Alyssa Antonio
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Anesthesia Quiz on Pharmacology II Final: Practice Test , created by Alyssa Antonio on 24/04/2018.

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Alyssa Antonio
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Pharmacology II Final: Practice Test

Question 1 of 50

1

Which of the following are non-depolarizing NMBAs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rocuronium

  • Succinylcholine

  • Atracurium

  • Nimbex

  • Edrophonium

  • Neostigmine

Explanation

Question 2 of 50

1

Which of the following is a long-acting NMBA?

Select one of the following:

  • pancuronium

  • succinylcholine

  • mivacurium

  • atracurium

Explanation

Question 3 of 50

1

Which of the following is a contraindication in the use of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

Select one of the following:

  • Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

  • Gunshot wound

  • Hypokalemia

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 4 of 50

1

A patient with myotonic dystrophy who receives succinylcholine is at increased risk for which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • excessive fasciculations

  • hyperkalemia

  • prolonged neuromuscular blockade

  • muscle rigidity

Explanation

Question 5 of 50

1

Which of the following drugs has the longest duration of action in a patient with renal failure?

Select one of the following:

  • Neostigmine

  • Rocuronium

  • Succinylcholine

  • Vecuronium

Explanation

Question 6 of 50

1

Which of the following best explains the failure of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents to produce fasciculation?

Select one of the following:

  • Absence of acetylcholine receptor activation

  • Binding in the iron channel of the acetylcholine receptors

  • Binding to agonist and antagonist sites on the acetylcholine receptors

  • Binding to presynaptic and postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors

Explanation

Question 7 of 50

1

Excessive potassium release and subsequent elevated serum level would most likely occur following administration of succinylcholine to which of the following patients?

Select one of the following:

  • Quadriplegic with recent burn injury

  • Asthmatic with recent bronchospasm

  • Old stroke patient taking oral magnesium

  • Young healthy patient taking oral potassium

Explanation

Question 8 of 50

1

The characteristics of non-depolarizing NMBAs differ from that of depolarizing except that both exhibit ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • posttetanic facilitation

  • absence of fade

  • TOF ratio less than 0.7

  • decreased response to single twitch stimulus

Explanation

Question 9 of 50

1

Pharmacologic and physiologic variables that enhance non-depolarizing NMBAs include all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • volatile anesthetic agents

  • hypothermia

  • magnesium

  • burn injury

Explanation

Question 10 of 50

1

A series of four twitches at 2Hz every half-second for two seconds:

Two short bursts of 50Hz tetanus separated by 0.75 seconds:

A supramaximal electrical stimulus ranging from 0.1-1.0hz:

50Hz tetanus for 5 seconds, a 3-second pause, then single twitches of 1Hz:
Consists of rapid delivery of a 30-, 50-, or 100Hz stimulus for 5 seconds:

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    train-of-four
    double-burst simulation
    single twitch
    posttetanic count
    tetanus

Explanation

Question 11 of 50

1

What term refers to the time from drug administration to its maximum effect?

Select one of the following:

  • onset time

  • clinical duration

  • recovery index

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 12 of 50

1

The time from drug administration to 90% recovery of a twitch response is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • clinical duration

  • total duration of action

  • recovery index

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 13 of 50

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Correctly number the sequence during onset of paralysis from the first to the last.

Abdominal muscles - ( 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 )

Chest (Intercostals) - ( 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 )

Diaphragm - ( 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 )

Extremities - ( 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 )

Eye lids - ( 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 )

Explanation

Question 14 of 50

1

The brief duration of succinylcholine is due principally to its rapid hydrolysis in plasma by cholinesterase enzymes.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 15 of 50

1

A low dibucaine number and normal enzyme activity indicates: (Select 2)

Select one or more of the following:

  • atypical enzyme

  • normal enzyme

  • prolonged apnea

  • normal enzyme with low level of enzyme activity

Explanation

Question 16 of 50

1

A dibucaine number of 78 with decreased enzyme activity indicates: (select 2)

Select one or more of the following:

  • normal enzyme with low level of enzyme activity

  • atypical enzyme with low level of enzyme activity

  • prolonged apnea

  • another reason for prolonged apnea

Explanation

Question 17 of 50

1

Which of the following are related to Hofmann elimination and nonspecific esterases?

Select one or more of the following:

  • atracurium

  • cisatracurium

  • mivacurium

  • vecuronium

Explanation

Question 18 of 50

1

Plasma cholinesterase is the mechanism of elimination for which of the following:

Select one or more of the following:

  • succinylcholine

  • mivacurium

  • pancuronium

  • rocuronium

Explanation

Question 19 of 50

1

Which of the following cause histamine release and may produce hypotension and tachycardia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • atracurium

  • pancuronium

  • mivacurium

  • succinylcholine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 20 of 50

1

The administration of _____________ can cause sudden, abrupt bradycardia with repeat doses in adults and any dose in children.

Select one of the following:

  • atracurium

  • succinylcholine

  • pancuronium

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 50

1

Which of the following agents should be used together because of their rapid onset? (Select 2)

Select one or more of the following:

  • neostigmine

  • edrophonium

  • atropine

  • glycopyrrolate

Explanation

Question 22 of 50

1

Sugammadex is classified as a selective relaxant binding agent.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 50

1

Sugammadex is effective in reversing all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • rocuronium

  • vecuronium

  • pancuronium

  • atracurium

Explanation

Question 24 of 50

1

Which of the following local anesthetics are esters?

