Pat Dunn
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Quiz on Psychology final exam, created by Pat Dunn on 11/08/2015.

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Psychology final exam

Question 1 of 132

1

According to research findings, the most probable explanation of malingering is captured by:

Select one of the following:

  • a pathogenic model

  • a criminological model

  • an adaptational model

  • an antisocial model

Explanation

Question 2 of 132

1

In general, how accurate do people tend to be when using verbal and non-verbal behaviour to detect deception (where a value of 100% indicates that they can accurately discriminate between truthful people and deceptive people all of the time)?

Select one of the following:

  • under 10%

  • between 25% and 35%

  • between 45% and 65%

  • around 25%

Explanation

Question 3 of 132

1

Which nonverbal cue has consistently been found to indicate deception?

Select one of the following:

  • smiling

  • gaze aversion

  • self-manipulations (e.g., fidgeting)

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 4 of 132

1

Which of the following techniques has not been proposed as a method of detecting deception?

Select one of the following:

  • ERPs

  • fMRI

  • polygraph

  • TAT

Explanation

Question 5 of 132

1

A patient who actually has schizophrenia denies his auditory hallucinations when questioned by doctors. This patient is likely exhibiting:

Select one of the following:

  • defensiveness

  • Munchausen syndrome by proxy

  • factitious disorder

  • somatoform disorder

Explanation

Question 6 of 132

1

Which verbal indicator has been most strongly associated with deception?

Select one of the following:

  • speech fillers

  • voice pitch

  • speech pauses

  • speech errors (e.g., slips of the tongue)

Explanation

Question 7 of 132

1

A Polygraph test may be used to:

Select one of the following:

  • Verify a crime has occurred (victim is asked to take a polygraph test, which is rarely done)

  • Screen pre-employment candidates for security agencies and police

  • Verify insurance claims

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 8 of 132

1

"During the first 20 years of your life, did you ever think of seriously hurting someone?" This is an example of what type of polygraph question?

Select one of the following:

  • a relevant question

  • an irrelevant question

  • a concealed information question

  • a comparison question

Explanation

Question 9 of 132

1

Which of the following is true of the polygraph?

Select one of the following:

  • Polygraph results are regularly admitted as evidence in Canadian courts.

  • The most common polygraph method used currently is the Comparison Question Test (CQT).

  • The polygraph directly measures whether a person is lying.

  • Research indicates that physical countermeasures are largely ineffective in "beating" the polygraph.

Explanation

Question 10 of 132

1

Most polygraph examiners using the Comparison Question Test (CQT) score according to the:

Select one of the following:

  • suspect's demeanour during the test

  • information from the case file

  • physiological responses

  • suspect's past criminal record

Explanation

Question 11 of 132

1

When using brain-based polygraph techniques, what does ERP stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • emotional response pattern

  • event response pattern

  • event-related brain potential

  • emotional-related brain potential

Explanation

Question 12 of 132

1

You have been falsely accused of stealing a laptop computer from a professor's office. The police have requested that you take a polygraph test to prove your innocence. In light of your knowledge of the types of errors most likely to be made by different types of polygraph exams, you agree to do so only if the examiner uses the:

Select one of the following:

  • comparison question test

  • relevant/irrelevant test

  • zone of comparison format of scoring

  • concealed information test

Explanation

Question 13 of 132

1

Several types of studies may be used to validate polygraph techniques. Which type of study would likely involve a comparison of the accuracy between original examiners and blind evaluators, using actual criminal suspects?

Select one of the following:

  • field analogue study

  • laboratory study

  • ground truth study

  • field study

Explanation

Question 14 of 132

1

Which of the following statements is true regarding the detection of deception?

Select one of the following:

  • People are generally better at detecting truth than detecting lies.

  • High-stake lies are easier to detect than low-stake lies.

  • Many professionals (e.g., police officers) are no better than detecting deception than the general population.

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 15 of 132

1

What has been identified as a major problem particular to the Comparison Question Test (CQT)?

Select one of the following:

  • high false-negative rate

  • high false-positive rate

  • the use of extra-polygraph cues by the examiner

  • falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent

Explanation

Question 16 of 132

1

The first polygraph test was developed by:

Select one of the following:

  • Stephen Porter

  • William Marston

  • James Frye

  • Hugo Munsterberg

Explanation

Question 17 of 132

1

Susan gives her infant son various medications to make him appear like he is suffering from an unknown illness, and takes him regularly to doctors and the emergency room to assess these fake symptoms. This is an example of what disorder of deception?

