Ben Williams
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USA-Pharmacology Quiz on USA - Pharm - MidTerm - Part 2, created by Ben Williams on 09/10/2017.

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USA - Pharm - MidTerm - Part 2

Question 1 of 44

1

Which of the following describe SSRI's?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Block reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic terminal

  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects

  • Least sedative effect

  • Decrease serotonin and norepinephrine without an appreciable effect on dopamine

  • Drug of choice with major depression

  • Highest potential for OD in the anti-depressants

  • Used to treat depression

  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)

Explanation

Question 2 of 44

1

Which of the following describe SNRI's?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Decrease serotonin and norepinephrine without an appreciable effect on dopamine

  • Drug of choice with major depression

  • May be used for chronic pain

  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects

  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs

  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses

  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)

Explanation

Question 3 of 44

1

Which of the following describe Tricyclics?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Block the reuptake of amine neurotransmitters into the presynaptic terminal

  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs

  • Highest potential for OD in the anti-depressants

  • Block reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic terminal

  • Drug of choice with major depression

  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses

  • Not the drug of choice for depression; higher incidence of side effects

Explanation

Question 4 of 44

1

Which of the following describe MAO Inhibitors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses

  • Not the drug of choice for depression; higher incidence of side effects

  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)

  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects

  • Least sedative effect

  • Drug of choice with major depression

  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs

Explanation

Question 5 of 44

1

With Serotonin Syndrome, serotonin accumulates in the brain causing sweating, agitation, restlessness, shivering, and tachycardia, leading to seizures, coma, or death.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 44

1

Depression occurs when there is an excessive amount of one (or more) of the amine neurotransmitters (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) in the CNS. Therefore, treatment for depression revolves around selective stripping of these neurotransmitters, one at a time.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 7 of 44

1

Depression occurs when there is a lack of one of the amine neurotransmitters (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) .

Anti-depressant medications work to block the reuptake of the amines (SSRI, SNRI, Tricyclics) or increase the sensitivity of the amine receptors and block the destruction of the amines (MAO Inhibitors).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 44

1

Select the common side effects of Tricyclics.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sedation

  • Anticholinergic Effects

  • Orthostatic Hypotension

  • Dry Mouth

  • Confusion

  • Tachycardia

  • Sleep Loss

  • Restlessness

  • Weight Loss

  • Increased Seizure Activity

Explanation

Question 9 of 44

1

Nitroglycerin is used to treat Bi-Polar Disorder because it prevents the depressive phase of the disorder.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 10 of 44

1

Lithium is used to treat Bi-Polar Disorder because it prevents the manic phase of the disorder.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 44

1

Schizophrenia is triggered by a combination of which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Genetic Factors

  • Environmental Triggers (brain injury or social stress)

  • Disease

  • Age

Explanation

Question 12 of 44

1

Once triggered, Schizophrenia is caused by which of the following? **Updated**

Select one or more of the following:

  • Excessive dopamine synthesis and release by the presynaptic neuron

  • Decreased dopamine breakdown at the synapse

  • Increased postsynaptic dopamine receptor sensitivity

  • Overactivity of Serotonin

  • Increased dopamine transmission in areas such as the limbic system

Explanation

Question 13 of 44

1

Antipsychotic medications end in which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • -azine

  • -apine

  • -idone

  • -olol

  • -ase

  • -am

Explanation

Question 14 of 44

1

Which of the following are advantages of using the newer antipsychotics (-apine, -idone) instead of the traditional medications (-azine)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Decreased risk of motor side effects

  • Less incidence of relapse

  • Drugs don’t work long enough to cause receptor supersensitivity

  • No chance of orthostatic hypotension

  • Decreased risk of metabolic effects

Explanation

Question 15 of 44

1

Side effects for antipsychotice drugs include which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Extrapyramidal Symptoms (Tardive Dyskinesia)

  • Orthostatic Hypotension

  • Photosensitivity

  • Metabolic Effects

  • Anticholinergic Effects

  • GI Syndromes (Nausea, Vomiting, etc)

  • Serotonin Syndrome

  • Addiction

  • Anterograde Amnesia

Explanation

Question 16 of 44

1

Which of the following are Extrapyramidal Side Effects?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Acute Dystonic Reactions

  • Akathisia

  • Pseudo-Parkinsonism

  • Tardive Dyskinesia

  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

  • Blurred Vision

  • Dry Mouth

  • Constipation

  • Urinary Retention

  • Rigidity

Explanation

Question 17 of 44

1

Which of the following are Anticholinergic Side Effects?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Blurred Vision

  • Dry Mouth

  • Constipation

  • Urinary Retention

  • Sedation

  • Confusion

  • Dyskinesia

  • Apathy

  • Nausea

  • Chorea

Explanation

Question 18 of 44

1

Which of the following best describes Status Epilepticus?

Select one of the following:

  • A medical emergency due to a state of Continuous Seizures.

  • Medical term for a patient with epilepsy.

  • Medical term for a patient who was previously epileptic, but is no longer.

  • A patient who has epilepsy, but has not had a seizure.

Explanation

Question 19 of 44

1

What are the criteria for withdrawal from an anti-epileptic drug?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Seizure-free for 2 years, good control for 1 year after medication began

  • Normal neurological exam

  • Initial seizure onset during childhood

  • Normal neurological exam for 3 years in a row

  • Initial seizure onset during adulthood

  • Seizure-free for 1 year, good control for 6 months after medication began

  • Seizure-free for 5 years, good control for 3 years after medication began

Explanation

Question 20 of 44

1

While working in an inpatient setting, you are given a patient with epilepsy. In order to minimize the seizure risk during therapy, which of the following is most appropriate?

