Sofia Almeida
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Quiz on VN04 revision, created by Sofia Almeida on 23/06/2021.

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Sofia Almeida
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VN04 revision

Question 1 of 164

1

What does PHARMACODYNAMICS mean?

Select one of the following:

  • what the drug does to the body

  • what the body does to the drug

Explanation

Question 2 of 164

1

What does PHARMACOKINETICS mean?

Select one of the following:

  • what the body does to the drug

  • what the drug does to the body

Explanation

Question 3 of 164

1

Where should an adverse reaction be reported to?

Select one of the following:

  • SARSS

  • AMTRA

  • VMD

  • practice manager

Explanation

Question 4 of 164

1

What does i.m stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • intramusclar

  • intravenous

  • intraperitoneal

  • subcutaneous

Explanation

Question 5 of 164

1

What does i.v stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • intravenous

  • intramuscular

  • intraperitoneal

  • subcutaneous

Explanation

Question 6 of 164

1

What does i.p stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • intraperitoneal

  • intramuscular

  • intravenous

  • subcutaneous

Explanation

Question 7 of 164

1

What does p.o/per os mean?

Select one of the following:

  • by mouth

  • by ear

  • on skin

Explanation

Question 8 of 164

1

What does a.c mean?

Select one of the following:

  • before meals

  • after meals

  • on an empty stomach

  • with food

Explanation

Question 9 of 164

1

What does b.i.d stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • twice daily

  • once daily

  • three times daily

  • every 2 hours

Explanation

Question 10 of 164

1

What does e.o.d stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • every other day

  • every day

  • four times daily

  • three times daily

Explanation

Question 11 of 164

1

What does o.m stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • other muscles

  • intramuscular

  • other oriffices

  • submuscular

Explanation

Question 12 of 164

1

What does o.m stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • every morning

  • every night

  • every hour

  • every day

Explanation

Question 13 of 164

1

What does o.n. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • every night

  • every morning

  • every day

  • once daily

Explanation

Question 14 of 164

1

What does p.c. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • after meals

  • before meals

  • with food

  • no food

Explanation

Question 15 of 164

1

What does q. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • every

  • every 4 hours

  • single dose

  • double dose

Explanation

Question 16 of 164

1

What does q.i.d. / q.d.s. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • four times daily

  • two times daily

  • once daily

  • quarter daily

Explanation

Question 17 of 164

1

What does t.i.d. / t.d.s. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • three times daily

  • four times daily

  • two times daily

  • once daily

Explanation

Question 18 of 164

1

What does p.r.n. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • as needed

  • every other day

  • every day

  • without

Explanation

Question 19 of 164

1

What does stat stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • immediately

  • without

  • as needed

  • once daily

Explanation

Question 20 of 164

1

What does h. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • hour

  • as needed

  • every day

  • without

Explanation

Question 21 of 164

1

What does s.i.d. / o.d. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • once daily

  • twice daily

  • every hour

  • as needed

Explanation

Question 22 of 164

1

What does q.s. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • as much as suffices

  • as needed

  • every day

  • without

Explanation

Question 23 of 164

1

What does ad. lib. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • as desired

  • as needed

  • every other day

  • without

Explanation

Question 24 of 164

1

What does amp. stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • ampoule

  • capsule

  • tablet

  • suspension

Explanation

Question 25 of 164

1

What is the proprietary name of a drug?

Select one of the following:

  • the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered

  • the name of the active ingredient in the medication

Explanation

Question 26 of 164

1

What is the generic name of a drug?

Select one of the following:

  • the name of the active ingredient in the medication

  • the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered

Explanation

Question 27 of 164

1

Ketaset, keraject, ketavet and vetalar are all ____ names of the drug.