Select one of the following:

  • Munchausen syndrome by proxy

  • Malingering disorder

  • Somatoform disorder

  • Non-deceptive disorder

Explanation

Question 18 of 132

1

Which of the following is not measured by the polygraph test?

Select one of the following:

  • heart rate

  • galvanic skin response

  • micro facial expressions

  • breathing

Explanation

Question 19 of 132

1

Laboratory studies of polygraph techniques have limited application to real-life situations because:

Select one of the following:

  • Study participants have no real incentive to beat the polygraph

  • Study participants have no real fear if they fail a polygraph.

  • Study participants have no real-life stress to measure.

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 20 of 132

1

Which of the following is not a cue to malingered psychosis in criminal defendants?

Select one of the following:

  • hallucinations with delusions

  • understandable motive for committing crime

  • presence of a partner in the crime

  • visual hallucinations in black and white

Explanation

Question 21 of 132

1

According to your textbook, what is the most common physiological response measured when administering the Concealed Information Test (CIT)?

Select one of the following:

  • palmar sweating

  • heart rate

  • blood pressure

  • eye blinks

Explanation

Question 22 of 132

1

What disorder consists of symptoms that are not intentionally produced but cannot be explained by an underlying biological impairment?

Select one of the following:

  • Munchausen syndrome

  • malingering disorder

  • factitious disorder

  • somatoform disorder

Explanation

Question 23 of 132

1

What is one of the key components to malingering?

Select one of the following:

  • Symptoms are not intentionality produced.

  • There are only internal motivations for the production of symptoms.

  • There are external motivations for the production of symptoms.

  • Symptoms are produced in order to assume the sick role.

  • There is an absence of external incentives.

Explanation

Question 24 of 132

1

Which of the following has not been found effective as a countermeasure to "beat" the polygraph test?

Select one of the following:

  • tongue-biting

  • pressing toes on the floor

  • counting backwards

  • anti-anxiety drugs

Explanation

Question 25 of 132

1

Which of the following are potential applications of the polygraph in Canada?

Select one of the following:

  • Polygraph testing is used to screen prospective employees in certain agencies.

  • Polygraph results are used to pressure individuals to confess to a crime.

  • A polygraph test may be administered to verify insurance claims.

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 26 of 132

1

The Comparison Question Test has been criticized for:

Select one of the following:

  • being susceptible to countermeasures

  • having a high false–positive rate

  • assuming that innocent suspects will show larger responses to the comparison questions as compared to the relevant

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 27 of 132

1

According to the textbook, what is the primary issue surrounding the Neil v. Biggers (1972) case in relation to eyewitness accuracy?

Select one of the following:

  • the fact that the court stated that confidence of the witness should be seen as an indicator of accuracy

  • the fact that the witness was hypnotized and thus the information provided should not be admissible as accurate evidence in the trial

  • the fact that the witness was given a simultaneous rather than a sequential lineup

  • the fact that the witness was a child and thus the accuracy of her judgment was questionable

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 132

1

Which of the following statements is not correct concerning the outcome of hypnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • More information is recalled.

  • Participants report relatively more accurate information and less inaccurate information.

  • Participants express a high degree of confidence in their memory reports

  • It is not possible to determine which statements are erroneous and which are correct.

  • reinstating context, recalling, recognizing, and forgetting

  • Age regression can be a technique used in hypnosis.

Explanation

Question 29 of 132

1

The hypothesis that explains the cross-race effect in eyewitness testimony by suggesting that the more contact you have with other races the better you will be able to identify them is:

Select one of the following:

  • the interracial contact hypothesis

  • the cue-utilization hypothesis

  • the unusualness hypothesis

  • the prejudice hypothesis

  • the physiognomic homogeneity hypothesis

Explanation

Question 30 of 132

1

What is the major implication of the studies conducted on the misinformation effect in eyewitness research?

Select one of the following:

  • Memory is like a videotape.

  • Witnesses yield to authority

  • Memory is reconstructive.

  • Witnesses recall information accurately when under stress.

  • Memory typically gets better as witnesses get older.

Explanation

Question 31 of 132

1

On what four memory-retrieval techniques is the cognitive interview based?

Select one of the following:

  • reinstating context, reporting everything, reversing order, and changing perspective

  • reinstating context, recalling, recognizing, and answering questions

  • encoding, short-term memory, long-term memory, and retrieving

  • encoding, storing, retrieving, and forgetting

  • reinstating context, recalling, recognizing, and forgetting

Explanation

Question 32 of 132

1

What is not an advantage of using a photo array rather than a live lineup for eyewitness identification?

Select one of the following:

  • Photo arrays are easier to construct than live lineups.

