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USA - Pharm - MidTerm - Part 2

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USA-Pharmacology Quiz on USA - Pharm - MidTerm - Part 2, created by Ben Williams on 09/10/2017.
Ben Williams
Quiz by Ben Williams, updated more than 1 year ago
Ben Williams
Created by Ben Williams over 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of the following describe SSRI's?
Answer
  • Block reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic terminal
  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects
  • Least sedative effect
  • Decrease serotonin and norepinephrine without an appreciable effect on dopamine
  • Drug of choice with major depression
  • Highest potential for OD in the anti-depressants
  • Used to treat depression
  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)

Question 2

Question
Which of the following describe SNRI's?
Answer
  • Decrease serotonin and norepinephrine without an appreciable effect on dopamine
  • Drug of choice with major depression
  • May be used for chronic pain
  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects
  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs
  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses
  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)

Question 3

Question
Which of the following describe Tricyclics?
Answer
  • Block the reuptake of amine neurotransmitters into the presynaptic terminal
  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs
  • Highest potential for OD in the anti-depressants
  • Block reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic terminal
  • Drug of choice with major depression
  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses
  • Not the drug of choice for depression; higher incidence of side effects

Question 4

Question
Which of the following describe MAO Inhibitors?
Answer
  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses
  • Not the drug of choice for depression; higher incidence of side effects
  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)
  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects
  • Least sedative effect
  • Drug of choice with major depression
  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs

Question 5

Question
With Serotonin Syndrome, serotonin accumulates in the brain causing sweating, agitation, restlessness, shivering, and tachycardia, leading to seizures, coma, or death.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 6

Question
Depression occurs when there is an excessive amount of one (or more) of the amine neurotransmitters (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) in the CNS. Therefore, treatment for depression revolves around selective stripping of these neurotransmitters, one at a time.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 7

Question
Depression occurs when there is a lack of one of the amine neurotransmitters (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) . Anti-depressant medications work to block the reuptake of the amines (SSRI, SNRI, Tricyclics) or increase the sensitivity of the amine receptors and block the destruction of the amines (MAO Inhibitors).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 8

Question
Select the common side effects of Tricyclics.
Answer
  • Sedation
  • Anticholinergic Effects
  • Orthostatic Hypotension
  • Dry Mouth
  • Confusion
  • Tachycardia
  • Sleep Loss
  • Restlessness
  • Weight Loss
  • Increased Seizure Activity

Question 9

Question
Nitroglycerin is used to treat Bi-Polar Disorder because it prevents the depressive phase of the disorder.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 10

Question
Lithium is used to treat Bi-Polar Disorder because it prevents the manic phase of the disorder.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 11

Question
Schizophrenia is triggered by a combination of which of the following?
Answer
  • Genetic Factors
  • Environmental Triggers (brain injury or social stress)
  • Disease
  • Age

Question 12

Question
Once triggered, Schizophrenia is caused by which of the following? **Updated**
Answer
  • Excessive dopamine synthesis and release by the presynaptic neuron
  • Decreased dopamine breakdown at the synapse
  • Increased postsynaptic dopamine receptor sensitivity
  • Overactivity of Serotonin
  • Increased dopamine transmission in areas such as the limbic system

Question 13

Question
Antipsychotic medications end in which of the following?
Answer
  • -azine
  • -apine
  • -idone
  • -olol
  • -ase
  • -am

Question 14

Question
Which of the following are advantages of using the newer antipsychotics (-apine, -idone) instead of the traditional medications (-azine)?
Answer
  • Decreased risk of motor side effects
  • Less incidence of relapse
  • Drugs don’t work long enough to cause receptor supersensitivity
  • No chance of orthostatic hypotension
  • Decreased risk of metabolic effects

Question 15

Question
Side effects for antipsychotice drugs include which of the following?
Answer
  • Extrapyramidal Symptoms (Tardive Dyskinesia)
  • Orthostatic Hypotension
  • Photosensitivity
  • Metabolic Effects
  • Anticholinergic Effects
  • GI Syndromes (Nausea, Vomiting, etc)
  • Serotonin Syndrome
  • Addiction
  • Anterograde Amnesia

