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Quiz by Reuben Moore, created more than 1 year ago

Multiple choice quiz for Gold Seal's UAV Private Pilot Ground School for Section 3. Includes subjects:

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	Created by Reuben Moore over 10 years ago

Gold Seal FAA Private Pilot Section 3

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Question 1 of 152

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Select one of the following:

The 0 degree line of latitude passes through Greenwich England.
Line of longitude cross the equator at right angles.
Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.

Explanation

Question 2 of 152

What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
*Refer to printed full sized reference**

Select one of the following:

47 Degrees 25 minutes North - 98 Degrees 6 minutes West.
47 Degrees 55 minutes North - 98 Degrees 6 minutes West.
47 Degrees 25 minutes N -99 Degrees 54 minutes West.

Explanation

Question 3 of 152

The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a ?

Select one of the following:

Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
Compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.
Compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.

Explanation

Question 4 of 152

What type of military flight operations should pilot expect along IR 644?
Refer to Hard copy PDF

Select one of the following:

VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.
Instruments training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.
IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

Explanation

Question 5 of 152

What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Select one of the following:

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Explanation

Question 6 of 152

The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is?

Select one of the following:

126.0 Mhz
133.4 Mhz
122.95 Mhz

Explanation

Question 7 of 152

Which public use airport depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Refer to Hard copy PDF

Select one of the following:

Mercer County Regional Airport (Area 3) and Garrison (Area 2).
Minot Int'l (Area 1) and Garrison (Area 2).
Minot Int'l (Area 1).

Explanation

Question 8 of 152

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Select one of the following:

Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.

Explanation

Question 9 of 152

What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nm southwest of Savannah International?

Select one of the following:

1,532 feet AGL
1,500 feet MSL.
1,549 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 10 of 152

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has?

Select one of the following:

Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
Received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
Filed an IFR flight plan.

Explanation

Question 11 of 152

If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Select one of the following:

126.35 MHz
120.3 MHz
122.95 MHZ

Explanation

Question 12 of 152

At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Select one of the following:

135.075 MHz.
122.05 MHz.
122.8 MHz.

Explanation

Question 13 of 152

The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet AGL.
Unmarked blimp hangers at 300 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 14 of 152

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the?

Select one of the following:

Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
Airport/Facility Directory.
NOTAMs.

Explanation

Question 15 of 152

The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is?

Select one of the following:

190 feet.
19 feet.
216 feet.

Explanation

Question 16 of 152

Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

Select one of the following:

47 degrees 24 Minutes N - 75 Degrees 58 Minutes West.
36 Degrees 48 minutes North - 76 Degrees 1 Minute West.
36 Degrees 24 Minutes North - 76 Degrees 1 Minute West.

Explanation

Question 17 of 152

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are?

Select one of the following:

Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
Airports with special traffic patterns.
Out boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.

Explanation

Question 18 of 152

The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is?

Select one of the following:

122.9 MHz.
123.0 MHz.
122.8 MHz.

Explanation

Question 19 of 152

What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Select one of the following:

Transmit intentions on 122.9 when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.
Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.

Explanation

Question 20 of 152

Which airport is located at approximately 47 degrees 21 minutes N latitude and 101 degrees 1 minute West longitude?

Select one of the following:

Evenson.
Underwood.
Washburn.

Explanation

Question 21 of 152

if air traffic control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code?

Select one of the following:

4096
1200
0000

Explanation

Question 22 of 152

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

Select one of the following:

Class D and Class G (below 10,000 MSL).
Class A, Class B, (and withing 30 nm of the Class B primary airport), and Class C
Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).

Explanation

Question 23 of 152

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

Select one of the following:

0700, 1700, 7000
7500, 7600, 7700
1200, 1500, 7000

Explanation

Question 24 of 152

At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which altimeter code should be selected?

Select one of the following:

Mode F, Code 1200
Mode 3/A, Code 1200
Mode C, Code 4096

Explanation

Question 25 of 152

For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on?

Select one of the following:

A properly functioning thermostat.
The circulation of lubricating oil.
Air flowing over the exhaust manifold.

Explanation

Question 26 of 152

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to?

Select one of the following:

Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increased air density.
Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreased air density.