  • Suspect does not have the right to counsel being present with a photo array, whereas he/she does have that right with a live lineup

  • Photo arrays produce higher identification accuracy than live lineups.

  • A suspect need not be informed that he/she is being placed in a photo array, whereas with a live lineup he/she must be so informed

  • The police do not have to worry about the suspect's behaviour potentially invalidating the lineup.

Explanation

Question 33 of 132

1

Which Canadian case involving poor police techniques in collecting eyewitness evidence resulted in a set of recommendations for conducting lineup identifications?

Select one of the following:

  • Neil v. Biggers

  • R. v. Sophonow

  • R. v. Brooks

  • R. v. Reno

  • Brooks v. Biggers

Explanation

Question 34 of 132

1

An eyewitness is shown a picture of an individual who the police think is responsible for a recent bank robbery. No other lineup photos are shown. The eyewitness is asked to state whether the person in the photograph is the same individual seen in the bank. What sort of lineup procedure is being used here?

Select one of the following:

  • a showup

  • a simultaneous lineup

  • a sequential lineup

  • a walk-by

  • an elimination lineup

Explanation

Question 35 of 132

1

What type of decision is not possible with a target-present lineup?

Select one of the following:

  • correct identification

  • foil identification

  • false rejection

  • false identification

  • All of the above are possible identification decisions with the target-present lineup.

Explanation

Question 36 of 132

1

Which of the following would be considered an estimator variable in eyewitness research?

Select one of the following:

  • how light it was outside when the crime was witnessed

  • the room where the witness was interviewed

  • the number of police officers present during the interview

  • the time of day when the witness was interviewed

  • the type of lineup presented to the witness

Explanation

Question 37 of 132

1

Which of the following is true regarding age and eyewitness identification?

Select one of the following:

  • Older adults are just as likely as younger adults to make a false positive decision from a target-absent lineup

  • Generally, there are significant differences between younger and older adults' ability to make correct identifications.

  • Younger and older eyewitnesses do not differ in their correct identification rate or false positive rate.

  • Overall, older adult eyewitnesses have more difficulty than younger adult eyewitnesses in making correct rejection decisions.

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 38 of 132

1

Susan is being questioned by police after she witnessed a man rob a convenience store. The police are asking her questions about the culprit's appearance, and she finds that all she can remember is that the man had a gun. What is the term used to describe this recall situation?

Select one of the following:

  • recall obstruction hypothesis

  • retrieval impairment hypothesis

  • weapon focus

  • central superiority hypothesis

  • peripheral inferiority effect

Explanation

Question 39 of 132

1

Approximately what percentage of wrongful conviction cases (exonerated through DNA evidence) have been attributed to eyewitness identification?

Select one of the following:

  • under 50%

  • 50-60%

  • 60-70%

  • about 75%

  • over 95%

Explanation

Question 40 of 132

1

Which of the following statements is true with respect to the cognitive interview and enhanced cognitive interview?

Select one of the following:

  • The enhanced cognitive interview incorporates all the elements of the cognitive interview.

  • Only some officers in Canada have been trained to use the cognitive interview

  • No significant differences have been found between the effectiveness of the cognitive interview and that of the enhanced cognitive interview.

  • Compared to the standard police interview, the cognitive interview and enhanced cognitive interview produce more accurate information without an increase in inaccurate information.

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 41 of 132

1

Describing the actions of a culprit during a police interview relies on ______________, while identifying the culprit's voice from a set of voices relies on __________________.

Select one of the following:

  • narrative memory/refreshed memory

  • recall memory/recognition memory

  • natural memory/prompted memory

  • open-ended memory/direct question memory

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 42 of 132

1

Which of the following would be considered a system variable in eyewitness research?

Select one of the following:

  • whether the witness is intoxicated at the time of the offence

  • the age of the witness

  • the type of weapon used by the culprit

  • the interview procedure used by the police officer

  • the time at which the crime was committed

Explanation

Question 43 of 132

1

What is the difference between a suspect and a culprit?

Select one of the following:

  • The terms suspect and culprit can be used interchangeably; they mean the same thing.

  • suspect is innocent and a culprit is guilty.

  • A suspect is guilty and a culprit is innocent

  • A suspect can be guilty or innocent whereas a culprit is guilty.

  • A suspect is innocent and a culprit can be innocent or guilty.

Explanation

Question 44 of 132

1

What is the most common research method for studying eyewitness issues?

Select one of the following:

  • field study

  • archival research

  • laboratory simulation study

  • recall study

  • recognition study

Explanation

Question 45 of 132

1

Overall, there is ______________ between the accuracy and the confidence of an eyewitness in the identification of a culprit.