Select one of the following:

  • proprietary

  • generic

Explanation

Question 28 of 164

1

Which schedule does cannabis and LSD come under?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 3

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 4

  • schedule 5

Explanation

Question 29 of 164

1

Which schedule of drug requires a Home Office License?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 2

  • schedule 3

  • schedule 4

Explanation

Question 30 of 164

1

Which of the following schedule of drug has no use within veterinary medicine?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 2

  • schedule 5

  • schedule 3

Explanation

Question 31 of 164

1

Morphine, methadone, pethidine, fentanyl and ketamine are all in which schedule?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 2

  • schedule 3

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 5

Explanation

Question 32 of 164

1

Bartiurates, bupremorphine and midazolam are all in which schedule?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 3

  • schedule 2

  • schedule 5

  • schedule 1

Explanation

Question 33 of 164

1

Which schedule of drugs are subject to strict storage, precription, dispensing, destruction and record keeping requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 2

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 5

  • schedule 3

Explanation

Question 34 of 164

1

Tramadol is in which drug schedule?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 3

  • schedule 2

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 5

Explanation

Question 35 of 164

1

Diazepam and anabolic steroids come under which drug schedule?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 4

  • schedule 2

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 5

Explanation

Question 36 of 164

1

Pardale, Codeine/Paracetamol are all in which drug schedule?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 5

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 2

  • schedule 4

Explanation

Question 37 of 164

1

Schedule 3 drugs are all required to follow CD prescription writing requirements. True or False?

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 38 of 164

1

How long must invoices for schedule 5 drugs be kept for a minimum of?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 years

  • 5 years

  • 6 months

  • they don't have to be kept

Explanation

Question 39 of 164

1

The five drug schedules all come under which legislation?

Select one of the following:

  • the misuse of drugs regulations 2001

  • controlled drugs regulations 2020

  • the medicines act 1968

  • the health and safety at work act 1974

Explanation

Question 40 of 164

1

How often should CDR's be recorded?

Select one of the following:

  • weekly

  • monthly

  • every 6 months

  • every fortnight

Explanation

Question 41 of 164

1

The responsibility of recording CDR ultimately lies with who?

Select one of the following:

  • the veterinary surgeon

  • the veterinary nurse

  • any suitably qualified person

  • SQP

Explanation

Question 42 of 164

1

Which of the following drugs is a schedule 3 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • bupremorphine

  • ketamine

  • codeine

  • cannabis

Explanation

Question 43 of 164

1

Which schedule 3 drug should be stored in a CD cabinet?

Select one of the following:

  • bupremorphine

  • morphine

  • fentanyl

  • ketamine

Explanation

Question 44 of 164

1

Which schedule 3 drug can be prescribed to a patient for a genuine clinical reason under the cascade?

Select one of the following:

  • bupremorphine

  • fentanyl

  • codeine

  • ketamine

Explanation

Question 45 of 164

1

Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?

Select one of the following:

  • bupremorphine

  • fentanyl

  • morphine

  • codeine

Explanation

Question 46 of 164

1

Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?

Select one of the following:

  • diethylpropion

  • methamphetamine

  • ketamine

  • fentanyl

Explanation

Question 47 of 164

1

Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?

Select one of the following:

  • flunitrazepam

  • fentanyl

  • ketamine

  • methadone

Explanation

Question 48 of 164

1

Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?

Select one of the following:

  • temazepam

  • ketamine

  • fentanyl

  • methadone

Explanation

Question 49 of 164

1

Drugs from which schedule are advised to be kepy in a CD cabinet?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 5

  • schedule 3

Explanation

Question 50 of 164

1

CD containers/cabinets should indicate that there are CD's kept inside. True or False?

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 164

1

What is the british standard coding for medicine cabinets?

Select one of the following:

  • BS 2881 : 1989

  • BS 2441 : 1988

  • BS 1986 : 2234

  • BS 2222 : 1111

Explanation

Question 52 of 164

1

How many levels of security should CD medicine cabinets have by the british standard coding?

Select one of the following:

  • three layers

  • two layers

  • one layer

  • five layers

Explanation

Question 53 of 164

1

The CD cabinet should be...

Select one of the following:

  • bolted to the wall or floor

  • kept in a locked room

  • kept away from the public

  • kept inside of a safe

Explanation

Question 54 of 164

1

The CD cabinet should be

Select one of the following:

  • double-locked with seperate keys

  • kept under a safe combination

  • kept inside a locked room

  • kept away from the public

Explanation

Question 55 of 164

1

Where can a veterinary professional find further guidance on safe storage of CD's?

Select one of the following:

  • CDLOs (controlled drugs liason officer)

  • police

  • senior veterinary surgeons

  • misuse of drugs regulator

Explanation

Question 56 of 164

1

If on a call out visit how should CD's be transported safely?

