alyssa Reynolds
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Quiz on Clinical diseases chapter 7, created by alyssa Reynolds on 24/03/2019.

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alyssa Reynolds
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Clinical diseases chapter 7

Question 1 of 46

1

What is an example of a poor conformation disorder in the musculoskeletal system?

Select one of the following:

  • Osteochondritis

  • Ligament rupture

  • Luxating patella

  • Myositis

Explanation

Question 2 of 46

1

What is an example of a degenerative disease in the musculoskeletal system?

Select one of the following:

  • Osteochondritis

  • Ligament rupture

  • Luxating patella

  • Myositis

Explanation

Question 3 of 46

1

What is an example of an inflammation process disease within the musculoskeletal system?

Select one of the following:

  • Luxating patella

  • Ligament rupture

  • Degenerative joint disease

  • Pan osteitis

Explanation

Question 4 of 46

1

What is an example of a trauma related issue within the musculoskeletal system?

Select one of the following:

  • Non-united anconeal process

  • Ligament rupture

  • Luxating patella

  • myositis

Explanation

Question 5 of 46

1

What is another name for spongy bone within the body?

Select one of the following:

  • Compact bone

  • Voided bone

  • Cancellous bone

  • Ossification bone

Explanation

Question 6 of 46

1

What is not a type of common fracture in veterinary medicine?

Select one of the following:

  • Circumvented

  • Fissured

  • Transverse

  • Greenstick

Explanation

Question 7 of 46

1

How many views of radiographs are needed to diagnose and characterize a fracture?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 view

  • 2 views

  • 3 views

  • None are needed if the fracture is open or can be palpated

Explanation

Question 8 of 46

1

Casts and splints do all of the following stabilizing actions EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Holding fracture in place while healing occurs

  • Provide pain relief to patient

  • Prevents rotation or overriding of fracture

  • Limit activity to joint above and below the fracture

Explanation

Question 9 of 46

1

How long are bone plates kept in or on the fractured limb after being placed on adult dogs?

Select one of the following:

  • 3-5 weeks

  • 2-4 months

  • 5-12 months

  • They are usually not removed after placement

Explanation

Question 10 of 46

1

Extramedullary pins can promote healing in adult dogs within a _____________ time frame.

Select one of the following:

  • 7-12 week

  • 2-3 week

  • 10-15 day

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 11 of 46

1

How long is restricted activity with leash walks and cage rest is recommended while a fracture is healing?

Select one of the following:

  • 8-12 months

  • 5-8 weeks

  • 10-20 days

  • Dogs should be fine after pins or plates are placed

Explanation

Question 12 of 46

1

What would be a sign of problems with a splint placed for a fracture?

Select one of the following:

  • Licking at splint

  • Heat from affected limb

  • Foul odor

  • All of above

  • None of the above, thar are all part of the normal healing process

Explanation

Question 13 of 46

1

What ligament is most associated with degenerative joint disease of the stifle joint?

Select one of the following:

  • Cranial cruciate ligament

  • Posterior cruciate ligament

  • Lateral cruciate ligament

  • Medial crucial ligament

Explanation

Question 14 of 46

1

Cruciate ligament injuries generally occur in all of the following predispositions of dogs after exercise EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Middle age

  • Young

  • Obese

  • Athletic

Explanation

Question 15 of 46

1

When the veterinarian preforms a test where the tibia abnormally slides forward with respect to the femoral condyles, they are said to demonstrate ______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Negative drawer movement

  • Positive drawer movement

  • Cranial luxation movement

  • Caudal luxation movement

Explanation

Question 16 of 46

1

What stabilization technique for ACL tear is said to be the most effective in dogs weighing less than 15kg?

Select one of the following:

  • Intraarticular

  • Extraarticular

  • Exoarticular

  • Extracurricular

Explanation

Question 17 of 46

1

What does TPLO stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Tibial position lining osteotomy

  • Transfixed patellar luxation oliectomy

  • Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 18 of 46

1

How long after surgery from ACL can a dog resume normal activity?

Select one of the following:

  • 8-12 weeks

  • 4-8 weeks

  • 1-2 weeks

  • Directly after surgery so the joint doesn't seize

Explanation

Question 19 of 46

1

What is a common occurrence that happens within 1 year of a ruptured ACL?

Select one of the following:

  • The surgery fails

  • The dog develops osteosarcoma

  • Rupture of the opposite cruciate ligament

  • Spontaneous healing of the ACL

Explanation

Question 20 of 46

1

Even with surgical stabilization of the joint, the patient may develop ___________ as it ages.

Select one of the following:

  • Osteosarcoma

  • Myositis

  • Luxating patella

  • Degenerative joint disease

Explanation

Question 21 of 46

1

Medial luxation of the patella can occur in toy, small and large breed dogs usually due to what issue?

Select one of the following:

  • Congenital defect

  • Trauma

  • Hip dysplasia

  • Soft tissue break down around the stiffle

Explanation

Question 22 of 46

1

Lateral luxation of the patella that is usually seen in toy and miniature breed dogs due to what issue?

Select one of the following:

  • Congenital defect

  • Trauma

  • Hip dysplasia

  • Soft tissue break down around the stifle

Explanation

Question 23 of 46

1

Lateral luxation of the patella that is seen in large or giant breed dogs is usually due to what issue?

