alyssa Reynolds
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Quiz on Clinical Diseases Chapter 8, created by alyssa Reynolds on 24/03/2019.

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alyssa Reynolds
Created by alyssa Reynolds about 5 years ago
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Clinical Diseases Chapter 8

Question 1 of 40

1

What is the functional cell of the nervous system?

Select one of the following:

  • Neuron

  • Epithelial

  • Striated

  • Non-striated

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

The nerve fibers that conduct impulses rapidly are called ______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Myelinated

  • Non-myelinated

  • PNS cells

  • CNS cells

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

The nerve fibers that conduct impulses much slower are called ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Myelinated

  • Non-myelinated

  • PNS cells

  • CNS cells

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

A direct injury to the brain as a result of trauma is called a _______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Primary event

  • Secondary event

  • Counter event

  • Uptundant event

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

What does ICP mean in veterinary terminology?

Select one of the following:

  • Insane clown posee

  • Intracranial perfusion

  • Intracranial pressure

  • Intracardiac puncture

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

ICP is caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Edema

  • Hemorrhage

  • Herniation of nervous tissue

  • Cardiac output

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

All of the following can be signs of head trauma EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • T3-L3 lesion of the spine

  • Cardiac arrhythmias

  • Bleeding from the nose and mouth

  • Ocular hemorrhage

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

All of the following are treatments of head trauma EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Mannitol (20%) in slow bolus

  • Corticosteroids

  • Nsaid therapy

  • Anti-seizure medication if needed

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

What disease process is seen in older dogs and has clinical signs that include ataxia, nystagmus, disorientation and usually resolves on its own?

Select one of the following:

  • Status epilepsy

  • Idiopathic vestibular disease

  • Invertebral disc disease

  • Degenerative myelopathy

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

What is the syndrome characterized by repeated episodes of seizures for which no demonstrated cause exists?

Select one of the following:

  • Idiopathic epilepsy

  • Status epilepsy

  • Ischemic myelopathy

  • Degenerative myelopathy

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

An emergency that is defined by continual seizures for a prolonged period of time?

Select one of the following:

  • Satus epilepticus

  • Ischemic myelopthay

  • Idiopathic epilepsy

  • Metabolic neuropathy

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

What is the time frame when a seizure is considered to reach status epilepticus?

Select one of the following:

  • Greater than 10 minutes

  • Greater than 15 minutes

  • Greater than 5 minutes

  • Greater than 3 minutes

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

What is considered the best drug for status epilepticus and how is it given?

Select one of the following:

  • Diazepam; IV

  • Pentobarbital; IV

  • Phenobarbital; IM

  • Hydromorphone; IM

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

What change in a specific vital sign will we see dramatic, life-threatening changes with status epilepticus?

Select one of the following:

  • Heart arrhythmias

  • Hypertension

  • Hyperthermia

  • Hemorrhage

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

What is the main goal with epilepsy and status epilepticus?

Select one of the following:

  • Cure the disease

  • Decrease the frequency

  • Decrease the severity

  • Decrease both the severity and the frequency

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

How long to seizures generally last with idiopathic epilepsy?

Select one of the following:

  • 3-5 minutes

  • Longer than 5 minutes

  • 1-2 minutes

  • Less than 1 minute

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

What disease is considered a true emergency and requires immediate action in veterinary medicine?

Select one of the following:

  • Idiopathic epilepsy

  • Status epilepticus

  • Megaesophagus

  • Laryngeal paralysis

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

What are the "cushions" of the spine called?

Select one of the following:

  • Intervestibular discs

  • Intervertebral discs

  • Intervertebral pockets

  • Atlantoaxial discs

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

Disc protrusion is a sign of what clinical disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Atlantoaxial sublaxation

  • Cervical spondomyelopathy

  • Intervertebral disc disease

  • Degenerative myelopathy

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

What type of disc herniation usually appears in younger dogs and involves acute rupture of the annulus fibrosis and extrusion of the nucleus pulposus up into the spinal canal?

Select one of the following:

  • Type 1

  • Type 2

  • Type 3

  • Type 4

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

What type of disc herniation happens in older, large breed dogs with the extrusion occurring over a long period of time?