Select one of the following:

  • a locked glove compartment, bag, box or case which must be kept locked when not in use

  • a locked car at all times when not being used

  • they cannot be transported outside of the veterinary practice

  • a portable steel safe with a code to access it

Explanation

Question 57 of 164

1

How should one dispose of out-of-date and returned drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • cat litter

  • denaturing kits

  • soapy water

  • down the drain

Explanation

Question 58 of 164

1

How should one dispose of residual or waste drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • cat litter

  • soapy water

  • denaturing kits

  • poured down the drain

Explanation

Question 59 of 164

1

'There is no legal requirement to have the disposal of waste witnessed'. Leftover medicine (including CDs) is considered waste. True or False?

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 164

1

According to the RCVS pratice standards scheme, what must be written on an in use injectable medicine?

Select one of the following:

  • opening date or use by date

  • date of broachment and initials

  • opening date and initials

  • date of broachment

Explanation

Question 61 of 164

1

Which colour bin should non-hazardous medicinal waste be placed in?

Select one of the following:

  • blue

  • ornage

  • purple

  • yellow

Explanation

Question 62 of 164

1

Which one of the following processes occurs during phase II of the metabolic process to eliminate drugs from the body?

Select one of the following:

  • conjugation

  • hydrolysis

  • oxidation

  • redistribution

Explanation

Question 63 of 164

1

In which part of the nephron does glucose reabsorption occur?

Select one of the following:

  • collecting duct

  • distal convoulted tubule

  • proximal convoluted tubule

  • loop of henle

Explanation

Question 64 of 164

1

In which part of the nephron does aldosterone act to increase Na+ reabsorption?

Select one of the following:

  • distal convoluted tubule

  • proximal convoluted tubule

  • collecting duct

  • loop of henle

Explanation

Question 65 of 164

1

What is the correct order of the pharmacokinetic process?

Select one of the following:

  • absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

  • absorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion

  • metabolism, absorption, distribution, excretion

  • metabolism, distribution, absorption, exretion

Explanation

Question 66 of 164

1

In order to acquire a marketing authorisation, a new medicinal product should have been tested for which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • safety, efficacy, quality

  • quality, efficiency, safety

  • safety, cost, efficacy

  • efficacy, quality, reliability

Explanation

Question 67 of 164

1

Which term refers to the movement of drugs within the body?

Select one of the following:

  • pharmacokinetics

  • pharmacodynamics

  • pharmacology

  • pharmacy

Explanation

Question 68 of 164

1

In terms of drug interaction what is the term antagonism defined as?

Select one of the following:

  • one drug inhibits the effects of another drug

  • one ineffective drug enhances the effect of another drug

  • response is equal to the combined responses of individual drugs

  • response is greater than the combined responses of individual drugs

Explanation

Question 69 of 164

1

What does a 2% solution correspond to?

Select one of the following:

  • 2g per 100ml

  • 2g per 1000ml

  • 2mg per 100ml

  • 2mg per 1000ml

Explanation

Question 70 of 164

1

A 6kg dog required an injection. The dosage is 5mg/kg of a 2.5% suspension. What volume in mls should be injected?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.8

  • 1.2

  • 1.5

  • 2.4

Explanation

Question 71 of 164

1

What does the abbreviation o.n. mean when written on a prescription?

Select one of the following:

  • by mouth

  • as required

  • every night

  • once a day

Explanation

Question 72 of 164

1

Which of the following is the correct term for a medicinal product that supresses nausea and vomiting?

Select one of the following:

  • antiemetic

  • anticholinergic

  • sympathomimetic

  • antineoplastic

Explanation

Question 73 of 164

1

Which of the following controlled drugs fall under schedule 3 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations?

Select one of the following:

  • morphine

  • bupremorphine

  • methadone

  • pethidine

Explanation

Question 74 of 164

1

Which of the following people would NOT be deemed suitable for witnessing the disposal of a controlled drug?

Select one of the following:

  • a VMD inspector

  • a veterinary surgeon from a different branch of the same company

  • a police drug liaison officer

  • a veterinary surgeon from a different practice/company

Explanation

Question 75 of 164

1

How long should a register of controlled drugs be kept for?

Select one of the following:

  • minimum of 2 years

  • minimum of 5 years

  • minimum of 3 years

  • minimum of 4 years

Explanation

Question 76 of 164

1

Of these commonly used parenteral administration routes, which results in the lowest bioavailability?

