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Pharmacology II Final: Practice Test

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Anesthesia Quiz on Pharmacology II Final: Practice Test , created by Alyssa Antonio on 24/04/2018.
Alyssa Antonio
Quiz by Alyssa Antonio, updated more than 1 year ago
Alyssa Antonio
Created by Alyssa Antonio about 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of the following are non-depolarizing NMBAs?
Answer
  • Rocuronium
  • Succinylcholine
  • Atracurium
  • Nimbex
  • Edrophonium
  • Neostigmine

Question 2

Question
Which of the following is a long-acting NMBA?
Answer
  • pancuronium
  • succinylcholine
  • mivacurium
  • atracurium

Question 3

Question
Which of the following is a contraindication in the use of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
Answer
  • Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  • Gunshot wound
  • Hypokalemia
  • All of the above

Question 4

Question
A patient with myotonic dystrophy who receives succinylcholine is at increased risk for which of the following?
Answer
  • excessive fasciculations
  • hyperkalemia
  • prolonged neuromuscular blockade
  • muscle rigidity

Question 5

Question
Which of the following drugs has the longest duration of action in a patient with renal failure?
Answer
  • Neostigmine
  • Rocuronium
  • Succinylcholine
  • Vecuronium

Question 6

Question
Which of the following best explains the failure of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents to produce fasciculation?
Answer
  • Absence of acetylcholine receptor activation
  • Binding in the iron channel of the acetylcholine receptors
  • Binding to agonist and antagonist sites on the acetylcholine receptors
  • Binding to presynaptic and postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors

Question 7

Question
Excessive potassium release and subsequent elevated serum level would most likely occur following administration of succinylcholine to which of the following patients?
Answer
  • Quadriplegic with recent burn injury
  • Asthmatic with recent bronchospasm
  • Old stroke patient taking oral magnesium
  • Young healthy patient taking oral potassium

Question 8

Question
The characteristics of non-depolarizing NMBAs differ from that of depolarizing except that both exhibit ____________.
Answer
  • posttetanic facilitation
  • absence of fade
  • TOF ratio less than 0.7
  • decreased response to single twitch stimulus

Question 9

Question
Pharmacologic and physiologic variables that enhance non-depolarizing NMBAs include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • volatile anesthetic agents
  • hypothermia
  • magnesium
  • burn injury

Question 10

Question
A series of four twitches at 2Hz every half-second for two seconds: [blank_start]train-of-four[blank_end] Two short bursts of 50Hz tetanus separated by 0.75 seconds: [blank_start]double-burst simulation[blank_end] A supramaximal electrical stimulus ranging from 0.1-1.0hz: [blank_start]single twitch[blank_end] 50Hz tetanus for 5 seconds, a 3-second pause, then single twitches of 1Hz: [blank_start]posttetanic count[blank_end] Consists of rapid delivery of a 30-, 50-, or 100Hz stimulus for 5 seconds: [blank_start]tetanus[blank_end]
Answer
  • train-of-four
  • double-burst simulation
  • single twitch
  • posttetanic count
  • tetanus

Question 11

Question
What term refers to the time from drug administration to its maximum effect?
Answer
  • onset time
  • clinical duration
  • recovery index
  • none of the above

Question 12

Question
The time from drug administration to 90% recovery of a twitch response is known as:
Answer
  • clinical duration
  • total duration of action
  • recovery index
  • none of the above

Question 13

Question
Correctly number the sequence during onset of paralysis from the first to the last. Abdominal muscles - [blank_start]4[blank_end] Chest (Intercostals) - [blank_start]3[blank_end] Diaphragm - [blank_start]5[blank_end] Extremities - [blank_start]2[blank_end] Eye lids - [blank_start]1[blank_end]
Answer
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5

Question 14

Question
The brief duration of succinylcholine is due principally to its rapid hydrolysis in plasma by cholinesterase enzymes.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 15

Question
A low dibucaine number and normal enzyme activity indicates: (Select 2)
Answer
  • atypical enzyme
  • normal enzyme
  • prolonged apnea
  • normal enzyme with low level of enzyme activity

Question 16

Question
A dibucaine number of 78 with decreased enzyme activity indicates: (select 2)
Answer
  • normal enzyme with low level of enzyme activity
  • atypical enzyme with low level of enzyme activity
  • prolonged apnea
  • another reason for prolonged apnea

Question 17

Question
Which of the following are related to Hofmann elimination and nonspecific esterases?
Answer
  • atracurium
  • cisatracurium
  • mivacurium
  • vecuronium

Question 18

Question
Plasma cholinesterase is the mechanism of elimination for which of the following:
Answer
  • succinylcholine
  • mivacurium
  • pancuronium
  • rocuronium

Question 19

Question
Which of the following cause histamine release and may produce hypotension and tachycardia?
Answer
  • atracurium
  • pancuronium
  • mivacurium
  • succinylcholine
  • none of the above

Question 20

Question
The administration of _____________ can cause sudden, abrupt bradycardia with repeat doses in adults and any dose in children.
Answer
  • atracurium
  • succinylcholine
  • pancuronium
  • none of the above

Question 21

Question
Which of the following agents should be used together because of their rapid onset? (Select 2)
Answer
  • neostigmine
  • edrophonium
  • atropine
  • glycopyrrolate

Question 22

Question
Sugammadex is classified as a selective relaxant binding agent.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
Sugammadex is effective in reversing all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • rocuronium
  • vecuronium
  • pancuronium
  • atracurium

