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VN04 revision

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Quiz on VN04 revision, created by Sofia Almeida on 23/06/2021.
Sofia Almeida
Quiz by Sofia Almeida, updated more than 1 year ago
Sofia Almeida
Created by Sofia Almeida almost 3 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What does PHARMACODYNAMICS mean?
Answer
  • what the drug does to the body
  • what the body does to the drug

Question 2

Question
What does PHARMACOKINETICS mean?
Answer
  • what the body does to the drug
  • what the drug does to the body

Question 3

Question
Where should an adverse reaction be reported to?
Answer
  • SARSS
  • AMTRA
  • VMD
  • practice manager

Question 4

Question
What does i.m stand for?
Answer
  • intramusclar
  • intravenous
  • intraperitoneal
  • subcutaneous

Question 5

Question
What does i.v stand for?
Answer
  • intravenous
  • intramuscular
  • intraperitoneal
  • subcutaneous

Question 6

Question
What does i.p stand for?
Answer
  • intraperitoneal
  • intramuscular
  • intravenous
  • subcutaneous

Question 7

Question
What does p.o/per os mean?
Answer
  • by mouth
  • by ear
  • on skin

Question 8

Question
What does a.c mean?
Answer
  • before meals
  • after meals
  • on an empty stomach
  • with food

Question 9

Question
What does b.i.d stand for?
Answer
  • twice daily
  • once daily
  • three times daily
  • every 2 hours

Question 10

Question
What does e.o.d stand for?
Answer
  • every other day
  • every day
  • four times daily
  • three times daily

Question 11

Question
What does o.m stand for?
Answer
  • other muscles
  • intramuscular
  • other oriffices
  • submuscular

Question 12

Question
What does o.m stand for?
Answer
  • every morning
  • every night
  • every hour
  • every day

Question 13

Question
What does o.n. stand for?
Answer
  • every night
  • every morning
  • every day
  • once daily

Question 14

Question
What does p.c. stand for?
Answer
  • after meals
  • before meals
  • with food
  • no food

Question 15

Question
What does q. stand for?
Answer
  • every
  • every 4 hours
  • single dose
  • double dose

Question 16

Question
What does q.i.d. / q.d.s. stand for?
Answer
  • four times daily
  • two times daily
  • once daily
  • quarter daily

Question 17

Question
What does t.i.d. / t.d.s. stand for?
Answer
  • three times daily
  • four times daily
  • two times daily
  • once daily

Question 18

Question
What does p.r.n. stand for?
Answer
  • as needed
  • every other day
  • every day
  • without

Question 19

Question
What does stat stand for?
Answer
  • immediately
  • without
  • as needed
  • once daily

Question 20

Question
What does h. stand for?
Answer
  • hour
  • as needed
  • every day
  • without

Question 21

Question
What does s.i.d. / o.d. stand for?
Answer
  • once daily
  • twice daily
  • every hour
  • as needed

Question 22

Question
What does q.s. stand for?
Answer
  • as much as suffices
  • as needed
  • every day
  • without

Question 23

Question
What does ad. lib. stand for?
Answer
  • as desired
  • as needed
  • every other day
  • without

Question 24

Question
What does amp. stand for?
Answer
  • ampoule
  • capsule
  • tablet
  • suspension

Question 25

Question
What is the proprietary name of a drug?
Answer
  • the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered
  • the name of the active ingredient in the medication

Question 26

Question
What is the generic name of a drug?
Answer
  • the name of the active ingredient in the medication
  • the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered

Question 27

Question
Ketaset, keraject, ketavet and vetalar are all ____ names of the drug.
Answer
  • proprietary
  • generic

Question 28

Question
Which schedule does cannabis and LSD come under?
Answer
  • schedule 3
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 4
  • schedule 5

Question 29

Question
Which schedule of drug requires a Home Office License?
Answer
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 2
  • schedule 3
  • schedule 4

Question 30

Question
Which of the following schedule of drug has no use within veterinary medicine?
Answer
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 2
  • schedule 5
  • schedule 3

Question 31

Question
Morphine, methadone, pethidine, fentanyl and ketamine are all in which schedule?
Answer
  • schedule 2
  • schedule 3
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 5

Question 32

Question
Bartiurates, bupremorphine and midazolam are all in which schedule?
Answer
  • schedule 3
  • schedule 2
  • schedule 5
  • schedule 1

Question 33

Question
Which schedule of drugs are subject to strict storage, precription, dispensing, destruction and record keeping requirements?
Answer
  • schedule 2
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 5
  • schedule 3