Select one of the following:

  • subcutaneous

  • intramuscular

  • intravenous

  • intraperitoneal

Explanation

Question 77 of 164

1

Which organ is responsible for the first-pass effect?

Select one of the following:

  • liver

  • kidney

  • brain

  • small intestine

Explanation

Question 78 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT an example of a NSAID?

Select one of the following:

  • prednisolone

  • carprofen

  • grapiprant

  • fibrocoxib

Explanation

Question 79 of 164

1

A bacteriostatic antimicrobial has what effect on bacteria?

Select one of the following:

  • inhibits reproduction

  • kills them

  • inhibits development

  • alters their cell membrane to prevent nutrient absorption

Explanation

Question 80 of 164

1

For how long before the administration of pimobendan should food be withheld from the patient?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 hour

  • 2 hours

  • 3 hours

  • 8 hours

Explanation

Question 81 of 164

1

Which non-steriodial anti-inflammatory drug should be avoided in cats, as they are unable to metabolise it effectively?

Select one of the following:

  • paracetamol

  • meloxicam

  • carprofen

  • ketoprofen

Explanation

Question 82 of 164

1

Who holds the register of approved Veterinary Practice Premises?

Select one of the following:

  • animal medicines training regulatory authority

  • royal college of veterinary surgeons

  • veterinary medicines directorate

  • department for environment, food and rural affairs

Explanation

Question 83 of 164

1

Which of the following shows all of the categories from which a SQP can prescribe and supply?

Select one of the following:

  • POM-VPS, NFA-VPS

  • POM-V, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL

  • NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL, POM-V

  • AVM-GSL, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS

Explanation

Question 84 of 164

1

For the administration of prednisolone by the owner at home, which of the following would NOT be a warning discussed with them?

Select one of the following:

  • keep away from cats due to toxicity risk

  • wear gloves during administration and wash hands after use

  • stop if the patient develops a corneal ulcer

  • do not stop the course suddenly, or without consulting the vet

Explanation

Question 85 of 164

1

How can the Safe Custody Regulations be met when storing controlled drugs in a practice car?

Select one of the following:

  • keep them in a locked glove

  • a locked container fixed within the boot of the car

  • a locked bag or box that is removed and constantyly attended when the vehicle is left unattended

  • all answers are correct

Explanation

Question 86 of 164

1

Unless specified differently on the data sheet, for how long can a medicine be used from a multi-dose vial once broached?

Select one of the following:

  • 7 days

  • 28 days

  • 14 days

  • 5 days

Explanation

Question 87 of 164

1

Which of the following patient factors are likely to reduce the onset and duration of action of a medication administered subcutaneously?

Select one of the following:

  • dehydration

  • shock

  • a poor regional blood supply

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 88 of 164

1

What type of medicine should be dispensed into a fluted bottle?

Select one of the following:

  • medicines for external application

  • medicines for oral application

  • all liquid medicines

  • powders and granules

Explanation

Question 89 of 164

1

When did the VMD establish a joint bill with the department of health and social care?

Select one of the following:

  • 2020

  • 2013

  • 2018

  • 2015

Explanation

Question 90 of 164

1

In which part of the medicines and medical devices bill is veterinary medicine covered?

Select one of the following:

  • PART 1

  • PART 2

  • PART 4

  • PART 3

Explanation

Question 91 of 164

1

Powers in the medicines and medical devices bill do not allow creation of entirely new regulatory regimes. True or False?

Select one of the following:

  • true

  • false

Explanation

Question 92 of 164

1

What does TP stand for in regards to legislation (UK GOV)?

Select one of the following:

  • treatment plan

  • transition period

  • turning point

  • testing period

Explanation

Question 93 of 164

1

Which clause delegates the power to a specific body to make regulations about veterinary medicines?

Select one of the following:

  • clause 10

  • clause 8

  • clause 9

  • clause 7

Explanation

Question 94 of 164

1

Which clauses hold specific matters that may be amended and supply VMR appropriately?

Select one of the following:

  • clauses 8 and 9

  • clauses 9 and 10

  • clauses 7 and 8

  • clauses 8 and 10

Explanation

Question 95 of 164

1

What are the three top priorities when making regulations?