Explanation

Question 27 of 152

Applying carburetor heat will?

Select one of the following:

Enrich the fuel/air mixture.
result in more air going through the carburetor.
Not affect the fuel/air mixture.

Explanation

Question 28 of 152

If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto?

Select one of the following:

May continue to fire.
Will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit.
Will not operate.

Explanation

Question 29 of 152

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed pitch propeller) is detonating during climb out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to?

Select one of the following:

Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
Apply carburetor heat.
Lean the mixture.

Explanation

Question 30 of 152

Which of the following is a true statement concerning electrical systems?

Select one of the following:

The master switch provides current to the electrical system.
The airspeed indicator is driven by the electrical system.
Lights and radios use the electrical system for power.

Explanation

Question 31 of 152

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause?

Select one of the following:

Lower cylinder head temperature.
A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
Detonation.

Explanation

Question 32 of 152

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when?

Select one of the following:

The unburned charge in the cylinder explodes instead of burning normally.
Hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
The spark plugs are fouled or shorted out of the wiring is defective.

Explanation

Question 33 of 152

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used.

Select one of the following:

All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
In the event the engine driven pump fails.
Constantly except in starting the engine.

Explanation

Question 34 of 152

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

Select one of the following:

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
There will be more fuel in the cylinder than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.

Explanation

Question 35 of 152

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

Select one of the following:

Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

Explanation

Question 36 of 152

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would?

Select one of the following:

Experience avionics equipment failure.
Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.
Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.

Explanation

Question 37 of 152

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

Select one of the following:

Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
Test each brake and the parking brakes.
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

Explanation

Question 38 of 152

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting?

Select one of the following:

A decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
An increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

Explanation

Question 39 of 152

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to?

Select one of the following:

Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.

Explanation

Question 40 of 152

The operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the?

Select one of the following:

Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

Explanation

Question 41 of 152

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as?

Select one of the following:

Combustion.
Detonation.
Pre-ignition.

Explanation

Question 42 of 152

With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be?

Select one of the following:

More susceptible to icing.
Equally susceptible to incing.
Susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.

Explanation

Question 43 of 152

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be?

Select one of the following:

A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
Loss of RPM
Engine roughness.

Explanation

Question 44 of 152

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with?

Select one of the following:

The mixture set too rich.
Higher than normal oil pressure.
Too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Explanation

Question 45 of 152

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

Select one of the following:

Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating.
Using fuel that has a higher than specified fuel rating.
Operating with higher than normal oil pressure.

Explanation

Question 46 of 152

Excessively high engine temperatures will?

Select one of the following:

Cause a loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinders cooling fins.
Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

Explanation

Question 47 of 152

An abnormally high engine temperature indication may be caused by?

Select one of the following:

The oil level being too low.
Operating with a too high viscosity oil.
Operating with an excessively rich mixture.

Explanation

Question 48 of 152

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

Select one of the following:

Enrich the fuel mixture.
Increase the RPM.
Reduce the airspeed.

Explanation

Question 49 of 152

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to?

Select one of the following:

Decrease engine performance.
Increase engine performance.
Have no effect on engine performance.

Explanation

Question 50 of 152

What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

Select one of the following:

The next higher octane aviation gas.
The next lower octane aviation gas.
Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

Explanation

Question 51 of 152

During the run up at a high elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action.

Select one of the following:

Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.

Explanation

Question 52 of 152

To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be?

Select one of the following:

Less than the battery voltage.
Equal to the battery voltage.
Higher than the battery voltage.

Explanation

Question 53 of 152

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

Select one of the following:

Temperature between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F and high humidity.
An temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
Temperature between 32 degrees F and 50 degrees F and low humidity.

Explanation

Question 54 of 152

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tanks sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the?

Select one of the following:

Lowest point in the fuel system.
Fuel strainer drain.
Fuel strainer drain and fuel tank sumps.

Explanation

Question 55 of 152

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for?

Select one of the following:

Uniform heat distribution.
Improved engine performance.
Balanced cylinder head pressure.

Explanation

Question 56 of 152

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot?

Select one of the following:

Be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
Be at the controls in the cockpit.
Call "contact" before touching the propeller.

