • 3

Explanation

Question 15 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.

  • Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.

  • Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.

Explanation

Question 16 of 67

1

Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?

Select one of the following:

  • 3

  • 1

  • 2

Explanation

Question 17 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.

  • Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.

  • Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.

Explanation

Question 18 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 3

  • 2

Explanation

Question 19 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 9.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.

Select one of the following:

  • Static/pitot system is blocked, lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of
    attitude indicator.

  • Vacuum system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitchup to reduce air speed.

  • Electrical system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce air speed.

Explanation

Question 20 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 10.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.

Select one of the following:

  • Climbing turn to the right.

  • Climbing turn to the left.

  • Descending turn to the right.

Explanation

Question 21 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 11.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.

Select one of the following:

  • Level turn to the right.

  • Level turn to the left.

  • Straight-and-level flight.

Explanation

Question 22 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 12.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Select one of the following:

  • Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings.

  • Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.

  • Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.

Explanation

Question 23 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 13.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Select one of the following:

  • Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading.

  • Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.

  • Stopturnbyraisingrightwingandaddpoweratthesametime, lowerthenose, andreturntooriginalattitude and heading.

Explanation

Question 24 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?

Select one of the following:

  • Top red.

  • Middle yellow.

  • Bottom yellow.

Explanation

Question 25 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found

Select one of the following:

  • Upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.

  • At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

  • Near the approach end of ILS runways.

Explanation

Question 26 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft

Select one of the following:

  • Passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.

  • Is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.

  • Is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

Explanation

Question 27 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 15.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane’s crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots?

Select one of the following:

  • 260° at 20 knots.

  • 275° at 25 knots.

  • 315° at 35 knots.

Explanation

Question 28 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind component for a Rwy 08 landing?

Select one of the following:

  • 7 Ktos

  • 15 Ktos

  • 17 Ktos

Explanation

Question 29 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy 13 landing?

Select one of the following:

  • 19 knots.

  • 21 knots.

  • 23 knots.

Explanation

Question 30 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned

Select one of the following:

  • Left to a heading of 270°.

  • Right to a heading of 330°.

  • Right to a heading of 360°.

Explanation

Question 31 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at

Select one of the following:

  • The surface.

  • 3, 823 feet MSL.

  • 700 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 32 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is

Select one of the following:

  • The outer segment of Class B airspace.

  • An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B
    airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.

  • AModeCveilboundarywhereaballoonmaypenetratewithoutatransponderprovideditremainsbelow 8,000 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 33 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which

Select one of the following:

  • There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity,
    neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.

  • The flight of aircraft is prohibited.

  • The flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.

Explanation

Question 34 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is

Select one of the following:

  • 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.

  • 1, 200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.

  • Both 700 feet and 1, 200 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 35 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is

Select one of the following:

  • The surface.

  • 700 feet AGL.

  • 1, 200 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 36 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?

Select one of the following:

  • Top red.

  • Middle yellow.

  • Bottom yellow.

Explanation

Question 37 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?

Select one of the following:

  • Top red.

  • Middle yellow.

  • Bottom yellow.

Explanation

Question 38 of 67

1

(Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at

Select one of the following:

  • DENAY intersection.

  • Glide slope intercept.

  • ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.

Explanation

Question 39 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is

Select one of the following:

  • 11,000 feet MSL.

  • 7,000 feet MSL.

  • 9,000 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 40 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed approach point?

Select one of the following:

  • 4.8 NM.

  • 5.2 NM.

  • 12.0 NM.

Explanation

Question 41 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

Select one of the following:

  • 2,365 feet MSL.

  • 2,400 feet M SL.

  • 3,000 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 42 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • One VOR receiver.

  • One VOR receiver and DME.

  • Two VOR receivers and DME.

Explanation

Question 43 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Select one of the following:

  • Denver VORTAC.

  • Dymon outer marker.

  • Cruup I-AQD DME fix.

Explanation

Question 44 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 420 feet.

  • 1, 340 feet.

  • 1, 121 feet.

Explanation

Question 45 of 67

1

(Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

Select one of the following:

  • Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

  • 8,000 feet MSL.

  • 2,100 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 46 of 67

1

(Refer to Figures 39 and 40.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?

Select one of the following:

  • It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.

  • The localizer has an additional navigation function.

  • GRICEintersectionalsoservesastheFAFfortheILSapproachproceduretoHarryP.WilliamsMemorial.

Explanation

Question 47 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 41.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is

Select one of the following:

  • 6, 400 feet.

  • 6, 500 feet.

  • 7, 000 feet.

Explanation

Question 48 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 42.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 122.1, 126.4.

  • 123.6, 122.65.

  • 122.2, 122.3.

Explanation

Question 49 of 67

1

(Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?

Select one of the following:

  • 15 feet.

  • 18 feet.

  • 22 feet.

Explanation

Question 50 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • 3,000 feet MSL.

  • 1, 800 feet MSL.

  • 1, 690 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 51 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 45.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet

Select one of the following:

  • Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER.

  • Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart

  • Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.

Explanation

Question 52 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?

Select one of the following:

  • It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.

  • It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.

  • It is the mínimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 020° and 290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.

Explanation

Question 53 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 43A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?

Select one of the following:

  • Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.

  • Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available.

  • Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.

Explanation

Question 54 of 67

1

(Refer to Figures 47 and 48.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 27?

Select one of the following:

  • a

  • b

  • c

Explanation

Question 55 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2, 400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?

Select one of the following:

  • 200 feet per minute.

  • 400 feet per minute.

  • 600 feet per minute.

Explanation

Question 56 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 50.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should

Select one of the following:

  • Land straight in on runway 31.

  • Comply with straight-in landing minimums.

  • Begin final approach without making a procedure turn.

Explanation

Question 57 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 51.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Select one of the following:

  • Denver VORTAC.

  • Gandi outer marker.

  • Denver/Stapleton International Airport.

Explanation

Question 58 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 43A.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)

Select one of the following:

  • 425 feet per minute.

  • 530 feet per minute.

  • 635 feet per minute.

Explanation

Question 59 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 52.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?

Select one of the following:

  • 70 feet MSL.

  • 54 feet MSL.

  • 46 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 60 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 53.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?

Select one of the following:

  • 363 feet MSL.

  • 365 feet MSL.

  • 396 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 61 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 53) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?

Select one of the following:

  • 415 feet per minute.

  • 480 feet per minute.

  • 555 feet per minute.

Explanation

Question 62 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 54.) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 200 fpm.

  • 500 fpm.

  • 800 fpm.

Explanation

Question 63 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 55.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at LABER?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 DME miles from LABER.

  • 10 DME miles from the MAP.

  • 12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.

Explanation

Question 64 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 54.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?

Select one of the following:

  • 5,957 feet.

  • 7,000 feet.

  • 7,900 feet.

Explanation

Question 65 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?

Select one of the following:

  • Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.

  • When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.

  • After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.

Explanation

Question 66 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to

Select one of the following:

  • completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.

  • intercepting the glide slope.

  • CREAK outbound.

Explanation

Question 67 of 67

1

(Refer to Figure 57.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet commence?

Select one of the following:

  • As soon as intercepting LOC inbound.

  • Immediately.

  • Only at the point authorized by ATC.

Explanation

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