Select one of the following:

  • safety of veterinary medicines in relation to animals, humans and the environment, availablity of veterinary medicines, attractiveness of UK as a place in which to develop or supply veterinary medicines

  • safety and distribution of veterinary medicines, safety of the environment in relation to veterinary medicines, safety of animals and humans in the development of veterinary medicines

Explanation

Question 96 of 164

1

Who is the appropriate authority as set out in clause 8 of the MMD bill?

Select one of the following:

  • Secretary of State and/or Northern Ireland Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (‎DAERA)

  • Veterinary Medicines Directorate (VMD)

  • Animal Medicines Training and Regulatory Authority Medical (AMTRA)

  • Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DEFRA)

Explanation

Question 97 of 164

1

Clause 9 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...

Select one of the following:

  • manufacture, marketing, supply and field trials

  • manufacture and supply

  • manufacture, testing and supplies

  • marketing and supply

Explanation

Question 98 of 164

1

Clause 10 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...

Select one of the following:

  • fees, offences, powers of inspectors, costs

  • marketing and distrubution

  • fees, offences and testing

  • costing and distribution

Explanation

Question 99 of 164

1

Clause 11 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...

Select one of the following:

  • interpretation and definitions of part 2 of the bill

  • bills, costs and supply

  • marketing and distribution

  • fees, offences and payable fees

Explanation

Question 100 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT true?

Select one of the following:

  • any proposed changes to the VMR will be subject to formal, public consulation

  • interested stakeholders have opportunity to provide feedback

  • feedback considered before revised VMR go to parliament

  • any propsed changes to the VMR do not require public feedback and will only be assessed by the appropriate people/organisations

Explanation

Question 101 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT a responsiblity of the VMD?

Select one of the following:

  • monitoring adverse reactions

  • authorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines

  • making and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines

  • responsible for representing the UK's royal veterinary surgeons community

Explanation

Question 102 of 164

1

A veterinary practice must first apply to the RCVS and then the VMD to register their practice.

Select one of the following:

  • true

  • false

Explanation

Question 103 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?

Select one of the following:

  • registering and storing CD's securely in line with the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001

  • a record of all POM-V and POM-VPS drugs bought, sold and administered within the practice

  • how medicines are stored in relation to conditions and temperature and daily minimum and maximum temperature recordings

  • a written record of every endo/ecto parasitic treatment and when it has been dispensed and to whom

Explanation

Question 104 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?

Select one of the following:

  • all prescriptions are completed with the correct information

  • the practice has a kit and PPE to deal with medicine spillages

  • that any medicine dispensed in a container, other than the original, needs to be correctly labelled and that the client is provided with safety guidelines

  • that all medicine is labelled with the date that it was recieved into practice

Explanation

Question 105 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?

Select one of the following:

  • if a small practice treats chickens, a record of the withdrawal period required before the eggs are safe to eat

  • that open medicines are used within the recommended time frame

  • that cytotoxic, cytostatic and certain hormonal medicines are stored, handled and disposed of correctly

  • the record of every cytotoxic waste in and out of the building

Explanation

Question 106 of 164

1

Which of the following is concerned with controlling the prescription and dispension procedures in veterinary practices in the UK?

Select one of the following:

  • the VMD

  • the veterinary medicines regulations 2013

  • the misuse of drugs act 2001

  • AMTRA

Explanation

Question 107 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?

Select one of the following:

  • Monitoring adverse reactions

  • classification of veterinary medicines

  • supply of veterinary medicines - whether they can be supplied by a veterinary surgeon or a suitably qualified person

  • requirements for the suitably qualified person

Explanation

Question 108 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?

Select one of the following:

  • Authorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines

  • precription requirements

  • prescribing cascade

  • registraton of premises

Explanation

Question 109 of 164

1

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?

Select one of the following:

  • making and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines

  • storage and disposal requirements

  • prescribing cascade

  • classification of veterinary medicines

Explanation

Question 110 of 164

1

Which of following is true as of 2003 following a report by the competitions commission?

Select one of the following:

  • veterinary surgeons are obliged to offer prescriptions to allow clients to buy medicines from another practice/pharmacy

  • veterinary surgeons do not have to offer prescriptions

  • if a veterinary surgeon supplies a prescription for a veterinary brand of a medication then the pharmacist or SQP dispensing can supply any brand name or generic name of that drug

  • veterinary surgeons have to supply a client with the cheapest possible option of a medication

Explanation

Question 111 of 164

1

If a veterinary surgeon wishes to put an animal on a particular medication, what is the first step...