Select one of the following:

  • Type 1

  • Type 2

  • Type 3

  • Type 4

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

Which clinical sign is NOT seen with intervertebral disc disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Paresis

  • Paralysos

  • Apparent pain

  • Seizures

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

In type 1 intervertebral disc disease, the animal should be kept in strict confinement (cage rest) for how long?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 weeks

  • 2 months

  • 48 hours

  • Usually fine after initial treatment

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

If an animal lacks deep pain for longer than _________ the prognosis is said to be poor.

Select one of the following:

  • 48 hours

  • 2 hours

  • 24 hours

  • 1 week

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

Atlantoaxial subluxation is usually seen in dogs less than __________ of age and ___________ breeds.

Select one of the following:

  • 1 year; miniature/toy

  • 5 years; medium/large

  • 1 year; medium/large

  • 5 years; giant

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

What should be avoided when obtaining radiographs for at atlantoaxial aubluxation?

Select one of the following:

  • Stretching the back

  • Dorsoventral views

  • Anesthesia

  • Crainial radiographs

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

Atlantoaxial subluxation is considered a ____________ disease.

Select one of the following:

  • Congenital

  • Traumatic

  • Auto-immune

  • Both congenital and traumatic

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

What is the medical terminology for "wobblers syndrome"

Select one of the following:

  • Degenerative myelopathy

  • Vertebral osteomyelitis

  • Cervical spondomyelopathy

  • Atlantoaxial subluxation

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

What disease process is a result of spinal compression due to malformation or misarticulation of caudal vertebrae C5-C7?

Select one of the following:

  • Degenerative myelopathy

  • Cervical spondomyelopathy

  • Atlantoaxial subluxation

  • Degenerative myelostitis

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

Wobblers syndrome is most commonly seen in what breed of dog?

Select one of the following:

  • Miniature poodles

  • Golden retrievers

  • Bull dogs

  • Doberman pinschers

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

What is the most common clinical sign associated with cervical spondomyelopathy?

Select one of the following:

  • Swinging or wobbly gait in rear limbs

  • Hemiparesis

  • Hyperesthesia over lesion

  • Fever of unknown origin

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

What progressive disease is defined as a lesion consisting of diffuse degeneration of white matter in both the ascending and descending tracts in all segments of the spinal cord?

Select one of the following:

  • Cervical spondomyelopathy

  • Discospondylitis

  • Ischemis myelopathy

  • Degenerative myelopathy

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

What disease process is the result of bacteria or fungi becoming implanted in the bones of the vertebral spinal column?

Select one of the following:

  • Discospondylitis

  • Cervical spondomyelopathy

  • Ischemic myelopathy

  • Degenerative myelopathy

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

What disease process is caused by fibrocartilaginous embolism in large or giant breed dogs?

Select one of the following:

  • Discospondylitis

  • Cervical spondomyelopathy

  • Ischemic myelopathy

  • Degenerative myelopathy

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

Which of these disease processes are associated with metabolic neuropathy?

Select one of the following:

  • Cardiomyopathy

  • Diabetes mellitus

  • Osteochondritis

  • Intervertebral disc disease

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

What viral disease is associated with laryngeal paralysis?

Select one of the following:

  • Rabies

  • Distemper

  • Feline leukemia

  • Rhinotracheitis

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

The hereditary form of laryngeal can be seen at what age?

Select one of the following:

  • 1.5-13 years

  • 4-6 months

  • 2-5 years

  • 9+ years

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

What disease process involves regurgitation of food, respiratory signs, and lack of growth in its congenital form?

Select one of the following:

  • Degenerative myelopathy

  • Laryngeal paralysis

  • Megaesophagus

  • Polyradiculoneuritis

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

Polyradiculoneuritis is also known by what name?

Select one of the following:

  • Doberman paralysis

  • Coonhound paralysis

  • Poodle paralysis

  • Retriever paralysis

Explanation

Question 40 of 40

1

Many, but not all cases of polyradiculoneuritis are caused by a bite from what animal?

Select one of the following:

  • Feline

  • Opossum

  • Tick

  • Raccoon

Explanation

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