Phil Oklam
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Degree Pharmacology Quiz on Pharmacology Quiz, created by Phil Oklam on 04/05/2015.

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Phil Oklam
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Pharmacology Quiz

Question 1 of 100

1

What is meant by pharmacodynamics?

Select one of the following:

  • The effect of a drug on the body - i.e. Cellular effects

  • The effect of the body on a drug - i.e. Administration Distribution Metabolism Excretion

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

What are the four main drug action targets?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Receptors

  • Enzymes

  • Carrier molecules

  • Ion channels

  • Vesicles

  • Ribosomes

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Which of the following are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Agonists activate receptors as an endogenous substrate would

  • Antagonists block the action of agonists

  • An orthosteric drug binds at the same site as a substrate

  • An allosteric drug binds away from the substrate site

  • Drugs cannot act as false substrates in enzymes

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Which of the following are the characteristics of a Class II nuclear receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • Present in the nucleus, form heterodimers, the ligands are lipids

  • Present in the nucleus, form homodimers, ligands are carbohydrates

  • Present in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are endocrine

  • Present in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are lipids

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Which of the following describes a graded dose-response?

Select one of the following:

  • The response of a particular system measured against agonist concentration

  • The drug doses required to produce specified response determined in each member of a population

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

Bmax is a measure of receptor saturation and is the maximum amount of drug which can bind specifically to the receptors in a membrane preparation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Potency is the amount of a drug needed to produced a given effect, it is measured using the EC50. The greater the EC50 the greater the potency.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

Which of the following is incorrect?

Select one of the following:

  • Efficacy is the maximum effect an agonist can produce regardless of dose

  • A full agonist has a high efficacy and AR* is likely, even while occupying a small number of receptors

  • A partial agonist has a lower efficacy and AR* is less likely despite occupying the maximum number of receptors

  • Inverse agonists have a higher affinity for AR* state than for AR state, it produces an effect opposite to that of an agonist, yet binds to the same receptor binding-site.

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

What is the meaning of tachyphylaxis?

Select one of the following:

  • Desensitisation of receptors with repeated administration

  • Amplification of a response means a fraction of receptors are needed to elicit a maximal response

  • The equilibrium dissociation constant, the same for any given receptor and drug combination

  • The process by which a drug is transported in place of an endogenous substrate or inhibit their transport

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Which of the following are true?

Select one of the following:

  • All of them

  • A competitive antagonist can be overcome with increasing agonist concentration.
    Curve: parallel shift to the right

  • An irreversible antagonist forms covalent bonds with the receptor.
    Curve: parallel shift to the right and reduced maximal asymptote

  • A non-competitive antagonist has signal transduction effects rather than receptor effects.
    Curve: reduces slope and maximum of curve

  • Antagonists have no efficacy and AR* doesn't exist

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

What is the equation for dose ratio?

Select one of the following:

  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50

  • (agonist - antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50

  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) * agonist EC50

  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) / antagonist EC50

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

The therapeutic index (TI) is a comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect to the amount that causes toxicity.
Risk: benefit ratio = TD50 / ED50 = Toxic dose / Efficient therapeutic dose

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

Lipid soluble compounds cross cell membranes less easily and are therefore less rapidly absorbed

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Which of the following is referring to Ka?

Select one of the following:

  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.

  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.

  • Determined by the Schild plot, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.

  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the lower the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Which of the following drug administration routes would be used for a drug that is poorly absorbed and unstable in the GI tract, it also gives the most control over the delivered dose and has a rapid onset of action.

Select one of the following:

  • Parenteral route

  • Vaginal route

  • Transdermal route

  • Sublingual route

  • Inhaled route

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Which of the following are pharmacological parameters?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cmax - max concentration of a compound after administration

  • Tmax - the time at which Cmax is reached

  • AUC - a measure of systemic exposure (area under curve / time of curve)

  • Bioavailability (F) - the extent of absorption after extravascular administration

  • Volume of distribution (Vd) - the amount of a compound in the body vs. plasma concentration

  • Clearance (CL) - the volume of plasma cleared of compound per unit of time

  • Ke - elimination rate constant

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

The half life of a drug in the plasma is not the elimination half life of the drug from the tissues

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Which of the following are plasma proteins that bind drugs making them stay in systemic circulation rather than distributing into tissues or organs.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Albumin (HSA) - produced by the liver, binds acidic and neutral drugs

  • Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and neutral drugs

  • Albumin (HSA) - produced by the spleen, binds acidic and neutral drugs

  • Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and acidic drugs

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Which enzymes carry out phase II metabolism?

