Plymouth Med
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Plymouth Med
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Fetal Yr 1 pathology focus :)

Question 1 of 65

1

How much Vitamin D should you take during pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 mg every day throughout pregnancy and during breastfeeding

  • 400 mg every day throughout pregnancy and during breastfeeding

  • 100 mg every day throughout pregnancy and during breastfeeding

  • 10 mg every day during 1st trimester

  • 100 mg every day during 1st trimester

  • 400mg every day during 1st trimester

Explanation

Question 2 of 65

1

Why is Folic Acid important?

Select one of the following:

  • Significantly reduces chances of neural tube birth defects

  • improves brain functionality and development of fetus

  • Helps maintain pregnancy

  • Reduces chances of polydactyl

Explanation

Question 3 of 65

1

How much folic acid during pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • 400mg everyday 1st trimester (wk 0-12)

  • 400mg everyday throughout pregnancy

  • 40mg everyday 1st trimester (wk 0-12)

  • 40mg everyday throughout pregnancy

  • 400 mg everyday for the first few weeks of each trimester

Explanation

Question 4 of 65

1

Which are characteristic of patent ductus arteriosus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Systolic murmur loudest in upper left sternal border

  • respiratory distress

  • reduced oxygen saturation

  • high fever

  • extensive crying

  • sternal swelling

Explanation

Question 5 of 65

1

What does the ductus venosus shunt allow?

Select one of the following:

  • blood from the fetus' heart to bipass the liver

  • blood from the placenta to bypass the liver

  • blood from the fetus' heart to bypass the lungs

  • blood from the placenta to bypass the lungs

Explanation

Question 6 of 65

1

What are the fetal heart shunts?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ductus arteriosus

  • ductus venous

  • foramen ovale

  • ductus deferens

  • ductus foramen

  • ductus thramensus

Explanation

Question 7 of 65

1

What regarding fetal circulation is true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • vasoconstriction in pulmonary circulation

  • most important organ needing oxygenated blood supply: heart

  • most important organ needing oxygenated blood supply: brain

  • Blood "recieved" by heart in right atrium

  • Higher pressure in left atrium than right atrium

  • oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood kept strictly separate

Explanation

Question 8 of 65

1

How does right atrial deoxygenated blood streaming occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Superior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Arteriosus-->Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)--> descending aorta--> lower body

  • Inferior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Arteriosus-->Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)--> descending aorta--> lower body

  • Superior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Arteriosus-->Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)--> descending aorta--> upper body

  • Inferior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Arteriosus--> Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)-->descending aorta--> upper body

  • Superior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Venosus--> Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)-->descending aorta--> lower body

  • Inferior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Venosus-->Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)--> descending aorta--> lower body

Explanation

Question 9 of 65

1

How does streaming of oxygenated blood occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Inferior Vena Cava-->Foramen Ovale-->left atrium-->left ventricle--> ascending aorta-->brain

  • Superior Vena Cava-->Foramen Ovale-->left atrium-->left ventricle--> ascending aorta-->brain

  • Inferior Vena Cava-->Foramen Ovale-->right atrium-->right ventricle--> ascending aorta-->brain

  • Superior Vena Cava-->Foramen Ovale-->right atrium-->right ventricle--> ascending aorta-->brain

Explanation

Question 10 of 65

1

Whats the purpose of Foramen Ovale

Select one or more of the following:

  • allows flow of blood between right and left atriums because right atrium has more pressure than left atrium

  • allows flow of blood between right and left atriums because left atrium has more pressure than right atrium

  • allows blood to bypass the liver

  • allows blood to bypass the lungs

Explanation

Question 11 of 65

1

What is NOT correct regarding ductus arteriosus?

Select one of the following:

  • allows blood from the pulmonary artery to descending artery

  • allows blood from the pulmonary artery to ascending artery

  • prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) controls the patency of ductus arteriosus

  • allows mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

Explanation

Question 12 of 65

1

Infants with Down's syndrome should be checked for hearing, ECG for congenital heart disease, and eye abilities before 6 months of age

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 13 of 65

1

What leads to lungs activation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • First breath--> oxygen pressure rises--> pulmonary vasodilation

  • placenta circulation cut off--> left heart pressure increases

  • right heart pressure decreases

  • foramen ovale closes

  • ductus arteriosus closes immediately upon first breath

  • further decrease in left heart pressure

  • surfactant proteins and enzymes actiavte upon increased oxygen pressure

Explanation

Question 14 of 65

1

Foramen Ovale becomes what post-parturition?