Select one of the following:

  • lidocaine

  • ropivacaine

  • bupivacaine

  • all of the above

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 25 of 50

1

Amides tend to be shorter acting due to their rapid metabolism.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 50

1

If a patient has an allergy to an ester drug, all other ester drugs should be avoided.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 50

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Match the max dose to the correct drug.

Procaine - ( 1, 3, 7, 14 )
Ropivacaine - ( 1, 3, 11, 14 )
Chloroprocaine - ( 1, 3, 7, 14 )
Tetracaine - ( 1, 3, 7, 11 )
Mepivacaine - ( 1, 7, 11, 14 )
Bupivacaine - ( 1, 3, 7, 11 )
Lidocaine - ( 3, 7, 11, 14 )

Explanation

Question 28 of 50

1

Which of the following LAs has an increased risk of causing cardiotoxicity because of its greater electrophysiologic effects?

Select one of the following:

  • Lidocaine

  • Bupivacaine

  • Ropivacaine

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 29 of 50

1

Which of the following agents is purely alpha?

Select one of the following:

  • phenylephrine

  • norepinephrine

  • dopamine

  • epinephrine

Explanation

Question 30 of 50

1

The lower the pKa of a drug (closer to pH of 7.4), the faster the onset.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 50

1

The maximum safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine in tumescent anesthesia for liposuction is:

Select one of the following:

  • 35-55 mg/kg

  • 25-35 mg/kg

  • 45-65 mg/kg

  • 10-20 mg/kg

Explanation

Question 32 of 50

1

The following characteristics relate to which of the following agents?

1.) direct and indirect acting
2.) alpha and beta stimulating
3.) central and peripheral

Select one of the following:

  • ephedrine

  • phenylephrine

  • epinephrine

  • norepinephrine

Explanation

Question 33 of 50

1

Which of the following is the best choice to give to a pregnant patient?

Select one of the following:

  • atropine

  • scopolamine

  • glycopyrrolate

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 34 of 50

1

In what classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs do beta blockers belong?

Select one of the following:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explanation

Question 35 of 50

1

Match the classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs with their effects.

: block potassium channels

: beta-adrenergic blocking effects

- calcium channel blocking effects

- block sodium channels

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Class III
    Class II
    Class IV
    Class I

Explanation

Question 36 of 50

1

Which drug should you choose to treat torsades de pointes?

Select one of the following:

  • magnesium sulfate

  • adenosine

  • diltiazem

  • amiodarone

Explanation

Question 37 of 50

1

What drug should you choose to treat ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation?

Select one of the following:

  • amiodarone

  • esmolol

  • diltiazem

  • digoxin

Explanation

Question 38 of 50

1

A patient with a BP of 126/78 would be classified in what category?

Select one of the following:

  • Normal

  • Elevated

  • Stage 1 HTN

  • Stage 2 HTN

Explanation

Question 39 of 50

1

A patient with a blood pressure of 138/89 would be classified under what category?

Select one of the following:

  • Normal

  • Elevated

  • Stage 1 HTN

  • Stage 2 HTN

Explanation

Question 40 of 50

1

What drug should you choose to treat hypertension with a low heart rate?

Select one of the following:

  • hydralazine

  • labetalol

  • adenosine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 41 of 50

1

In what classification of angina is a patient that has slight limitation of ordinary activity such as, walking or climbing stairs?

Select one of the following:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explanation

Question 42 of 50

1

Exertional (stable) angina should be treated with:

Select one of the following:

  • beta-blockers

  • calcium channel blockers

  • ACE inhibitors

  • diuretics

Explanation

Question 43 of 50

1

Variant angina should be treated with:

Select one of the following:

  • beta-blockers

  • calcium channel blockers

  • nitrates

  • ACE inhibitors

Explanation

Question 44 of 50

1

Which drug decreases preload by causing venous dilation?

Select one of the following:

  • hydralazine

  • nitroglycerin

  • labetalol

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 45 of 50

1

Renin release is the cause of rebound HTN following cessation of a nipride drip.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 46 of 50

1

______________ is a PDE3 inhibitor; interferes with the second messenger system.

Select one of the following:

  • Milrinone

  • Clonidine

  • Methyldopa

  • Dobutamine

Explanation

Question 47 of 50

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Match the effects seen with the following doses of dopamine.

Low doses (2-5 mcg/kg/min) - ( dopamine agonist, dopamine and beta stimulation, alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction )

Medium doses (5-10 mcg/kg/min) - ( dopamine agonist, dopamine and beta stimulation, alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction )

High doses (>10 -15 mcg/kg/min) - ( dopamine agonist, dopamine and beta stimulation, alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction )

Explanation

Question 48 of 50

1

Atropine causes mydriasis and loss of accommodation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 49 of 50

1

The more protein bound a local anesthetic is, the shorter the duration of action.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 50 of 50

1

All of the following are true regarding the addition of vasoconstrictors to local anesthetics EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • decreases the rate of vascular absorption

  • decreases the onset time

  • increases the onset time

  • decreases chances of toxicity

Explanation

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