Explanation

Question 57 of 152

A positive indication on an ammeter?

Select one of the following:

Indicates the aircraft's battery will soon lose its charge.
Means more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced.
Shows the rate of charge on the battery.

Explanation

Question 58 of 152

Filing the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will?

Select one of the following:

Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

Explanation

Question 59 of 152

What is the advantage of a constant speed propeller?

Select one of the following:

Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

Explanation

Question 60 of 152

With winds reported out of the north at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?

Select one of the following:

Runway 29
Runway 6
Runway 32

Explanation

Question 61 of 152

What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220 Degrees at 30 knots?

Select one of the following:

23 knots.
19 knots.
30 knots.

Explanation

Question 62 of 152

With winds reported as 180 degrees at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?

Select one of the following:

Runway 24
Runway 10
Runway 14

Explanation

Question 63 of 152

The tower is reporting wind as 220 degrees at 30 knots. What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18?

Select one of the following:

30 knots.
23 knots.
19 knots.

Explanation

Question 64 of 152

Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45 degree crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots?

Select one of the following:

35 knots.
25 knots.
29 knots.

Explanation

Question 65 of 152

While flying a rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90 degrees?

Select one of the following:

Corners 1 and 4.
Corners 1 and 2.
Corners 2 and 4.

Explanation

Question 66 of 152

When flying a rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank?

Select one of the following:

Corner 1.
Corner 3.
Corners 2 and 3.

Explanation

Question 67 of 152

While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not complete before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn?

Select one of the following:

4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.
1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn.

Explanation

Question 68 of 152

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should?

Select one of the following:

Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

Explanation

Question 69 of 152

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Flight over a densely populated area.
Flight within D airspace.
Flight under instrument flight rules.

Explanation

Question 70 of 152

FAA advisory circulars(some free, others at a cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by?

Select one of the following:

Subscribing to the Federal Register.
Distribution from the nearest FAA district office (FSDO).
Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

Explanation

Question 71 of 152

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Select one of the following:

An in flight radio communications failure.
An in flight generator or alternator failure.
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

Explanation

Question 72 of 152

For private pilot operations, a First Class Medical Certificate issued to a 21 year old pilot on October 21 this year, will expire on midnight on?

Select one of the following:

October 31, next year.
October 31, five years later.
October 21, two years later.

Explanation

Question 73 of 152

A private pilot acting as a pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in his or her personal possession, or readily accessible in the aircraft, a current?

Select one of the following:

Endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
Logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactory accomplished.
Medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.

Explanation

Question 74 of 152

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested.

Select one of the following:

Anytime.
At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

Explanation

Question 75 of 152

To Determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the?

Select one of the following:

Registration Certificate.
Airworthiness Certificate.
Aircraft Maintenance Records.

Explanation

Question 76 of 152

The aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than?

Select one of the following:

July 31, next year.
July 1, next year.
July 13, next year.

Explanation

Question 77 of 152

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as a pilot in command of any aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

Select one of the following:

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
There is no exception.
If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.

Explanation

Question 78 of 152

Which incident would necessitate and immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Select one of the following:

Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
A forced landing due to engine failure.
Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Explanation

Question 79 of 152

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

Select one of the following:

A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
Certificate showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

Explanation

Question 80 of 152

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance.

Select one of the following:

Within 10 days.
Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
Immediately.

Explanation

Question 81 of 152

At what altitude shall the altimeter be et to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

Select one of the following:

18,000 feet MSL.
24,000 feet MSL.
14,500 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 82 of 152

A certified private pilot may not act as a pilot in command or an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of?

Select one of the following:

100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider.
200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow the glider.

Explanation

Question 83 of 152

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, baloon.
transport, restricted, provisional.

Explanation

Question 84 of 152

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

Select one of the following:

When the ELT can not longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
After any activation of the ELT other than testing.

Explanation

Question 85 of 152

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea.
Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.

Explanation

Question 86 of 152

Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate.

Select one of the following:

From the primary airport within Class D airspace.
Beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

Explanation

Question 87 of 152

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to?

Select one of the following:

Review traffic control light signal procedures.
Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Explanation

Question 88 of 152

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

Select one of the following:

The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.