Question 34

Question
Tramadol is in which drug schedule?
Answer
  • schedule 3
  • schedule 2
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 5

Question 35

Question
Diazepam and anabolic steroids come under which drug schedule?
Answer
  • schedule 4
  • schedule 2
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 5

Question 36

Question
Pardale, Codeine/Paracetamol are all in which drug schedule?
Answer
  • schedule 5
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 2
  • schedule 4

Question 37

Question
Schedule 3 drugs are all required to follow CD prescription writing requirements. True or False?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 38

Question
How long must invoices for schedule 5 drugs be kept for a minimum of?
Answer
  • 2 years
  • 5 years
  • 6 months
  • they don't have to be kept

Question 39

Question
The five drug schedules all come under which legislation?
Answer
  • the misuse of drugs regulations 2001
  • controlled drugs regulations 2020
  • the medicines act 1968
  • the health and safety at work act 1974

Question 40

Question
How often should CDR's be recorded?
Answer
  • weekly
  • monthly
  • every 6 months
  • every fortnight

Question 41

Question
The responsibility of recording CDR ultimately lies with who?
Answer
  • the veterinary surgeon
  • the veterinary nurse
  • any suitably qualified person
  • SQP

Question 42

Question
Which of the following drugs is a schedule 3 drug?
Answer
  • bupremorphine
  • ketamine
  • codeine
  • cannabis

Question 43

Question
Which schedule 3 drug should be stored in a CD cabinet?
Answer
  • bupremorphine
  • morphine
  • fentanyl
  • ketamine

Question 44

Question
Which schedule 3 drug can be prescribed to a patient for a genuine clinical reason under the cascade?
Answer
  • bupremorphine
  • fentanyl
  • codeine
  • ketamine

Question 45

Question
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
Answer
  • bupremorphine
  • fentanyl
  • morphine
  • codeine

Question 46

Question
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
Answer
  • diethylpropion
  • methamphetamine
  • ketamine
  • fentanyl

Question 47

Question
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
Answer
  • flunitrazepam
  • fentanyl
  • ketamine
  • methadone

Question 48

Question
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
Answer
  • temazepam
  • ketamine
  • fentanyl
  • methadone

Question 49

Question
Drugs from which schedule are advised to be kepy in a CD cabinet?
Answer
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 5
  • schedule 3

Question 50

Question
CD containers/cabinets should indicate that there are CD's kept inside. True or False?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 51

Question
What is the british standard coding for medicine cabinets?
Answer
  • BS 2881 : 1989
  • BS 2441 : 1988
  • BS 1986 : 2234
  • BS 2222 : 1111

Question 52

Question
How many levels of security should CD medicine cabinets have by the british standard coding?
Answer
  • three layers
  • two layers
  • one layer
  • five layers

Question 53

Question
The CD cabinet should be...
Answer
  • bolted to the wall or floor
  • kept in a locked room
  • kept away from the public
  • kept inside of a safe

Question 54

Question
The CD cabinet should be
Answer
  • double-locked with seperate keys
  • kept under a safe combination
  • kept inside a locked room
  • kept away from the public

Question 55

Question
Where can a veterinary professional find further guidance on safe storage of CD's?
Answer
  • CDLOs (controlled drugs liason officer)
  • police
  • senior veterinary surgeons
  • misuse of drugs regulator

Question 56

Question
If on a call out visit how should CD's be transported safely?
Answer
  • a locked glove compartment, bag, box or case which must be kept locked when not in use
  • a locked car at all times when not being used
  • they cannot be transported outside of the veterinary practice
  • a portable steel safe with a code to access it

Question 57

Question
How should one dispose of out-of-date and returned drugs?
Answer
  • cat litter
  • denaturing kits
  • soapy water
  • down the drain

Question 58

Question
How should one dispose of residual or waste drugs?
Answer
  • cat litter
  • soapy water
  • denaturing kits
  • poured down the drain

Question 59

Question
'There is no legal requirement to have the disposal of waste witnessed'. Leftover medicine (including CDs) is considered waste. True or False?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
According to the RCVS pratice standards scheme, what must be written on an in use injectable medicine?
Answer
  • opening date or use by date
  • date of broachment and initials
  • opening date and initials
  • date of broachment

Question 61

Question
Which colour bin should non-hazardous medicinal waste be placed in?
Answer
  • blue
  • ornage
  • purple
  • yellow