Select one of the following:

  • UDP - glucuronosyl transferases (UGTs)

  • Cytochrome P450 family

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

The half life of a drug is the time it takes for the concentration of the compound to reach 50% of its current value, what is the formula to calculate it?

Select one of the following:

  • Half life = 0.693 / Ke

  • Half life = 0.693 / CL

  • Half life = 0.963 / Ka

  • Half life = 0.936 / F

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Which of the following are correct when describing the cytochrome P450 enzyme family?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They are heme co-factor containing enzymes

  • They are individually referred to as isozymes

  • They are always found in the ER of the cell regardless of the organ/tissue

  • They are mainly found in the liver (hepatocytes) and intestines (enterocytes)

  • Enzyme inhibition = decreased metabolism and decreased drug exposure

  • Enzyme induction = increased gene transcription, increased metabolism and decreased drug exposure

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

What is the name given to the conjugation reaction that occurs with an endogenous substrate if phase I metabolites are too lipophilic to be retained in the kidney tubular fluid?

Select one of the following:

  • Glucuronidation

  • Acidification

  • Glucomodification

  • Metabolishment

  • Glomerular Filtration

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Which of the following compounds enter phase II metabolism directly?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Those containing -OH

  • Those containing -NH2

  • Those containing -COOH

  • Those containing -SS

  • Those containing -C2H6

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Which of the following systems involves NA as well as ACh?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sympathetic nervous system: short preganglionic nerves and long postganglionic nerves

  • Parasympathetic nervous system: long preganglionic nerves and short postganglionic nerves

  • Somatic nervous system: neuromuscular junction

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Which of the following are G protein linked (metabotropic) receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • muscarinic receptors (mACh) - M1,2,3 found in postganglionic parasympathetic synapses

  • nicotinic receptors (nACh) - Neuronal type found in the brain and autonomic ganglia

  • nicotinic receptors (nACh) - Muscle type found in the neuromuscular junction

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Which of the following causes nervous system confusion and are therefore not clinically useful?

Select one of the following:

  • Neuronal type nicotinic agonists and antagonists

  • Muscle type nicotinic agonists and antagonists

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Which of the following cause a depolarising block and can therefore be used in surgery to cause temporary paralysis?

Select one of the following:

  • Nicotinic agonists (muscle type)

  • Nicotinic antagonists (muscle type)

  • Nicotinic agonists (neuronal type)

  • Nicotinic antagonists (neuronal type)

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

The release of which neurotransmitter is blocked by botulinium toxin causing motor and parasympathetic paralysis?

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylcholine

  • Serotonin

  • Botulin

  • Noradrenaline

  • Adrenaline

  • Histamine

  • Dopamine

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

ACh metabolism by acetylcholineesterase is inhibited by what?

Select one of the following:

  • Neostigmine

  • Botulinium toxin

  • Choline

  • Acetyl hydroxylase

  • Lipolysis

  • Salbutamol

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

What are the enzymes involved in the conversion of Tyrosine to Noradrenaline?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tyrosine Hydroxylase

  • DOPA decarboxylase

  • DA -B-hydroxylase

  • Tyrosine decarboxylase

  • DA decarboxylase

  • L-DOPA Hydrogenase

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Which of the following are true about noradrenergic receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They exist as A1,2 and B1,2,3

  • They exist as A1,2,3 and B1,2

  • They are G protein coupled

  • They are tyrosine kinase receptors

  • They are found in the effector tissues of the sympathetic system

  • They are found in the effector tissues of the parasympathetic system

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Which of the following is a negative feedback presynaptic receptor?

Select one or more of the following:

  • A1 noradrenergic receptor

  • A2 noradrenergic receptor

  • B1 noradrenergic receptor

  • B2 noradrenergic receptor

  • B3 noradrenergic receptor

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

Which drug given subcut can prolong and isolate local anaesthesia and by what mechanism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Adrenaline by A1 mediated vasoconstriction

  • Adrenaline by B1 mediated vasoconstriction

  • Noradrenaline by A1 mediated vasodilation

  • Salbutamol bt A2 mediated vasoconstriction

  • Botulinium toxin by A1 mediated vasodilation

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Which of the following are noradrenergic agonists?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Clonidine - A2

  • Dobutamine - B1

  • Prazosin - A1

  • Salbutamol - B2

  • Atenolol - B1

  • Timolol - B2

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

What is the pathway of the false substrate that decreases overall noradrenergic neurotransmission?