Question 16

Question
Which of the following are Extrapyramidal Side Effects?
Answer
  • Acute Dystonic Reactions
  • Akathisia
  • Pseudo-Parkinsonism
  • Tardive Dyskinesia
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
  • Blurred Vision
  • Dry Mouth
  • Constipation
  • Urinary Retention
  • Rigidity

Question 17

Question
Which of the following are Anticholinergic Side Effects?
Answer
  • Blurred Vision
  • Dry Mouth
  • Constipation
  • Urinary Retention
  • Sedation
  • Confusion
  • Dyskinesia
  • Apathy
  • Nausea
  • Chorea

Question 18

Question
Which of the following best describes Status Epilepticus?
Answer
  • A medical emergency due to a state of Continuous Seizures.
  • Medical term for a patient with epilepsy.
  • Medical term for a patient who was previously epileptic, but is no longer.
  • A patient who has epilepsy, but has not had a seizure.

Question 19

Question
What are the criteria for withdrawal from an anti-epileptic drug?
Answer
  • Seizure-free for 2 years, good control for 1 year after medication began
  • Normal neurological exam
  • Initial seizure onset during childhood
  • Normal neurological exam for 3 years in a row
  • Initial seizure onset during adulthood
  • Seizure-free for 1 year, good control for 6 months after medication began
  • Seizure-free for 5 years, good control for 3 years after medication began

Question 20

Question
While working in an inpatient setting, you are given a patient with epilepsy. In order to minimize the seizure risk during therapy, which of the following is most appropriate?
Answer
  • Perform therapy in the patient's room rather than the therapy department, in order to minimize visual and audible stimuli.
  • Perform therapy at the same time every day.
  • Perform therapy right before the patient eats a meal.
  • Have a therapy tech on hand to help catch the patient in case they fall.

Question 21

Question
Which of the following are true regarding carbidopa?
Answer
  • Carbidopa inhibits the premature breakdown of levodopa
  • Allows for a lower dosage of levodopa
  • Carbidopa is the gold standard for Parkinson's medications
  • Carbidopa is a precursor to dopamine

Question 22

Question
Which of the following are side effects of Sinemet?
Answer
  • Dyskinesia
  • GI Problems
  • Orthostatic Hypotension
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Weight Loss
  • Weight Gain
  • Hypertension

Question 23

Question
Sinemet contains which of the following?
Answer
  • Dopamine
  • Levodopa
  • Carbidopa

Question 24

Question
Order the Stages of General Anesthesia: 1.) [blank_start]Analgesia[blank_end] 2.) [blank_start]Excitement/Delirium[blank_end] 3.) [blank_start]Surgical Anesthesia[blank_end] 4.) [blank_start]Medullary Paralysis[blank_end]
Answer
  • Analgesia
  • Excitement/Delirium
  • Surgical Anesthesia
  • Medullary Paralysis

Question 25

Question
Of the following General Anesthetics, which are administered via inhalation?
Answer
  • Nitrous oxide
  • Halothane
  • Desflurane
  • Barbiturates
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Opiods
  • Dexmedetomidine
  • Etomidate
  • Propofol

Question 26

Question
Of the following General Anesthetics, which are administered via intravenous injection?
Answer
  • Barbiturates
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Opiods
  • Nitrous Oxide
  • Volatile Liquids

Question 27

Question
Why do General Anesthetics have a hangover effect?
Answer
  • They are generally administered with a shot of tequila.
  • They are very lipid soluble and some wind up stored in adipose tissue for a bit.
  • General Anesthetics do not have a hangover effect.