Select one of the following:

  • a large positive correlation

  • a small positive correlation

  • no correlation

  • a small negative correlation

  • a large negative correlation

Explanation

Question 46 of 132

1

What typically happens when the eyewitness is told that the culprit may or may not be present in the lineup?

Select one of the following:

  • False positive identifications increase.

  • False positive identifications decrease.

  • Correct identifications increase

  • Correct identifications decrease

  • These instructions have no impact on identifications.

Explanation

Question 47 of 132

1

Which of the following topics seems to be of the LEAST interest to social psychologists?

Select one of the following:

  • discrimination

  • persuasion

  • personality

  • attraction

Explanation

Question 48 of 132

1

Sarah finds Charlie physically attractive. Because of _______________, she also sees him as personable and interesting.

Select one of the following:

  • the low-ball effect

  • a dispositional attribution

  • the halo effect

  • the matching hypothesis

Explanation

Question 49 of 132

1

Why is it that proximity is related to friendship formation?

Select one of the following:

  • We usually avoid attributing negative traits to people who are close at hand.

  • We are more likely to make contact with persons who are close at hand.

  • We are usually similar to people who are close at hand

  • We tend to perceive people who are close at hand as physically attractive.

Explanation

Question 50 of 132

1

With a well-informed audience, which of the following arguments is likely to be the most persuasive?

Select one of the following:

  • simplistic

  • one-sided

  • peripheral

  • two-sided

Explanation

Question 51 of 132

1

Behaviour that is aimed at helping others and requires some self-sacrifice is termed:

Select one of the following:

  • altruism.

  • non-normative helping.

  • normative helping

  • prosocial sacrifice.

Explanation

Question 52 of 132

1

The compliance technique in which a person who agrees to a small request is then presented with a larger request is:

Select one of the following:

  • the foot-in-the-door technique

  • the bandwagon technique.

  • the skyrocket technique

  • the door-in-the-face technique.

Explanation

Question 53 of 132

1

In the classic experiment conducted by Solomon Asch, the people who provided the pressure to conform would be called the:

Select one of the following:

  • experimenters.

  • naive subjects.

  • social loafers.

  • confederates.

Explanation

Question 54 of 132

1

In the classic experiment conducted by Solomon Asch, the people who provided the pressure to conform would be called the:

Select one of the following:

  • experimenters.

  • naive subjects

  • social loafers.

  • confederates.

Explanation

Question 55 of 132

1

The tendency to put forth less effort when working with others on a common task than when working alone is called:

Select one of the following:

  • social loafing

  • group polarization.

  • social inaction

  • social facilitation.

Explanation

Question 56 of 132

1

The mere-exposure effect is most strongly related to:

Select one of the following:

  • discrimination.

  • persuasion.

  • attraction.

  • prejudice

Explanation

Question 57 of 132

1

The blocking of an impulse or interference with the attainment of a goal is defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • crowding.

  • antisocial behaviour.

  • frustration.

  • aggression.

Explanation

Question 58 of 132

1

Which theory of prejudice is based on the idea that people tend to form in-groups and out-groups?

Select one of the following:

  • social cognitive theory

  • us versus them theory

  • social learning theory

  • realistic conflict theory

Explanation

Question 59 of 132

1

When it comes to attraction, the concept of reciprocal liking refers to the fact that:

Select one of the following:

  • people tend to be attracted to others who are at their same level of physical attractiveness.

  • people tend to like those whom they believe like them.

  • people tend to be attracted to attractive-looking people.

  • sometimes people dislike others before they start to like them.

Explanation

Question 60 of 132

1

The Stanford Prison Experiment conducted by Zimbardo demonstrated the powerful influence of

Select one of the following:

  • poverty.

  • money.

  • social class.

  • social roles.

Explanation

Question 61 of 132

1

Because of the bystander effect,

Select one of the following:

  • people are likely to demonstrate social loafing.

  • Kitty Genovese got help when she needed it.

  • participants in Milgram’s experiment obeyed.

  • you would be better off if only one person rather than many people witnessed you in need of help.

Explanation

Question 62 of 132

1

The matching hypothesis suggests

Select one of the following:

  • that opposites attract

  • a talkative person may seek a quiet mate who prefers to listen.

  • we are likely to end up with someone similar to ourselves in attractiveness and other assets

  • couples mismatched on attractiveness and other assets have relationships as long-lasting as other couples.

Explanation

Question 63 of 132

1

The social learning theory of aggression emphasizes all of the following except that

Select one of the following:

  • when aggressive responses are reinforced, they are more likely to continue.