Select one or more of the following:

  • meDOPA > meDA > meNA

  • meDOPA > meNA > meDA

  • L-DOPA > L-DA > L-NA

  • DA > DOPAC > HVA

  • Tyrosine > DOPA > DA > NA

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

What is the name of the drug that disrupts storage of NA in synaptic vesicles?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Reserpine

  • Dobutamine

  • Atenolol

  • MAOI

  • COMT

  • NA reuptake inhibitors

  • Neostigmine

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of airway smooth muscle?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Parasympathetic bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion

  • Circulating adrenaline causing bronchodilation

  • Nonadrenergic Noncholinergic transmitters e.g. inhibitory NO or excitatory substance P or neurokinin A

  • Sensory receptors - chemical and physical stimuli

  • Circulating dopamine causing broncoconstriction

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Which of the following is the delayed phase of asthma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bronchoconstriction

  • Inflammation/Damage in response to mediators

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Glucocorticoids suppress the immune system and therefore are good at treating the delayed phase of asthma. Which of the following do they decrease the production of?

Select one or more of the following:

  • LTC4, LTD4 - spasmogens

  • LTB4 - chemotaxins

  • PGE2, PGI2 vasodilators, cytokines

  • LTC4 - chemotaxins

  • LTB4, LTC4, - spasmogens

  • PGE5, PGL2, chemotaxins

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

Where is the cough centre located?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypothalamus

  • Oesophagus

  • Adrenal medulla

  • Cerebral cortex

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Which of the following are true of local anaesthetics?

Select one of the following:

  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
    2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
    3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
    4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
    5. Most are weak bases
    6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond

  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
    2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
    3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
    4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
    5. Most are weak bases
    6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds

  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
    2. Interact with B subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
    3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
    4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
    5. Most are weak acids
    6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond

  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated K+ channels
    2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
    3. Binds in the unionised (hydrophobic) form
    4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
    5. Most are weak bases
    6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Antidysrhythmic drugs treat disturbances of cardiac rhythm and consist of...

Select one of the following:

  • Class I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels

  • Class I blocking calcium channels and Class II blocking sodium channels

  • Class I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking potassium channels

  • Class I blocking potassium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

What do anticonvulsant drugs target?

Select one of the following:

  • Voltage gated sodium channels

  • Ligand gated sodium channels

  • Voltage gated potassium channels

  • G protein receptors

  • Tyrosine kinase receptors

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Which condition is categorised by the degeneration of DAergic neurones of the nigrostriatal tract and loss of DA transmission in striatum via D2 receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • Parkinson's disease

  • Depression

  • Paralysis

  • Psychosis

  • Hyperthyroidism

  • Cushing's syndrome

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Which of the following enzymes are found in the conversion of tyrosine to dopamine?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tyrosine hydroxylase

  • DOPA decarboxylase

  • DA B-hydroxylase

  • Tyrosine decarboxylase

  • DOPA hydroxylase

  • Carbonic Anhydrase

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

The metabolism of DA sees it converted to DOPAC and then HVA, catalysed by which enzymes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Monoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase

  • Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase, then Monoamine oxidase

  • Monoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Decarboxylase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Which of the following are true of DA receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They are G protein linked

  • They are ligand gated ion channels

  • D2-like receptors are inhibitory
    D1-like receptors are excitatory

  • D1-like receptors are inhibitory
    D2-like receptors are excitatory

  • Inhibitory receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels

  • Excitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase

  • Inhibitory receptors inhibit DOPA decarboxylase

  • Excitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

In the treatment of Parkinson's disease, giving L-DOPA and a decarboxylase inhibitor (carbidopa) would have what effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase dopamine

  • Decrease dopamine

  • Increase DOPA decarboxylase

  • Increase reuptake by DAT

  • Increase transport of DA into vesicles by VMAT

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

What is the name and action of a MAO inhibitor?