Select one of the following:

  • Perform therapy in the patient's room rather than the therapy department, in order to minimize visual and audible stimuli.

  • Perform therapy at the same time every day.

  • Perform therapy right before the patient eats a meal.

  • Have a therapy tech on hand to help catch the patient in case they fall.

Explanation

Question 21 of 44

1

Which of the following are true regarding carbidopa?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Carbidopa inhibits the premature breakdown of levodopa

  • Allows for a lower dosage of levodopa

  • Carbidopa is the gold standard for Parkinson's medications

  • Carbidopa is a precursor to dopamine

Explanation

Question 22 of 44

1

Which of the following are side effects of Sinemet?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Dyskinesia

  • GI Problems

  • Orthostatic Hypotension

  • Depression

  • Anxiety

  • Weight Loss

  • Weight Gain

  • Hypertension

Explanation

Question 23 of 44

1

Sinemet contains which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Dopamine

  • Levodopa

  • Carbidopa

Explanation

Question 24 of 44

1

Order the Stages of General Anesthesia:
1.)
2.)
3.)
4.)

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Analgesia
    Excitement/Delirium
    Surgical Anesthesia
    Medullary Paralysis

Explanation

Question 25 of 44

1

Of the following General Anesthetics, which are administered via inhalation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nitrous oxide

  • Halothane

  • Desflurane

  • Barbiturates

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Opiods

  • Dexmedetomidine

  • Etomidate

  • Propofol

Explanation

Question 26 of 44

1

Of the following General Anesthetics, which are administered via intravenous injection?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Barbiturates

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Opiods

  • Nitrous Oxide

  • Volatile Liquids

Explanation

Question 27 of 44

1

Why do General Anesthetics have a hangover effect?

Select one of the following:

  • They are generally administered with a shot of tequila.

  • They are very lipid soluble and some wind up stored in adipose tissue for a bit.

  • General Anesthetics do not have a hangover effect.

Explanation

Question 28 of 44

1

Adjuvants may be administered with a general anesthetic to provide additional effects, such as sedation/relaxation and neuromuscular blocking.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 29 of 44

1

Local anesthetics end in which of the following suffixes?

Select one of the following:

  • -caine

  • -caide

  • -olol

  • -dine

Explanation

Question 30 of 44

1

Why is epinephrine commonly administered with local anesthetics?

Select one of the following:

  • The vasoconstrictive ability of epinephrine limits the distribution of the drug, thus avoiding the toxic effect which occurs when too much of the drug reaches systemic circulation.

  • Epinephrine increases HR, thus limiting the amount of time the drug stays in one place which can cause necrosis.

  • Epinephrine is not commonly administered with a local anesthetic. You are thinking of Norepinephrine.

  • Many patients are allergic to local anesthetics, so administering epinephrine prior to the local anesthetic minimizes the chance of an allergic reaction.

Explanation

Question 31 of 44

1

What is a Bier Block?

Select one of the following:

  • Intravenous (IV) injection of local anesthetic into an arm or leg to block the limb.

  • Injection of local anesthetic into the sympathetic chain ganglion for CRPS.

  • Injection of local anesthetic for a spinal nerve block (aka epidural).

Explanation

Question 32 of 44

1

Heating modalities accelerate transdermal absorption of local anesthetics. Thus, applying moist heat before beginning ROM components of therapy is beneficial because it will help the patient stretch further.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 44

1

2 classifications of postsynaptic receptors based on NTs

receptor: acetylcholine, targets parasympathetic nervous system
and some sympathetic. Increase activity at synapses.

receptor: norepinephrine, targets sympathetic nervous system.
Diminish response of tissues.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Cholinergic
    Adrenergic

Explanation

Question 34 of 44

1

Cholinergic Drugs can be used to treat which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Alzheimer's Disease

  • Glaucoma

  • Myasthenia Gravis

  • Parkinon's Disease

  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome

  • Motion Sickness

Explanation

Question 35 of 44

1

Anti-Cholinergic Drugs can be used to treat which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome

  • Parkinson's Disease

  • Motion Sickness

  • Alzheimer's Disease

  • Glaucoma

  • Myasthenia Gravis

Explanation

Question 36 of 44

1

Which of the following are side effects of cholinergic drugs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Salivation

  • Lacrimation

  • Urination

  • Diarrhea

  • GI Cramps

  • Emesis

  • Vasodilation

  • Delirium

  • Blurred vision

  • Urinary Retention

Explanation

Question 37 of 44

1

Which of the following are side effects of anti-cholinergic drugs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Decreased sweat

  • Blurred vision

  • Dry mouth

  • Urinary retention

  • Vasodilation

  • CNS delirium

  • Salivation

  • GI Cramps

  • Emesis

Explanation

Question 38 of 44

1

inhibit response to adrenaline/epinephrine/norepinephrine which decreases sympathetic response.
stimulate response to adrenaline/epinephrine/norepinephrine which increases sympathetic response.
increase activity at synapses which increases parasympathetic responses.
decrease activity at synapses which decreases parasympathetic responses.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Adrenergic Antagonists
    Adrenergic Agonists
    Cholinergic Stimulants
    Anti-Cholinergics

Explanation

Question 39 of 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Vasoconstrict smooth muscle thus increase BP

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explanation

Question 40 of 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Inhibit Sympathetic Discharge (brain and spinal cord)

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explanation

Question 41 of 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Increase HR and CO

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explanation

Question 42 of 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Relaxation of smooth muscle

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explanation

Question 43 of 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Reduce peripheral vascular tone

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explanation

Question 44 of 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Decrease HR/contraction force

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explanation

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