  • aggressive responses are learned from the family, the subculture, and the media.

  • most aggression results from frustration.

  • aggressive responses are learned through modelling.

Explanation

Question 64 of 132

1

Audience effects and co-action effects are two concepts related to

Select one of the following:

  • obedience to authority.

  • social facilitation.

  • social loafing.

  • bystander apathy

Explanation

Question 65 of 132

1

Which of the following is an accurate statement about the primacy effect?

Select one of the following:

  • the primacy effect continues to influence later impressions by becoming the framework through which other information is accepted or disregarded.

  • The primacy effect only affects initial impressions and has no bearing on later information that is gathered.

  • The primacy effect is a very small effect on impression formation

  • Once the primacy effect exists, people become most interested in information that is inconsistent with this initial impression.

Explanation

Question 66 of 132

1

Social psychology is the area in psychology that focuses on

Select one of the following:

  • human growth and development through across the lifespan.

  • the influence of other people on our emotions, thoughts and behaviour.

  • inner psychological conflicts which determine our personality.

  • the study of emotion and motivation.

Explanation

Question 67 of 132

1

Which of the following kinds of attributions do we tend to make more often for our own behaviour?

Select one of the following:

  • dispositional

  • internal

  • situational

  • unbiased

Explanation

Question 68 of 132

1

Which of the following statements is true of first impressions?

Select one of the following:

  • They are not particularly important nor should they influence us.

  • They act as a framework to interpret later information.

  • They are usually correct and require our full awareness.

  • They cannot be changed without a new first impression.

Explanation

Question 69 of 132

1

Usually people are attracted to others who are

Select one of the following:

  • opposites of them.

  • either similar or opposite

  • intellectually similar but physically dissimilar.

  • similar to them.

Explanation

Question 70 of 132

1

After their favourite team lost an important football game, a group of fans discussed means of retribution. Ultimately, they decided to break into and vandalize the opposing team’s locker room. They were subsequently arrested for doing so. This incident occurred because of the unfortunate effect of:

Select one of the following:

  • the mere-exposure effect.

  • group polarization.

  • the cohesion tendency

  • groupthink.

Explanation

Question 71 of 132

1

A strategy to gain compliance by making a very attractive initial offer to get a person to agree to an action and then making the terms less favourable is the

Select one of the following:

  • door-in-the-face technique.

  • obedience technique.

  • low-ball technique.

  • foot-in-the-door technique.

Explanation

Question 72 of 132

1

Conformity is to norm as:

Select one of the following:

  • group is to individual

  • change is to standards.

  • group is to culture.

  • standards are to change

Explanation

Question 73 of 132

1

When we attribute our own or another's behaviour to some external factor rather than to an internal cause, we are making a

Select one of the following:

  • dispositional attribution.

  • fundamental attribution error.

  • situational attribution.

  • false attribution

Explanation

Question 74 of 132

1

Students often report that when they work in a group, someone will not do their part to complete the group project. The person not doing enough to help the group is engaged in:

Select one of the following:

  • social loafing.

  • social facilitation.

  • group polarization

  • social inaction.

Explanation

Question 75 of 132

1

The results of which study were most relevant to the contact hypothesis?

Select one of the following:

  • Sherif and Sherif’s Robbers Cave experiment

  • Asch’s conformity experiment

  • Zimbardo’s prison study

  • Milgram’s obedience experiment

Explanation

Question 76 of 132

1

The subjects in Milgram’s classic study were told that they were participating in:

Select one of the following:

  • a pain-perception experiment.

  • a learning experiment

  • an attribution experiment.

  • an obedience experiment

Explanation

Question 77 of 132

1

Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) share many of the same features. However, APD places more emphasis on:

Select one of the following:

  • antisocial behaviours

  • emotional deficits

  • gender

  • cognitive skills

Explanation

Question 78 of 132

1

Robert's parents feel he exhibits reckless behaviour, irresponsibility, and lack of remorse. Robert has been this way since birth, and his parents feel he has a difficult temperament. Robert might have:

Select one of the following:

  • psychopathy

  • avoidant personality disorder

  • affective disorder

  • borderline personality disorder

  • psychosis

Explanation

Question 79 of 132

1

The terms "psychopathy" and "sociopathy" are:

Select one of the following:

  • the same

  • completely unrelated

  • always used interchangeably

  • related but distinct concepts

Explanation

Question 80 of 132

1

According to Hare (1993) we are more likely to _____________ than be murdered by a psychopath.