Select one of the following:

  • Poor diet

  • Trauma

  • Hip dysplasia

  • Soft tissue break down around the stifle

Explanation

Question 24 of 46

1

Hip dysplasia can have many factors contributing to its development. What is NOT a contributing factor?

Select one of the following:

  • Genetic predisposition

  • Environment and diet

  • Too much exercise through life

  • Muscle and skeleton ratio

Explanation

Question 25 of 46

1

What is NOT a clinical sign of hip dysplasia?

Select one of the following:

  • Waddling gait

  • Atrophy of hip muscles

  • Reluctance to move

  • Muscle hypertrophy around joints

Explanation

Question 26 of 46

1

What age can a dog with genetic hip dysplasia develop clinical signs?

Select one of the following:

  • 1-2 months

  • 3-5 years

  • 5-8 months

  • Not seen until dog becomes older

Explanation

Question 27 of 46

1

What does FHO stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Femoral head ostectomy

  • Femoral half orthectomy

  • Femoral hip osteotomy

  • Fixed head orthotomy

Explanation

Question 28 of 46

1

What type of hip dysplasia is more common?

Select one of the following:

  • Femoral hip dysplasia

  • Acetabular hip dysplasia

  • Luxating hip dysplasia

  • Progressive femoral necrosis

Explanation

Question 29 of 46

1

What is the BEST treatment for hip dysplasia?

Select one of the following:

  • Medical management

  • FHO

  • Total hip replacement

  • Patellar displacement

Explanation

Question 30 of 46

1

What age should a dog be radiographed for hip dysplasia before breeding?

Select one of the following:

  • Before 1 year of age

  • Between 1 and 2 years of age

  • Older than 2 years of age

  • Can be seen at any age

Explanation

Question 31 of 46

1

Legg-calve-perthes disease involves necrosis of _____________ and is also called ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • Femoral head/neck; avascular necrosis

  • Acetabular socket; septic necrosis

  • Distal femur/tibia; calve atrophy

  • Proximal fibia; atrophic arthritis

Explanation

Question 32 of 46

1

What breed is the most commonly affected with Legg-calve-perthes disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Giant breeds, great danes

  • Medium breeds, golden retrievers

  • Toy breeds, terriers

  • Affects all breeds the same

Explanation

Question 33 of 46

1

The most common treatment for Legg-calve-perthes disease is what?

Select one of the following:

  • ACL correction

  • Excision arthroplasty

  • Medical management

  • Closed reduction of femeral head

Explanation

Question 34 of 46

1

The degeneration or aseptic necrosis of bone and cartilage followed by reossification refers to whtat?

Select one of the following:

  • Genetic hip dysplasia

  • Legg-calve-perthes disease

  • Osteochondrosis disease

  • Panosteitis

Explanation

Question 35 of 46

1

Radiographs will show __________ when diagnosing osteochondrosis dissecans.

Select one of the following:

  • Necrosis of femoral head

  • Cartilage flap

  • Deformed acetabula

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 36 of 46

1

Panosteitis is a common disease that affects ___________ with an average onset of ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • Toy breeds; 6-8 months

  • Medium/large breeds; 6-8 months

  • Toy breeds; 9+ years

  • Medium/large breeds; 9+ years

Explanation

Question 37 of 46

1

What breed is over-represented with regard to panosteitis?

Select one of the following:

  • German shephards

  • Boston terriers

  • Golden retrievers

  • Toy poodles

Explanation

Question 38 of 46

1

Panosteitis is a ____________ disease and usually affects the _____________ of the body.

Select one of the following:

  • Lifelong; short bones

  • Self-limiting; long bones

  • Lifelong; long bones

  • Self-limiting; short bone

Explanation

Question 39 of 46

1

What is the medical terminology for a dislocation of a joint?

Select one of the following:

  • Luxation

  • Joint dysplasia

  • Hyperflexion

  • Hypoflexion

Explanation

Question 40 of 46

1

What type of femoral head luxation is the most common?

Select one of the following:

  • Craniocaudal

  • Craniodorsal

  • Ventral

  • Lateral

Explanation

Question 41 of 46

1

What feline disease process of the musculoskeletal system is a result of hypokalemia?

Select one of the following:

  • Feline polymyositis

  • Feline bacterial myositis

  • Feline protozoal myositis

  • Feline polymyopathy

Explanation

Question 42 of 46

1

What is an immune mediated disease of the muscles that affects dogs and cats?

Select one of the following:

  • Polymyositis

  • Polymyopathy

  • hemolytic myositis

  • Saddle thrombis

Explanation

Question 43 of 46

1

What is the protozoal parasite that is most associated with myositis in felines?

Select one of the following:

  • Giardia

  • Ameboma

  • Babesia

  • Toxoplasma

Explanation

Question 44 of 46

1

What disease process affects the mastication muscles of dogs?

Select one of the following:

  • Masticatory muscle myositis

  • Atrophic myositis

  • Eosinophilic myositis

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 45 of 46

1

What type of neoplasia is most associated with bone cancer?

Select one of the following:

  • Adenocarcinoma

  • Melanoma

  • Osteosarcoma

  • Osteoadenoma

Explanation

Question 46 of 46

1

All of the information about bone cancer in animals is true EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Even with treatment, 90% die

  • Treatment involves amputation of the affected limb

  • It is usually not metastatic

  • It is highly metastatic

Explanation

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