Explanation

Question 89 of 152

Which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Select one of the following:

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

Explanation

Question 90 of 152

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are?

Select one of the following:

Clear of clouds and 2 mile visibility.
500 feet ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

Explanation

Question 91 of 152

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in the maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

Select one of the following:

Certified Mechanic.
Repair Station.
Owner or operator.

Explanation

Question 92 of 152

Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?

Select one of the following:

Airship.
Glider.
Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

Explanation

Question 93 of 152

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated.

Select one of the following:

By any private pilot.
For compensation or hire.
With passengers aboard.

Explanation

Question 94 of 152

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

Select one of the following:

Yes, under VFR conditions only.
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
Yes, AD's are only voluntary.

Explanation

Question 95 of 152

What regulations allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

Select one of the following:

14 CFR Part 61.113
14 CFR Part 43.3
14 CFR Part 91.403

Explanation

Question 96 of 152

If an aircraft is involved in an accident with results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified.

Select one of the following:

Within 48 hours.
Immediately.
Within 7 days.

Explanation

Question 97 of 152

A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding.

Select one of the following:

24 hours.
12 hours.
8 hours.

Explanation

Question 98 of 152

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate.

Select one of the following:

The Medical Examiner.
The FAA.
The Pilot.

Explanation

Question 99 of 152

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?

Select one of the following:

Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
Owner or operator.
Repair Station.

Explanation

Question 100 of 152

In addition to valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

Select one of the following:

Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
Radio Operator's permit, and repair and alterations forms.

Explanation

Question 101 of 152

What action should the pilot of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course?

Select one of the following:

The glider pilot should give to the right.
Both pilots should give way to the right.
The airplane should give way to the left.

Explanation

Question 102 of 152

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition.

Select one of the following:

Owner or Operator.
Certified Mechanic.
Pilot in command.

Explanation

Question 103 of 152

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from?

Select one of the following:

1,200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 104 of 152

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?

Select one of the following:

The airship.
The airplane.
Each pilot should alter course to the right.

Explanation

Question 105 of 152

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

Select one of the following:

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.

Explanation

Question 106 of 152

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?

Select one of the following:

The are voluntary.
For informational purposes only.
They are mandatory.

Explanation

Question 107 of 152

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of?

Select one of the following:

12,500 feet MSL.
14,000 feet MSL.
15,000 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 108 of 152

No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with?

Select one of the following:

.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Explanation

Question 109 of 152

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?

Select one of the following:

within 10 days.
when requested.
within 7 days.

Explanation

Question 110 of 152

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight?

Select one of the following:

Except by prior arrangement with the pilot of each aircraft.
In class B,C, or D airspace.
Over a densely populated area.

Explanation

Question 111 of 152

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

Select one of the following:

when intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees.
When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.

Explanation

Question 112 of 152

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

Select one of the following:

Every 24 months.
At the time of each 100 hour or annual inspection.
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.

Explanation

Question 113 of 152

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 114 of 152

Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance?

Select one of the following:

Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.
Alteration of main seat support brackets.
Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used.

Explanation

Question 115 of 152

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during?

Select one of the following:

That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
The entire flight time at those altitudes.

Explanation

Question 116 of 152

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

Select one of the following:

With prior permission from the FAA local Flight Standards District Office(FSDO).
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
Only in a emergency.

Explanation

Question 117 of 152

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

Select one of the following:

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Explanation

Question 118 of 152

If recency of experience requirements for night flights are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is?

Select one of the following:

1929
1829
1859

Explanation

Question 119 of 152

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Sunset to Sunrise.
End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

Explanation

Question 120 of 152

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Select one of the following:

An in flight generator/alternator failure.
An in flight fire.
An in flight los of VOR receiver capability.

Explanation

Question 121 of 152

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is?

Select one of the following:

8 nm.
6 nm.
4 nm.

Explanation

Question 122 of 152

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 123 of 152

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is?

Select one of the following:

At least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
Less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

Explanation

Question 124 of 152

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months?

Select one of the following:

At least 3 actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
At least 3 flights in a powered glider.
At least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.

Explanation

Question 125 of 152

An ATC clearance provides?