Select one of the following:

  • lose our life savings to a psychopath

  • fall in love with a psychopath

  • work with a psychopath

  • be tricked by a psychopath

  • become friends with a psychopath

Explanation

Question 81 of 132

1

A diagnosis of psychopathy does fulfill the disease of the mind requirement but it has never fulfilled the second requirement of:

Select one of the following:

  • knowing the victim

  • not appreciating the nature or quality of the act

  • previously having been committed in a psychiatric institute

  • having spent a night in a psychiatric facility

Explanation

Question 82 of 132

1

Psychopaths differ from other offenders in what way?

Select one of the following:

  • They begin their criminal careers younger.

  • They persist longer.

  • Their use of violence lacks an emotional aspect.

  • They commit a greater variety of violent offenses.

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 83 of 132

1

Psychopathic rapists are more likely to be:

Select one of the following:

  • emotionally driven

  • anxious

  • opportunistic and vindictive

  • disorganized

Explanation

Question 84 of 132

1

In the Cambridge Study in Delinquent Development, _________ of offenders scoring10 or more on the PCL:SV had been convicted of an offense

Select one of the following:

  • 5%

  • 27%

  • 57%

  • 97%

Explanation

Question 85 of 132

1

In a study examining treatment outcomes in youth with high scores on the Psychopathy Checklist: Youth Version, the youth who received treatment in a correctional centre had:

Select one of the following:

  • lower reoffending rates than youth treated in a treatment centre

  • lower violent reoffending rates than youth treated in a treatment centre

  • twice the reoffending rates of youth treated in a treatment centre

  • twice the violent reoffending rates of youth treated in a treatment centre

Explanation

Question 86 of 132

1

_____ of offenders can be classified as psychopaths

Select one of the following:

  • 1%–10%

  • 10%–25%

  • 30%–35%

  • 40%–50%

Explanation

Question 87 of 132

1

The best research design to determine the extent to which family experiences influence the development of psychopathic traits is:

Select one of the following:

  • prospective longitudinal studies

  • retrospective studies

  • cross-sectional studies

  • experimental

Explanation

Question 88 of 132

1

Hervey Cleckley's book ____________________ provided one of the most extensive clinical descriptions of psychopaths.

Select one of the following:

  • The Psychopath

  • Evil People

  • The Mask of Sanity

  • Master Manipulator

Explanation

Question 89 of 132

1

Which Canadian researcher developed the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised?

Select one of the following:

  • Olson

  • Cleckley

  • Patrick

  • Hare

  • Hart

Explanation

Question 90 of 132

1

Psychopathic traits in youth are related to __________ but not _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • depression and anxiety; IQ scores and education

  • IQ scores and education; depression and anxiety

  • depression and anxiety; violence and aggression

  • delinquency and aggression; depression and anxiety

Explanation

Question 91 of 132

1

Factor 2 is most strongly related to reoffending, substance abuse, lack of education, and:

Select one of the following:

  • Emotional processing deficits

  • Predatory violence

  • Poor treatment response

  • Poor family background

Explanation

Question 92 of 132

1

The relatively small number of psychopaths account for:

Select one of the following:

  • relatively small amount of crime

  • relatively small amount of violent crime

  • proportionate amount of crime

  • disproportionately large amount of crime

Explanation

Question 93 of 132

1

If an individual scored between 20 and 30 on the PCL-R, what would we classify them?

Select one of the following:

  • psychopath

  • mixed group

  • nonpsychopath

  • average

Explanation

Question 94 of 132

1

Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) is given when there is evidence of conduct disorder before the age of 15 and:

Select one of the following:

  • a chronic pattern of disregarding the rights of others since age 2

  • a chronic pattern of disregarding the rights of others since age 15

  • a chronic pattern of rule violation since age 2

  • a chronic pattern of rule violation since age 15

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 95 of 132

1

The two theories of psychopathy are:

Select one of the following:

  • Response modulation deficit; affective theory

  • Startle-blink response; affective theory

  • Response modulation deficit; startle-blink response

  • Antisocial process screening; startle-blink response

Explanation

Question 96 of 132

1

In an experiment measuring cheating behaviours and psychopathy, the best predictor of cheating was:

Select one of the following:

  • low scores on the Self-Report Psychopathy Scale

  • low scores on the Psychopathy Checklist Revised

  • high scores on the Self-Report Psychopathy Scale

  • high scores on the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised

  • high scores on both the Self-Report Psychopathy Scale and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised

Explanation

Question 97 of 132

1

In a study examining the use of instrumental motives, psychopaths engaged in instrumental murder in ______ of cases:

Select one of the following:

  • 93%

  • 77%

  • 50%

  • 34%

Explanation

Question 98 of 132

1

Olver and Wong (2009) found that psychopathic offenders who remained in treatment were:

Select one of the following:

  • more likely to violently reoffend

  • more likely to manipulate prison staff

  • less likely to violently reoffend

  • likely not to show any treatment gains

Explanation

Question 99 of 132

1

The most widely used self-report questionnaire to assess psychopathy are:

Select one of the following:

  • Psychopathic Personality Inventory-Revised

  • Self-Report Psychopathy Scale

  • Psychopathic Personality Inventory-Revised and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised

  • Psychopathic Personality Inventory-Revised and the Self-Report Psychopathy Scale

Explanation

Question 100 of 132

1

Which of the following is not a function of the amygdala?

Select one of the following:

  • memory

  • decision making

  • language

  • defence reactions

Explanation

Question 101 of 132

1

In a study measuring psychopathy in a sample of community members ____ of these individuals scored zero on the PCL-SV.

Select one of the following:

  • 10%

  • 19%

  • 44%

  • 71%

Explanation

Question 102 of 132

1

The "faint hope clause" allows offenders convicted of murder to:

Select one of the following:

  • be released from prison after serving 5 years of their sentence

  • apply for parole before their eligibility date

  • apply for appeals

  • make special dietary request in prison

Explanation

Question 103 of 132

1

At least one major study has suggested that the higher rate of depression in women is largely due to:

Select one of the following:

  • social and cultural factors

  • genetic predisposition

  • chemical imbalances.

  • men suppressing their own depression.

Explanation

Question 104 of 132

1

Experts believe that most phobias are caused by

Select one of the following:

  • learning or observation of others

  • generalized anxiety.

  • psychodynamic conflict.

  • conformity to social expectations

Explanation

Question 105 of 132

1

____________________ disorders provide a mental escape from intolerable circumstances.

Select one of the following:

  • Somatoform

  • Anxiety

  • Dissociative

  • Post-traumatic stress

Explanation

Question 106 of 132

1

Although the term neurosis has not been used officially since 1980, it applied to people who

Select one of the following:

  • suffered from personal discomfort and distress and some impairment in functioning

  • lost touch with reality.

  • violated important social norms.

  • were more disturbed than those suffering from a psychosis

Explanation

Question 107 of 132

1

Delusions of grandeur and persecution are symptoms of:

Select one of the following:

  • dissociation disorder

  • anxiety disorder.

  • schizophrenic disorder.

  • panic disorder.

Explanation

Question 108 of 132

1

“Positive” symptoms of schizophrenia are so-called because they are:

Select one of the following:

  • present.

  • easy to treat.

  • diagnostic of the disorder.

  • desirable.

Explanation

Question 109 of 132

1

Which of the following does not describe people with antisocial personality disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • They fear punishment.

  • They are irresponsible.

  • They seldom feel guilt

  • They are selfish.

Explanation

Question 110 of 132

1

Connie adopts ritualistic behaviours to help reduce anxiety that occurs when unwanted thoughts intrude into her awareness. Connie is displaying symptoms of

Select one of the following:

  • obsessive-compulsive disorder.

  • dissociative disorder.

  • histrionic personality disorder.

  • conversion disorder.

Explanation

Question 111 of 132

1

The two major types of mood disorders are:

Select one of the following:

  • seasonal affective disorders and negative symptom disorders

  • manic disorders and depressive disorders.

  • depressive disorders and bipolar disorders.

  • major depressive disorders and secondary mood disorders.

Explanation

Question 112 of 132

1

Brigit is afraid to leave her house. She rarely goes outside, even just to check her mail. Her sister needs to drive her to the local supermarket for shopping, but even with this assistance, Brigit is very uncomfortable. Given these symptoms, it appears that Brigit suffers from

Select one of the following:

  • panic attacks

  • major depression.

  • social phobia.

  • agoraphobia.

Explanation

Question 113 of 132

1

Obsessions involve a

Select one of the following:

  • persistent, irresistible, irrational urge to perform an act or ritual repeatedly.

  • generalized feeling of apprehension, fear, or tension that may be associated with a particular object or situation.

  • sudden loss of conscious and a failure to recall what took place during the episode.

  • persistent recurring involuntary thought, image, or impulse that invades consciousness and causes great distress.

Explanation

Question 114 of 132

1

Which of the following is not true of people suffering from a psychosis?

Select one of the following:

  • They have seriously impaired functioning in everyday life.

  • They rarely lose contact with reality.

  • They sometimes require hospitalization for their disorder.