Select one of the following:

  • Selegiline - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles

  • Selegiline - inhibits MAO-B, decreasing the DA content of vesicles

  • Carbidopa - inhibits MAO-A, increasing the DA content of vesicles

  • Prazosin - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

Which of the following neural pathways are thought to be involved in the development of depression?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Locus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the mid brain and the hypothalamus, and the hippocampus and cortex

  • Dorsal and median raphe nuclei contain cell bodies with projections to the hypothalamus, hippocampus and cortex

  • Dorsal and median locus coeruleus contain cell bodies with projections to the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and adrenal medulla

  • Locus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the andrenal medulla, cortex, and dorsal ventricular brain centre

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Which of the following is the correct pathway for 5-HT synthesis?

Select one of the following:

  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT

  • Tryrosine (Tyrosine hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT

  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan decarboxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP hydroxylase) > 5-HT

  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTS (5-HTS decarboxlase) > 5-HT

  • Tryptophan (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HTP (5-HT hydroxylase) > 5-HT

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

What is the end product in the metabolism of 5-HT?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-HIAA

  • 5-HTP

  • Tryptophan

  • DA

  • NA

  • 5-HITP

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

What is the last enzyme involved in NA metabolism and what is the final product?

Select one of the following:

  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing MHPG

  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing DOPEG

  • Monoamine Oxidase producing MHPG

  • Aldehyde dehydrogenase producing 5-HIAA

  • Monoamine Oxidase producing DOPAC

  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing HVA

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Which of the following is a ligand gated ion channel?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-HT-3

  • 5-HT-1(A-F)

  • 5-HT-2(A-C)

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Which of the following autoreceptors can be found on the cell body?

Select one of the following:

  • NA A2 and 5-HT-1B

  • NA A2 and 5-HT-1A

  • NA A1 and 5-HT-1B

  • 5-HT-1A and 5-HT-1B

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

Which of the following is the action of oestrogen?

Select one of the following:

  • Sensitises LH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium, inhibits release of FSH

  • Renders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, LH and GRH

  • Inhibits GRH, sensitises FSH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium

  • Renders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, sensitises LH releasing cells

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Blocking of which hormones induces a pharmacological menopause?

Select one or more of the following:

  • FSH

  • LH

  • GRH

  • Progesterone

  • Oestrogen

  • human chorionic gonadotropin

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

What is the action of prolactin?

Select one of the following:

  • Released from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing GRH release

  • Released from hypothalamus, acts on anterior pituitary preventing GRH release

  • Released from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing FSH release

  • Released from hypothalamic nuclei, acts on mammary tissue preventing LH release

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Warmth

  • Pain

  • Oedema (swelling)

  • Erythema (redness)

  • Oedema (redness)

  • Erythema (swelling)

  • Inc dopamine

  • Dec immune response

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Which of the following are vasoactive mediators that will increase vascular permeability leading to oedema?

Select one or more of the following:

  • histamine

  • 5HT

  • Leukotrienes

  • Prostaglandins

  • Platelet activating factor (PAF)

  • C5a

  • LTB4

  • Cytokines

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

What do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) do?

Select one of the following:

  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids

  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids

  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of eicosanoids

  • stimulate cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids

  • stimulate cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Which of the following are actions of steroidal anti-inflammatories?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Dec synthesis of prostanoids through inhibition of phospholipase 2

  • Dec prostaglandin-H-synthase transcription

  • Dec cytokines

  • Inhibit cyclooxygenase activity

  • Suppression of the immune system

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Which of the following are true of histamine?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Synthesised from the amino acid Histidine

  • Synthesised from the amino acid tyrosine

  • Stored in granules in mast cells and basophils

  • Stored in vesicles in macrophages

  • Released by the complement system and IgEs

  • Released by IgMs

  • G protein coupled receptors: H1-4

  • Tyrosine Kinase receptors: H1-2

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

What is the meaning of selective toxicity?

Select one of the following:

  • Agents that destroy parasites while being relatively non-toxic to the host

  • Agents that destroy the majority of pathogens without disturbing host cells

  • Agents that selectively destroy particular parasites

  • Agents that can target cells of specific organs in order to kill tumour cells

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Which of the following is not a major class of antibiotics?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Penicillins

  • Sulphonamides

  • Fluoroquinolones

  • Macrolides

  • Tetracyclines

  • Quinolides

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Metastasis is the development of secondary malignant growths at a distance from a primary site of cancer

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Which of the following is false?

Select one of the following:

  • Platinum based drugs cross link DNA with other bases and proteins damaging it

  • Carboplatin has the same mechanism as cisplatin with fewer side effects

  • Daunorubicin is an antibiotic used to treat cancer, blocking the enzyme that normally untangles strands of DNA

  • The Philadelphia translocation results in the genes BCR and abl being joined, switching off cell division by activating other proteins

  • Imatinib inhibits the BCR-abl protein kinase

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

The Philadelphia translocation occurs on which chromosomes and in which disease?