Select one of the following:

  • Fossa Ovale

  • Foramen Ovalum

  • Foramen Ovale

  • Foramen Fossa

Explanation

Question 15 of 65

1

Ductus Arteriosus becomes Ligamentum Venosum

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 65

1

Ductus Venosus becomes Ligamentum Venosum

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 65

1

What to remember regarding patent ductus arteriosus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • common with pre-term infants

  • common with maternal Rubella infection

  • problems with PGE2 receptors can lead to patent ductus arteriosus

  • low oxygen can lead to patent ductus arteriosus

  • common with "late" babies

  • common in multiple births

  • may have apnea or tachypnea

  • ECG is how to diagnose

  • Ultrasound is how to diagnose

  • NSAIDS (Indomethicin) can induce closure of patent ductus arteriosus

Explanation

Question 18 of 65

1

Malfunction in lungs' surfactant production can lead to baby struggling to breathe and problems in oxygen saturation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 65

1

What is inadequate production of surfactant in the baby's lungs known as?

Select one of the following:

  • Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS)

  • Surfactant Deficiency Syndrome (SID)

  • Hypopneumocytomia

  • Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome

  • Infant Lung Collapse

  • Tetralogy of Fallot

Explanation

Question 20 of 65

1

What is part of the presentation of Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome?

Select one or more of the following:

  • commonly pre-term delivery

  • presents quickly after birth

  • can rapidly progress to hypoxia, fatugue or apnea

  • detectable in the womb

  • wheezing noises

Explanation

Question 21 of 65

1

How may you prevent infant respiratory distress syndrome?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Antenatal corticosteroids
    EX: Dexamethasone

  • Delaying Labor
    EX: Atosiban

  • Inducing Labor
    Ex: Oxytocin drips

  • NSAIDS
    Ex: Indomethacin

  • Placing mother on ventilator during labor

Explanation

Question 22 of 65

1

Not all ectopic pregnancies must be surgically/immediately removed as not all are dangerous

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 65

1

What is an Ectpic pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • when the egg implants elsewhere than in the uterus

  • when benign tumor in uterus tricks body into thinking its a pregnancy

  • when 8 ovums are simultaneously implanted

  • A pregnancy in pre-menopause

Explanation

Question 24 of 65

1

Which is not a prominent risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • fertility treatment

  • smokers

  • older age (more than 30)

  • previous spontaneous miscarriages

  • the combined pill

Explanation

Question 25 of 65

1

Methotrexate can terminate ectopic pregnancies

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 65

1

How does ectopic pregnancy present

Select one or more of the following:

  • amenorrhea

  • abdominal pain

  • vaginal bleeding

  • breast tenderness

  • palpable mass

  • dysmenorrhea

  • fluctuating temperature

  • abdominal edema

  • pain and swelling in extremities ex: ankles

Explanation

Question 27 of 65

1

What is spontaneous loss of pregnancy before 24 weeks?

Select one of the following:

  • Miscarriage

  • Abortion

  • pre-parturition death

Explanation

Question 28 of 65

1

What type of miscarriage?

Cervical os (exocervix): closed
Bleeding: mild
Pain: mild

Select one of the following:

  • threatened miscarriage

  • inevitable miscarriage

  • missed miscarriage

  • complete miscarriage

  • incomplete miscarriage

Explanation

Question 29 of 65

1

What type miscarriage?
Bleeding: heavy, clotting
Pain: Intense
Cervical Os: Open

Select one of the following:

  • Inevitable Miscarriage

  • Threatned Miscarriage

  • Incomplete Miscarriage

  • Complete Miscarriage

  • Missed Miscarriage

Explanation

Question 30 of 65

1

What is characteristic of a missed miscarriage?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Dead fetus within womb

  • Closed cervical os

  • None-mild bleeding

  • None-mild pain

  • Open cervical os

  • Heavy bleeding

  • Heavy-medium pain

  • Fetus expelled/disintegrated early on

  • Remains are removed surgically

Explanation

Question 31 of 65

1

WIth close monitoring of the mother, a threatned abortion means that a miscarriage might not happen

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 32 of 65

1

As soon as she learns that it is an inevitable miscarriage, mother will undergo an abortion pronto

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 65

1

As there is still some leftover tissue in incomplete miscarriages, surgical removal necessary

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 34 of 65

1

What is the maternal portion of the placenta known as?