  • They may have delusions or hallucinations

Explanation

Question 115 of 132

1

Lenora tends to perceive every event as negative. If the phone rings, she thinks it’s a salesperson trying to bother her. If it doesn’t ring, she thinks no one cares about her. These negative interpretations are at the root of her depression, according to the

Select one of the following:

  • psychodynamic perspective

  • social perspective

  • cognitive perspective

  • learning perspective.

Explanation

Question 116 of 132

1

Panic disorder, phobias, and obsessive-compulsive disorder are types of

Select one of the following:

  • somatoform disorders

  • anxiety disorders.

  • dissociative disorders.

  • mood disorders.

Explanation

Question 117 of 132

1

People suffering from a(n) _________________ disorder lack normal empathic responses.

Select one of the following:

  • antisocial personality

  • phobic

  • sleep

  • eating

Explanation

Question 118 of 132

1

The facial expressions, tone of voice, and gestures of people who suffer from schizophrenia often do not fit the situation. This is called

Select one of the following:

  • negative symptoms.

  • flatness of affect.

  • inappropriate affect.

  • delusional behaviour.

Explanation

Question 119 of 132

1

Pamela suffers from a rare disorder in which two distinct personalities exist, each dominating at particular times. The condition Pamela is suffering is called

Select one of the following:

  • conversion disorder.

  • dissociative identity disorder.

  • dissociative amnesia.

  • schizophrenia.

Explanation

Question 120 of 132

1

Low levels of serotonin and norepinephrine are believed to be connected to:

Select one of the following:

  • depression.

  • panic attacks.

  • paraphilias.

  • delusions

Explanation

Question 121 of 132

1

People who are convinced that every mole is skin cancer and every heart palpitation is a heart attack are most likely suffering from:

Select one of the following:

  • hypochondriasis

  • agoraphobia.

  • panic attacks

  • dysthymia

Explanation

Question 122 of 132

1

Which of the following perspectives suggests that faulty thinking or distorted perceptions contribute to some types of psychological disorders

Select one of the following:

  • The learning perspective

  • The biological perspective

  • The cognitive perspective

  • The humanistic perspective

Explanation

Question 123 of 132

1

People who experience excessive anxiety or worries that they find difficult to control are suffering from a:

Select one of the following:

  • panic attack

  • generalized anxiety disorder.

  • phobia.

  • compulsive disorder.

Explanation

Question 124 of 132

1

A disorder characterized by periods of extreme depression or mania is a ______________ disorder.

Select one of the following:

  • dissociative

  • mood

  • personality

  • somatoform

Explanation

Question 125 of 132

1

Personality disorders from cluster B (including borderline and narcissistic) involve:

Select one of the following:

  • erratic, overly dramatic behaviour.

  • anxious, fearful behaviour.

  • odd behaviour.

  • depressed, withdrawn behaviour.

Explanation

Question 126 of 132

1

Personality disorders from cluster B (including borderline and narcissistic) involve

Select one of the following:

  • erratic, overly dramatic behaviour.

  • anxious, fearful behaviour.

  • odd behaviour.

  • depressed, withdrawn behaviour.

Explanation

Question 127 of 132

1

According to the criteria for defining abnormal behaviour, when a behaviour interferes with the quality of a person’s life, then it is considered:

Select one of the following:

  • dangerous to the person or to other people

  • a symptom of insanity.

  • maladaptive.

  • unusual in all cultures around the world.

Explanation

Question 128 of 132

1

What is the term for an irrational fear and avoidance of situations in which people believe they might embarrass or humiliate themselves by appearing clumsy, foolish, or incompetent?

Select one of the following:

  • Social phobia

  • Specific phobia

  • Agoraphobia

  • Complex phobia

Explanation

Question 129 of 132

1

The view that schizophrenia develops from both genetic predisposition and excessive stress is called

Select one of the following:

  • the dopamine activity model.

  • the causal model of schizophrenia.

  • the diathesis-stress model.

  • the socio-cultural model.

Explanation

Question 130 of 132

1

Which perspective emphasizes the role of the id, ego, and superego in defining psychological abnormality?

Select one of the following:

  • the cognitive perspective

  • the psychodynamic perspective

  • the learning perspective

  • the biological perspective

Explanation

Question 131 of 132

1

Compulsion is to ________ as obsession is to _________.

Select one of the following:

  • anxiety; depression

  • negative symptom; positive symptom

  • neurosis; psychosis

  • behaviour; thought

Explanation

Question 132 of 132

1

Paranoid, narcissistic, and histrionic are three types of:

Select one of the following:

  • dissociation disorders

  • paraphilias.

  • personality disorders.

  • schizophrenias

Explanation