Select one of the following:

  • 9 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

  • 9 and 23, Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

  • 9 and 22, Parkinsons

  • 8 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Which of the following species of malaria has the quickest onset and is the most severe?

Select one of the following:

  • P. falciparum

  • P. malarie

  • P. Vivax

  • P. Ovale

  • P. Sporozoa

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Which stage of the life cycle are plasmodiums at when they re-enter the liver and lay dormant?

Select one of the following:

  • Sporozoites

  • Gametocytes

  • Meterozoites

  • Trophozoites

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Drug therapy for malaria takes the forms of radical cure, clinical cure and prophylaxis. Which of the following is not a category of anti-malarial drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • 4-aminoquinolines

  • Quinine-methanols

  • 8-aminoquinolines

  • Antifolates

  • Hydroxynapthoquinone

  • Macrolides

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose longer than one hour after ingestion?

Select one of the following:

  • Activated charcoal

  • N-acetylcysteine (NAC)

  • Glutathione infusion

  • Sulphate bypass

  • Glucuronidation

  • NAPQI

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

A secondary adverse effect of a drug is indirectly caused, secondary to the drug

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

Who is least at risk of adverse drug reactions?

Select one of the following:

  • Adults

  • Neonates

  • Children

  • Elderly

  • People on medication

  • Females

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

Which of the following are correct?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Type A drug reaction: Augmented pharmacological effect

  • Type B drug reaction: Basic - predictable on basis of pharmacology of the drug

  • Type C drug reaction: Chronic effects - occur after prolonged treatment

  • Type D drug reaction: Delayed, effects occur remote from treatment (or in the child of the treated)

  • Type E drug reaction: Expected - common side effects of a drug

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Addiction imbalances involve which two areas of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Amygdala (Impulsive)

  • Pefrontal cortex (Reflective)

  • Prefrontal cortex (Impulsive)

  • Amygdala (Reflective)

  • Hypothalamus (Impulsive)

  • Anterior pituitary (Reflective)

  • Hypothalamus (Reflective)

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Which of the following are correct when measuring addiction?

Select one or more of the following:

  • There are a total of 11 addictive traits on the scale

  • There are a total of 9 addictive traits on the scale

  • Mild = 2/3 symptoms

  • Mild = 1-4 symptoms

  • Moderate = 4/5 symptoms

  • Moderate = 5/6 symptoms

  • Severe = 6+ symptoms

  • Severe = 7+ symptoms

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

ADH is released from the posterior pituitary in response to low blood volume/pressure or high osmolarity and acts upon the kidney to cause water reabsorption, increasing blood volume

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Which form of diabetes is categorised by copius hypotonic urine resulting from decreased ADH secretion?

Select one of the following:

  • Diabetes Mellitus

  • Diabetes Insipidus

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Which parts of the brain does cortisol have negative feedback on and what effect does this have on the hormones they produce?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypothalamic nuclei, decreasing CRH
    Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH

  • Hypothalamic nuclei, decreasing ACTH
    Anterior pituitary, decreasing CRH

  • Adrenal cortex, decreasing CRH
    Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH

  • Anterior Pituitary, decreasing CRH
    Adrenal Cortex, decreasing ACTH

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Which of the following are under tropic control?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ADH

  • ACTH

  • Cortisol

  • CRH

  • Insulin

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Which of the following are actions of cortisol?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Inc. and maintains normal glucose levels in blood

  • Dec. protein synthesis

  • Inc. gluconeogenesis

  • Dec. glucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue

  • Inc. protein synthesis and dec. lipolysis

  • Inc. glucogenolysis

  • Dec. and maintain glucose levels in the blood

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

Which of the following inhibits cortisol synthesis by blocking 11B-hydroxylating enzyme?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Metyrapone

  • Albumin

  • Creatinine

  • Neostigmine

  • Reserpine

  • COMT

  • Glucocorticoids

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

What is the definition of tropic control?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hormone released in response to stimulation from another hormone

  • Hormone released directly in response to neural stimulation

  • Hormone directly influenced by circulating blood levels of substrate that the hormone itself controls

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

What do sulphonylureas do?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Increase insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

  • Increase insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing hyperpolarisation)

  • Decrease insulin secretion from A cells by opening K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

  • Decrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking Na-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

  • Decrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

If there is fertilisation of the egg, what hormone does the ovum secrete?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Human chorionic gonadotrophin

  • Progesterone

  • Oestrogen

  • FSH

  • LH

  • GRH

  • Human chorionic gonadotrophin and oestrogen

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

Which of the following drugs are used to aid fertility?