Select one of the following:

  • decidua basalis

  • chorion

  • duodenum

  • amnion

Explanation

Question 35 of 65

1

What does the placenta metabolize?

Select one or more of the following:

  • glycogen

  • fatty acids

  • cholestrol

  • glyucose

  • maternal hemoglobin (convert into fetal hemoglobin)

  • proteins

Explanation

Question 36 of 65

1

What does the placenta transport?

Select one or more of the following:

  • IgGs

  • Urea and uric acid

  • Iron

  • Oxygen

  • Carbon Dioxide

  • Glucose

  • Amino Acids

  • some drugs/metabolites
    Ex: nicotine, alocohol

  • IgEs

  • Sodium

Explanation

Question 37 of 65

1

What hormones does the placenta produce?

Select one or more of the following:

  • HCG

  • HPL

  • estrogens

  • Corticotropin releasing hormone

  • Prolactin

  • Progesterone

  • Dopamine

  • Oxytocin

  • GnRH

  • FSH

Explanation

Question 38 of 65

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

"Antepartum haemorrhage is defined as any bleeding from the week of gestation until "

Explanation

Question 39 of 65

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Placenta abruption is the ( premature, partial, late ) separation of a normally placed placenta ( before delivery, during development, after birth ) of the fetus, with ( blood, lymph, amniotic fluid ) collecting between the placenta and the ( uterus, bladder, yolk sac, amniotic sac ).

Explanation

Question 40 of 65

1

exists when the placenta is inserted wholly or in part .

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Placenta previa
    Placenta abruption
    Pre-eclampsia
    covering the endocervix
    over the uterus upper part
    suffocating the baby
    entwines with the umbilical cord

Explanation

Question 41 of 65

1

What's important regarding placenta previa?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Painless bright red bleeding

  • Bleeding visible during third trimester usually

  • should NOT do manual pelvic examination

  • should NOT do ultrasound

  • C-section unless very minor placenta previa

  • painful vaginal bleeding

  • abdominal pain

Explanation

Question 42 of 65

1

How might uterine atony present as?

Select one or more of the following:

  • afebrile

  • large boggy/soggy uterus

  • mild distress

  • vaginal bleeding and clotting

  • tight rigid/stiffened uterus

  • abdominal edema

  • abdominal pain

Explanation

Question 43 of 65

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Postpartum Hemmorhage is excessive bleeding post delivery. ( Primary, Tertiary, Secondary ) Postpartum Hemmorhage is 500<ml within ( 24 hours, 48 hours, 2 weeks ) after birth. ( Secondary, Primary, Tertiary ) is ( post-24 hours, post-48 hours, post 2 weeks ) to ( six weeks, 1 year, 2 weeks ) post-partum. It can be caused by ( infection, cold/fever, early labor ), ( endometritis, peritonitis, apendicitis ), and ( retained products of conception., miscarriage, stress )

Explanation

Question 44 of 65

1

What fetal positions are normal?

Select one or more of the following:

  • longitudinal

  • cephalic

  • breech

  • oblique

  • transverse

  • occiput-anterior

  • occiput-posterior

Explanation

Question 45 of 65

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Uterine atony can be treated with ( oxytocin infusion, atosiban, synacthen ). It is one of the most common causes of primary post-partum hemorrhage. The other is ( retained placenta., retracted placenta, placenta previa ) General causes of uterine atony are "pathology of the four T's:" ( tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin, temperature, tiredness, tone, trauma ). Uterine atony can lead to hemorrhage because uterine contractions help with ( coagulability, anti-coagulability ) so lack can lead to extensive bleeding.

Explanation

Question 46 of 65

1

Descent of the baby is measured in comparison to...?

Select one of the following:

  • ischial spines

  • sacrum

  • illiac crests

  • coccyx

  • anterior superior illiac spines

Explanation

Question 47 of 65

1

What is considered an abnormal APGAR score?