Select one of the following:

  • if a medication for the condition exists then they must use the medication licensed for that animal or condition

  • they can use any medication outside of that animals species as long as it is for animal use only

  • they can use any licensed medication in the UK as they see fit (inc. for humans)

  • they can use any licensed medication in the EU as they see fit
    (inc. for humans)

Explanation

Question 112 of 164

1

In the circumstance that there is no authorised medication for a specific condition in a specific species what is the first step the veterinary surgeon can take in prescribing under the cascade?

Select one of the following:

  • a medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species

  • a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered

  • a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used

  • the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration

Explanation

Question 113 of 164

1

In the circumstance that there is no licensed medication in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?

Select one of the following:

  • a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered

  • a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used.

  • the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration

Explanation

Question 114 of 164

1

In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?

Select one of the following:

  • a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used

  • the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration

  • medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species

Explanation

Question 115 of 164

1

In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product authorised by another EU state use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?

Select one of the following:

  • the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration

  • a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered

  • medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species

Explanation

Question 116 of 164

1

When using a medication that is licensed elsewhere in the EU, an import license must be obtained from the secretary of state.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 117 of 164

1

The administration of medication prescribed under the cascade is carried out under the authorisation of the veterinary surgeon, but who is responsible overall for this?

Select one of the following:

  • the SQP

  • the person supplying

  • the veterinary surgeon

  • the veterinary nurse

Explanation

Question 118 of 164

1

Which category of drugs contain narcotic substances?

Select one of the following:

  • POM-V

  • POM-VPS

  • NFA-VPS

  • AVM-GSL

Explanation

Question 119 of 164

1

Which of the following can be supplied by any retailer?

Select one of the following:

  • POM-V

  • POM-VPS

  • AVM-GSL

  • NFA-VPS

Explanation

Question 120 of 164

1

How long is the WITHDRAWAL PERIOD?

Select one of the following:

  • 28 days

  • 2 weeks

  • 1 month

  • 6 months

Explanation

Question 121 of 164

1

When treating equines as non-food animals the veterinary surgeon must obtain a declaration from the owner and this must be recorded in the equine passport.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 122 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • pethidine

  • bupremorphine

  • pentobarbitone

  • phenobarbitone

Explanation

Question 123 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • fentanyl

  • bupremorphine

  • phenobarbitone

  • pentobarbitone

Explanation

Question 124 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • morphine

  • bupremorphine

  • diazepam

  • midazolam

Explanation

Question 125 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • phenobarbitone

  • diazepam

  • anabolic steroids

  • fentanyl

Explanation

Question 126 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • pentobarbitone

  • diazepam

  • pethidine

  • midazolam

Explanation

Question 127 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • diazepam

  • bupremorphine

  • morphine

  • ketamine

Explanation

Question 128 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • midazolam

  • bupremorphine

  • pethidine

  • phenobarbitone

Explanation

Question 129 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • anabolic steroids

  • morphine

  • ketamine

  • pentobarbitone

Explanation

Question 130 of 164

1

How long are prescriptions for drugs in schedules 2 and 3 valid for?

Select one of the following:

  • 28 days

  • 30 days

  • 6 months

  • 2 weeks

Explanation

Question 131 of 164

1

Are repeat prescriptions allowed for schedule 2 and 3 drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • yes

  • no

Explanation

Question 132 of 164

1

How long are prescriptions in schedule 4 valid for?

Select one of the following:

  • 6 months

  • 2 weeks

  • 58 days

  • 28 days

Explanation

Question 133 of 164

1

Are schedule 4 repeat prescriptions allowed?

Select one of the following:

  • yes

  • no

Explanation

Question 134 of 164

1

Which schedule includes preperations that contain a low concentration of a controlled drug such as codeine or morphine?

Select one of the following:

  • schedule 4

  • schedule 5

  • schedule 1

  • schedule 3

Explanation

Question 135 of 164

1

Who regulates controlled drugs are defined in the misuse of drugs regulations 2001?

Select one of the following:

  • home office

  • VMD

  • AMTRA

  • DEFRA

Explanation

Question 136 of 164

1

Which of the following schedule 2 drugs does not have to be locked in the CD's cabinet?