Question 24

Question
Which of the following local anesthetics are esters?
Answer
  • lidocaine
  • ropivacaine
  • bupivacaine
  • all of the above
  • none of the above

Question 25

Question
Amides tend to be shorter acting due to their rapid metabolism.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
If a patient has an allergy to an ester drug, all other ester drugs should be avoided.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 27

Question
Match the max dose to the correct drug. Procaine - [blank_start]14[blank_end] Ropivacaine - [blank_start]3[blank_end] Chloroprocaine - [blank_start]14[blank_end] Tetracaine - [blank_start]1[blank_end] Mepivacaine - [blank_start]7[blank_end] Bupivacaine - [blank_start]3[blank_end] Lidocaine - [blank_start]7[blank_end]
Answer
  • 1
  • 3
  • 7
  • 14
  • 1
  • 3
  • 11
  • 14
  • 1
  • 3
  • 7
  • 14
  • 1
  • 3
  • 7
  • 11
  • 1
  • 7
  • 11
  • 14
  • 1
  • 3
  • 7
  • 11
  • 3
  • 7
  • 11
  • 14

Question 28

Question
Which of the following LAs has an increased risk of causing cardiotoxicity because of its greater electrophysiologic effects?
Answer
  • Lidocaine
  • Bupivacaine
  • Ropivacaine
  • None of the above

Question 29

Question
Which of the following agents is purely alpha?
Answer
  • phenylephrine
  • norepinephrine
  • dopamine
  • epinephrine

Question 30

Question
The lower the pKa of a drug (closer to pH of 7.4), the faster the onset.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
The maximum safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine in tumescent anesthesia for liposuction is:
Answer
  • 35-55 mg/kg
  • 25-35 mg/kg
  • 45-65 mg/kg
  • 10-20 mg/kg

Question 32

Question
The following characteristics relate to which of the following agents? 1.) direct and indirect acting 2.) alpha and beta stimulating 3.) central and peripheral
Answer
  • ephedrine
  • phenylephrine
  • epinephrine
  • norepinephrine

Question 33

Question
Which of the following is the best choice to give to a pregnant patient?
Answer
  • atropine
  • scopolamine
  • glycopyrrolate
  • none of the above

Question 34

Question
In what classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs do beta blockers belong?
Answer
  • Class I
  • Class II
  • Class III
  • Class IV

Question 35

Question
Match the classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs with their effects. [blank_start]Class III[blank_end] : block potassium channels [blank_start]Class II[blank_end] : beta-adrenergic blocking effects [blank_start]Class IV[blank_end] - calcium channel blocking effects [blank_start]Class I[blank_end] - block sodium channels
Answer
  • Class III
  • Class II
  • Class IV
  • Class I

Question 36

Question
Which drug should you choose to treat torsades de pointes?
Answer
  • magnesium sulfate
  • adenosine
  • diltiazem
  • amiodarone

Question 37

Question
What drug should you choose to treat ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation?
Answer
  • amiodarone
  • esmolol
  • diltiazem
  • digoxin

Question 38

Question
A patient with a BP of 126/78 would be classified in what category?
Answer
  • Normal
  • Elevated
  • Stage 1 HTN
  • Stage 2 HTN

Question 39

Question
A patient with a blood pressure of 138/89 would be classified under what category?
Answer
  • Normal
  • Elevated
  • Stage 1 HTN
  • Stage 2 HTN

Question 40

Question
What drug should you choose to treat hypertension with a low heart rate?
Answer
  • hydralazine
  • labetalol
  • adenosine
  • none of the above

Question 41

Question
In what classification of angina is a patient that has slight limitation of ordinary activity such as, walking or climbing stairs?
Answer
  • Class I
  • Class II
  • Class III
  • Class IV

Question 42

Question
Exertional (stable) angina should be treated with:
Answer
  • beta-blockers
  • calcium channel blockers
  • ACE inhibitors
  • diuretics

Question 43

Question
Variant angina should be treated with:
Answer
  • beta-blockers
  • calcium channel blockers
  • nitrates
  • ACE inhibitors

Question 44

Question
Which drug decreases preload by causing venous dilation?
Answer
  • hydralazine
  • nitroglycerin
  • labetalol
  • none of the above

Question 45

Question
Renin release is the cause of rebound HTN following cessation of a nipride drip.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
______________ is a PDE3 inhibitor; interferes with the second messenger system.
Answer
  • Milrinone
  • Clonidine
  • Methyldopa
  • Dobutamine

Question 47

Question
Match the effects seen with the following doses of dopamine. Low doses (2-5 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]dopamine agonist[blank_end] Medium doses (5-10 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]dopamine and beta stimulation[blank_end] High doses (>10 -15 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction[blank_end]
Answer
  • dopamine agonist
  • dopamine and beta stimulation
  • alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction
  • dopamine agonist
  • dopamine and beta stimulation
  • alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction
  • dopamine agonist
  • dopamine and beta stimulation
  • alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction

Question 48

Question
Atropine causes mydriasis and loss of accommodation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 49

Question
The more protein bound a local anesthetic is, the shorter the duration of action.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 50

Question
All of the following are true regarding the addition of vasoconstrictors to local anesthetics EXCEPT:
Answer
  • decreases the rate of vascular absorption
  • decreases the onset time
  • increases the onset time
  • decreases chances of toxicity
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