Select one of the following:

  • 7-9

  • <7

  • 10

  • <5

Explanation

Question 48 of 65

1

What is FALSE regarding the APGAR test

Select one of the following:

  • first test given to newborns to assess condition of baby

  • c-section can give a low score

  • fluid in the airways can give a low score

  • difficulties during labor can give low score

  • hand and feet of baby commonly cold/blue-- professional's judgement needed

  • vaccination given to newborns to boost condition post birth

Explanation

Question 49 of 65

1

Aneuploidy more common in maternal meoisis II

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 50 of 65

1

What are the most common aneuploidies

Select one or more of the following:

  • chromosome 18

  • chromosome 21

  • chromosome 13

  • chromosome 15

  • chromosome 11

  • chromosome 9

Explanation

Question 51 of 65

1

Characteristics of Down's Syndrome

Select one or more of the following:

  • some degree of learning difficulty

  • single palmar crease

  • brachycephaly

  • protruding tongue

  • congenital heart defects

  • bulging eyes

  • creased forehead

  • lack of attention span

Explanation

Question 52 of 65

1

Most babies born with Edward's are able to live adequately long.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 65

1

Patua's is basically incompatible with life: most die either miscarriage, stillborn, or in less than a week.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 54 of 65

1

Clinical key factors of Turner's Syndrome

Select one or more of the following:

  • Short stature

  • Infertility and ammenorhea

  • Webbed neck

  • Underdeveloped breasts, usually lean

  • Abnormal IQ

  • Increased risk for chronic conditions

  • Genotype: X0

  • Genotype: XXX

  • Tachycardia

Explanation

Question 55 of 65

1

Which is not characteristic of Klinefelter's Syndrome

Select one of the following:

  • XXY genotype

  • gynecomastia

  • cryptorchardism

  • feminine physical traits (long slender legs and wider hips)

  • excessive hair growth over body area and acne

Explanation

Question 56 of 65

1

What is pre-eclampsia?

Select one of the following:

  • Pregnancy induced hypertentsion and proteinurea after 20 weeks

  • Pregnancy induced hypertentsion after 20 weeks

  • Pregnancy induced proteinurea after 20 weeks

Explanation

Question 57 of 65

1

How might pre-eclampsia present?

Select one or more of the following:

  • edema

  • severe headache

  • right upper quadrant pain

  • vision problems

  • brisk tendon reflex

  • left upper quadrant pain

  • hearing problems

  • dizziness

  • persistent tremors

Explanation

Question 58 of 65

1

What's true regarding treatment of pre-eclampsia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • regardless of severity, admit into hospital

  • moderate-severe: oral labetalol if blood pressure <150/100

  • very close BP monitoring (check at least 4 times a day)

  • repeated tests of proteinurea

  • Blood tests 2-3 times weekly

  • Blood Thinners
    (Warfarin)

  • NSAIDS, pain killers

  • severe cases: magnesium sulphate intravenously

  • severe cases: antihypertensives-- labetabol, nifedipine

Explanation

Question 59 of 65

1

You can "cure" pre-eclampsia

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 65

1

Should aim to deliver baby early in case of pre-eclampsia

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 61 of 65

1

Why can pre-eclampsia be a matter of concern? (choose BEST answer)

Select one of the following:

  • mandatory precursor to eclampsia which endangers both mother and child as it can include seizures and blackouts due to poor blood perfusion

  • can directly lead to heart failure and dysfunctionality

  • can compromise development of the fetus

Explanation

Question 62 of 65

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Placenta Abruption presents as vaginal bleeding and ( abdominal, lower back, widespread pain ) pain. Uterine contractions, ( shock, vaginal discharge ), and ( fetal, maternal ) distress are also signs. In this case, management would be ( immediate ABCD, immediate surgical management ). Ensuring fetus was okay, ( c-section, vaginal ) delivery. If fetal dead, ( Vaginal, C-section ) delivery.

Explanation

Question 63 of 65

1

What regarding the A in APGAR is correct?

Select one or more of the following:

  • complete activity= 0 points

  • total lack of action = 2 points

  • total lack of action = 0 points

  • complete activity= 2 points

  • complete activity= 1 point

  • flexed arm/leg = 1 point

  • flexed arm/leg = 2 point

  • flexed arm/leg = 0 point

Explanation

Question 64 of 65

1

What gives you 2 points on the APGAR

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pulse over = over 100 beats per min

  • Pulse over = over 80 beats per min

  • Grimace= immediate response

  • Grip= strong grip

  • Appearance= pink

  • Appearance= pink but extremities may be blue

  • Respiration= immense crying

  • Respiration= 15< breaths per minute

Explanation

Question 65 of 65

1

Which is how proteinuria determined?

Select one or more of the following:

  • protein:creatine ratio 30mg/mmol<

  • protein:creatine ration 30mg/mmol>

  • protein:serum ratio 50mg/mmol<

  • protein:serum ration 50mg/mmol>

  • protein:creatine ration 50mg/mmol>

  • protein:creatine ration 50mg/mmol<

Explanation

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