Question 28

Question
Adjuvants may be administered with a general anesthetic to provide additional effects, such as sedation/relaxation and neuromuscular blocking.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 29

Question
Local anesthetics end in which of the following suffixes?
Answer
  • -caine
  • -caide
  • -olol
  • -dine

Question 30

Question
Why is epinephrine commonly administered with local anesthetics?
Answer
  • The vasoconstrictive ability of epinephrine limits the distribution of the drug, thus avoiding the toxic effect which occurs when too much of the drug reaches systemic circulation.
  • Epinephrine increases HR, thus limiting the amount of time the drug stays in one place which can cause necrosis.
  • Epinephrine is not commonly administered with a local anesthetic. You are thinking of Norepinephrine.
  • Many patients are allergic to local anesthetics, so administering epinephrine prior to the local anesthetic minimizes the chance of an allergic reaction.

Question 31

Question
What is a Bier Block?
Answer
  • Intravenous (IV) injection of local anesthetic into an arm or leg to block the limb.
  • Injection of local anesthetic into the sympathetic chain ganglion for CRPS.
  • Injection of local anesthetic for a spinal nerve block (aka epidural).

Question 32

Question
Heating modalities accelerate transdermal absorption of local anesthetics. Thus, applying moist heat before beginning ROM components of therapy is beneficial because it will help the patient stretch further.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
2 classifications of postsynaptic receptors based on NTs [blank_start]Cholinergic[blank_end] receptor: acetylcholine, targets parasympathetic nervous system and some sympathetic. Increase activity at synapses. [blank_start]Adrenergic[blank_end] receptor: norepinephrine, targets sympathetic nervous system. Diminish response of tissues.
Answer
  • Cholinergic
  • Adrenergic

Question 34

Question
Cholinergic Drugs can be used to treat which of the following?
Answer
  • Alzheimer's Disease
  • Glaucoma
  • Myasthenia Gravis
  • Parkinon's Disease
  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome
  • Motion Sickness

Question 35

Question
Anti-Cholinergic Drugs can be used to treat which of the following?
Answer
  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome
  • Parkinson's Disease
  • Motion Sickness
  • Alzheimer's Disease
  • Glaucoma
  • Myasthenia Gravis

Question 36

Question
Which of the following are side effects of cholinergic drugs?
Answer
  • Salivation
  • Lacrimation
  • Urination
  • Diarrhea
  • GI Cramps
  • Emesis
  • Vasodilation
  • Delirium
  • Blurred vision
  • Urinary Retention

Question 37

Question
Which of the following are side effects of anti-cholinergic drugs?
Answer
  • Decreased sweat
  • Blurred vision
  • Dry mouth
  • Urinary retention
  • Vasodilation
  • CNS delirium
  • Salivation
  • GI Cramps
  • Emesis

Question 38

Question
[blank_start]Adrenergic Antagonists[blank_end] inhibit response to adrenaline/epinephrine/norepinephrine which decreases sympathetic response. [blank_start]Adrenergic Agonists[blank_end] stimulate response to adrenaline/epinephrine/norepinephrine which increases sympathetic response. [blank_start]Cholinergic Stimulants[blank_end] increase activity at synapses which increases parasympathetic responses. [blank_start]Anti-Cholinergics[blank_end] decrease activity at synapses which decreases parasympathetic responses.
Answer
  • Adrenergic Antagonists
  • Adrenergic Agonists
  • Cholinergic Stimulants
  • Anti-Cholinergics

Question 39

Question
Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following? Vasoconstrict smooth muscle thus increase BP
Answer
  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha Antagonists
  • Beta Blockers

Question 40

Question
Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following? Inhibit Sympathetic Discharge (brain and spinal cord)
Answer
  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha Antagonists
  • Beta Blockers

Question 41

Question
Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following? Increase HR and CO
Answer
  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha Antagonists
  • Beta Blockers

Question 42

Question
Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following? Relaxation of smooth muscle
Answer
  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha Antagonists
  • Beta Blockers

Question 43

Question
Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following? Reduce peripheral vascular tone
Answer
  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha Antagonists
  • Beta Blockers

Question 44

Question
Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following? Decrease HR/contraction force
Answer
  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists
  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists
  • Alpha Antagonists
  • Beta Blockers
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