Select one of the following:

Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
Adequate separation from all traffic.
Priority over all traffic.

Explanation

Question 126 of 152

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include?

Select one of the following:

The designation of an alternate airport.
A study of arrival procedures at airports of intended use.
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Explanation

Question 127 of 152

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Select one of the following:

Private Pilot Certification with an instrument rating.
Commercial Pilot Certificate.
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

Explanation

Question 128 of 152

The definition of night time is?

Select one of the following:

1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.
sunset to sunrise.
The time between the end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight.

Explanation

Question 129 of 152

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

Select one of the following:

Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

Explanation

Question 130 of 152

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace.

Select one of the following:

Air Traffic Control Tower.
Automated Flight Service Station.
Air Route Traffic Control Center.

Explanation

Question 131 of 152

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened.

Select one of the following:

Safety belts during takeoff and landing; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Explanation

Question 132 of 152

During the pre-flight inspection, who is responsible for determining if the aircraft is safe for flight?

Select one of the following:

The certified mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
The pilot in command.
The owner and operator.

Explanation

Question 133 of 152

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

Select one of the following:

Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.

Explanation

Question 134 of 152

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft?

Select one of the following:

That has the other to its right.
At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
That is the least maneuverable.

Explanation

Question 135 of 152

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as a pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have?

Select one of the following:

An endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
Passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
Received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

Explanation

Question 136 of 152

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency, send a written report of the deviation to the Administration?

Select one of the following:

Upon request.
Within 7 days.
Within 10 days.

Explanation

Question 137 of 152

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 138 of 152

Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

Select one of the following:

Authorized mechanic only.
Student or recreational pilot.
Private or Commercial pilot.

Explanation

Question 139 of 152

Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

Select one of the following:

A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the air frame and engine logbook.
The signature, certificate number, and the kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

Explanation

Question 140 of 152

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to airmen are issued under which subject number?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 141 of 152

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
Under no condition.

Explanation

Question 142 of 152

If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only.

Select one of the following:

60 days after the date of the move.
90 days after the date of the move.
30 days after the date of the move.

Explanation

Question 143 of 152

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administer, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any?

Select one of the following:

Federal, state and local law enforcement officer.
Person in a position of authority.
Authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.

Explanation

Question 144 of 152

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

Select one of the following:

Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damages.

Explanation

Question 145 of 152

A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?

Select one of the following:

3312.5 hours.
3409.5 hours.
3402.5 hours.

Explanation

Question 146 of 152

With regards to privileges and limitations a private pilot may?

Select one of the following:

Act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involved only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
Not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

Explanation

Question 147 of 152

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?

Select one of the following:

In the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual materials, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
On the Airworthiness Certificate.
In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

Explanation

Question 148 of 152

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
Landplane, Seaplane.
Normal, utility, acrobatic.

Explanation

Question 149 of 152

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the?

Select one of the following:

Federal Aviation Administration.
Pilot in command.
Aircraft Manufacturer.

Explanation

Question 150 of 152

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Single engine land and sea, and multi-engine land and sea.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.
Lighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

Explanation

Question 151 of 152

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as a pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from?

Select one of the following:

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
The end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
Sunset to Sunrise.

Explanation

Question 152 of 152

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

Select one of the following:

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Explanation

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Multiple choice quiz for Gold Seal's UAV Private Pilot Ground School for Section 3. Includes subjects:

Gold Seal FAA Private Pilot Section 3

Gold Seal FAA Private Pilot Section 3

Question 1 of 152

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 152

What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport? ***Refer to printed full sized reference****

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 152

The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a ?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 152

What type of military flight operations should pilot expect along IR 644? ***Refer to Hard copy PDF***

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 152

What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 152

The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 152

Which public use airport depicted are indicated as having fuel? ***Refer to Hard copy PDF***

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 152

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 152

What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nm southwest of Savannah International?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 152

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 152

If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 152

At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 152

The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 152

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 152

The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 152

Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 152

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 152

The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 152

What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 152

What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
*Refer to printed full sized reference**

What type of military flight operations should pilot expect along IR 644?
Refer to Hard copy PDF

Which public use airport depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Refer to Hard copy PDF