Select one of the following:

  • quinalbarbitone

  • ketamine

  • morphine

  • fentanyl

Explanation

Question 137 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • diethylpropion

  • ketamine

  • diazepam

  • morphine

Explanation

Question 138 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • flunitrazepam

  • diazepam

  • morphine

  • fentanyl

Explanation

Question 139 of 164

1

Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?

Select one of the following:

  • temazepam

  • diazepam

  • ketamine

  • methadone

Explanation

Question 140 of 164

1

What is the correct temperature in which refridgerated drugs must be kept?

Select one of the following:

  • 2-8 degrees celcius

  • 2-10 degrees celcius

  • -2-4 degrees celcius

  • -2-6 degrees celcius

Explanation

Question 141 of 164

1

At which temperature should drugs be kept at room temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 15-25 degrees

  • 18-15 degrees

  • 5-10 degrees

  • 10-17 degrees

Explanation

Question 142 of 164

1

At which humidity should the room be in order to keep tablets and capsules in correct conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • 60%

  • 70%

  • 20%

  • 50%

Explanation

Question 143 of 164

1

How many members of staff are needed to record and witness the withdrawal of a schedule 2 controlled drug?

Select one of the following:

  • one

  • three

  • two

  • four

Explanation

Question 144 of 164

1

How often should a check of all records and the current level of pharmaceutical preparations/stock take be performed?

Select one of the following:

  • yearly

  • every 2 years

  • every 2 weeks

  • every 6 months

Explanation

Question 145 of 164

1

The controlled drugs register must be out of sight of the general public.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 146 of 164

1

The species and identity of the animal must be included on a prescription.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 147 of 164

1

How long should a copy of a written prescription be kept in the practice?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 years

  • 2 years

  • 3 years

  • 28 days

Explanation

Question 148 of 164

1

A record of the batch number and expiry date of the product prescribed must be kept.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 149 of 164

1

Analgesic drugs are either opioid or non-opioid.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 150 of 164

1

Which of the following drugs is a partial opioid agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Buprenorphine

  • Methadone

  • Morphine

  • Pethidine

Explanation

Question 151 of 164

1

Which of the following is a natural agent?

Select one of the following:

  • Morphine

  • Methadone

  • Ketamine

  • Fentanyl

Explanation

Question 152 of 164

1

What are the names of the three receptors/peripheral sites that opioids bind to?

Select one of the following:

  • Mu delta and kappa

  • OP1 OP2 OP3

  • MOP DOP KOP

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 153 of 164

1

Morphine , Methadone, Codeine , Pethidine , Fentanyl , Buprenorphine and Butorphanol are all…

Select one of the following:

  • Non opioid analgesics

  • Opioid analgesics

Explanation

Question 154 of 164

1

Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Methadone

  • buprenorphine

  • Codeine

  • Diazepam

Explanation

Question 155 of 164

1

Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Morphine

  • Butorphanol

  • Diazepam

  • Buprenorphine

Explanation

Question 156 of 164

1

Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Pethidine

  • Buprenorphine

  • Diazepam

  • Cannabis

Explanation

Question 157 of 164

1

Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Fentanyl

  • Buprenorphine

  • Diazepam

  • Carprofen

Explanation

Question 158 of 164

1

Which of the following is a mixed agonist/antagonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Butorphanol

  • Codeine

  • Methadone

  • Buprenorphine

Explanation

Question 159 of 164

1

What is a mixed agonist/antagonist?

Select one of the following:

  • bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation

  • bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation

  • possess both properties

Explanation

Question 160 of 164

1

What is a Partial opioid agonists?

Select one of the following:

  • bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation

  • bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation

  • possess both properties

Explanation

Question 161 of 164

1

What is a Full opioid agonists?

Select one of the following:

  • bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation

  • bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation

  • Possesses both properties

Explanation

Question 162 of 164

1

Where are opioids metabolised?

Select one of the following:

  • Liver

  • Kidneys

  • Small intestine

  • Stomach

Explanation

Question 163 of 164

1

Where are opioids excreted from?

Select one of the following:

  • Kidneys

  • Liver

  • Bile

  • Kidneys or bile

Explanation

Question 164 of 164

1

Which of following antagonises the effects of opioids?

Select one of the following:

  • Naloxone

  • Antisedan

  • Codeine

  • Diazepam

Explanation

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