Select one or more of the following:

  • GRH agonists

  • GRH antagonists

  • Mefipristone

  • Oestrogen and progesterone pill

  • FSH agonists

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Which of the following innate responses to inflammation occurs 8hrs-6days after injury?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Systemic effects

  • Microvascular events

  • Mediator release

  • Healing

  • Inflammatory cell accumulation

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

What is the purpose of chemotactic factors e.g. C5a, LTB4, Cytokines?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Recruitment of inflammatory cells leading to inflammation

  • Increased vascular permeability

  • Dilation of arterioles increasing blood flow to site

  • Constriction of venules decreasing blood flow away from site

  • Production of oedema

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Monocytes arrive before leucocytes and transform into macrophages, producing mediators, removing microorganisms/debris and secreting lipocortin

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

What do vascular endothelial cells secrete that causes the smooth muscle in the area of inflammation to relax?

Select one of the following:

  • NO

  • Noradrenaline

  • Acetylcholine

  • Leukotrienes

  • Eicosanoids

  • PAF

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

NSAIDS preferentially target PGHS1

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

What is a short term side effect of glucocorticoid therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Cushing's syndrome

  • Hyperglycemia

  • Hypoglycemia

  • Hypertension

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Gastric acid secretion is coupled with which histamine receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • H1

  • H2

  • H3

  • H4

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Which of the following is an action that both H3 and H4 receptors share?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease intracellular cAMP

  • Increase intracellular cAMP

  • Activate proton pump

  • Adenyl cyclase coupled

  • Phospholipase C coupled

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Which of the following are associated with Penicillin's?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Examples include: Ampicillin, Amoxycillin (developed to have an improved duration)

  • Examples include: Ciprofloxacin and Streptogramins

  • Early forms were effective against gram positives and only a few gram negatives

  • Early forms were effective against gram negatives and gram positives

  • Expanded spectrum versions are effective against pseudomonads

  • Reversed spectrum versions have greater activity on gram positives

  • Can exist in B-lactamase resistant forms (Fludoxacillin)

  • Excreted by the kidney in levels that can be reduced by probenecid

  • Excreted in the bile in levels that can be increased by N-acetylglucosamine

  • Inhibit transpeptidases that establish cross links in peptidoglycan from N-acetylmuramic acid causing bacteria to swell and rupture (bacteriocidal)

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

Which of the following are true of sulphonamides?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Selectively targets metabolic pathways: Folate biosynthesis

  • Targets prokaryotic ribosomes and protein synthesis

  • Bacteriocidal

  • The normal substrate the drugs block is PABA

  • Their use is declining outside dentistry

  • Oral administration is given as protected tablets to prevent them being inactivated by gastric juice

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Which of the following are Tetracyclines?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bacteriostatic

  • Half life of 30-80 minutes

  • Half life of 6-18 hours

  • Use is declining outside of dentistry

  • Excreted in the kidney and the bile

  • Interrupts the termination phase of protein synthesis in bacterial ribosomes

  • Don't usually enter the CSF (unless meninges inflammation)

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Which of the following is true of fluoroquinolones?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They are based on naladixic acid

  • Target DNA replication via type II topoisomerases

  • Examples include ciprofloxacin

  • Target protein synthesis

  • Inhibitor of CYP1A2

  • Inhibits DNA gyrase in gram positives and DNA topoisomerase IV in gram negatives

  • Examples include streptogramins and lincosamides

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

Which of the following is true of macrolides?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Streptogramins such as erythromycin are effective for gram positives and spirochaetes but not gram negatives

  • Lincosamides such as clindamycin are effective for gram positive cocci and anaerobes

  • Target 30S ribosomal subunit

  • Block translocation of newly forming peptide by binding to site near RNA exit tunnel causing peptidyl-transferase RNA drop off

  • Administered IV to bypass metabolism in the stomach

  • Administered orally in protected tablets

  • Excreted in the kidneys

  • Crosses the placenta but not the blood brain barrier

  • Do not enter the CSF

  • Metabolised by demethylation (CYP3A4)

Explanation

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