Question 62

Question
Which one of the following processes occurs during phase II of the metabolic process to eliminate drugs from the body?
Answer
  • conjugation
  • hydrolysis
  • oxidation
  • redistribution

Question 63

Question
In which part of the nephron does glucose reabsorption occur?
Answer
  • collecting duct
  • distal convoulted tubule
  • proximal convoluted tubule
  • loop of henle

Question 64

Question
In which part of the nephron does aldosterone act to increase Na+ reabsorption?
Answer
  • distal convoluted tubule
  • proximal convoluted tubule
  • collecting duct
  • loop of henle

Question 65

Question
What is the correct order of the pharmacokinetic process?
Answer
  • absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
  • absorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion
  • metabolism, absorption, distribution, excretion
  • metabolism, distribution, absorption, exretion

Question 66

Question
In order to acquire a marketing authorisation, a new medicinal product should have been tested for which of the following?
Answer
  • safety, efficacy, quality
  • quality, efficiency, safety
  • safety, cost, efficacy
  • efficacy, quality, reliability

Question 67

Question
Which term refers to the movement of drugs within the body?
Answer
  • pharmacokinetics
  • pharmacodynamics
  • pharmacology
  • pharmacy

Question 68

Question
In terms of drug interaction what is the term antagonism defined as?
Answer
  • one drug inhibits the effects of another drug
  • one ineffective drug enhances the effect of another drug
  • response is equal to the combined responses of individual drugs
  • response is greater than the combined responses of individual drugs

Question 69

Question
What does a 2% solution correspond to?
Answer
  • 2g per 100ml
  • 2g per 1000ml
  • 2mg per 100ml
  • 2mg per 1000ml

Question 70

Question
A 6kg dog required an injection. The dosage is 5mg/kg of a 2.5% suspension. What volume in mls should be injected?
Answer
  • 0.8
  • 1.2
  • 1.5
  • 2.4

Question 71

Question
What does the abbreviation o.n. mean when written on a prescription?
Answer
  • by mouth
  • as required
  • every night
  • once a day

Question 72

Question
Which of the following is the correct term for a medicinal product that supresses nausea and vomiting?
Answer
  • antiemetic
  • anticholinergic
  • sympathomimetic
  • antineoplastic

Question 73

Question
Which of the following controlled drugs fall under schedule 3 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations?
Answer
  • morphine
  • bupremorphine
  • methadone
  • pethidine

Question 74

Question
Which of the following people would NOT be deemed suitable for witnessing the disposal of a controlled drug?
Answer
  • a VMD inspector
  • a veterinary surgeon from a different branch of the same company
  • a police drug liaison officer
  • a veterinary surgeon from a different practice/company

Question 75

Question
How long should a register of controlled drugs be kept for?
Answer
  • minimum of 2 years
  • minimum of 5 years
  • minimum of 3 years
  • minimum of 4 years

Question 76

Question
Of these commonly used parenteral administration routes, which results in the lowest bioavailability?
Answer
  • subcutaneous
  • intramuscular
  • intravenous
  • intraperitoneal

Question 77

Question
Which organ is responsible for the first-pass effect?
Answer
  • liver
  • kidney
  • brain
  • small intestine

Question 78

Question
Which of the following is NOT an example of a NSAID?
Answer
  • prednisolone
  • carprofen
  • grapiprant
  • fibrocoxib

Question 79

Question
A bacteriostatic antimicrobial has what effect on bacteria?
Answer
  • inhibits reproduction
  • kills them
  • inhibits development
  • alters their cell membrane to prevent nutrient absorption

Question 80

Question
For how long before the administration of pimobendan should food be withheld from the patient?
Answer
  • 1 hour
  • 2 hours
  • 3 hours
  • 8 hours

Question 81

Question
Which non-steriodial anti-inflammatory drug should be avoided in cats, as they are unable to metabolise it effectively?
Answer
  • paracetamol
  • meloxicam
  • carprofen
  • ketoprofen

Question 82

Question
Who holds the register of approved Veterinary Practice Premises?
Answer
  • animal medicines training regulatory authority
  • royal college of veterinary surgeons
  • veterinary medicines directorate
  • department for environment, food and rural affairs

Question 83

Question
Which of the following shows all of the categories from which a SQP can prescribe and supply?
Answer
  • POM-VPS, NFA-VPS
  • POM-V, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL
  • NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL, POM-V
  • AVM-GSL, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS

Question 84

Question
For the administration of prednisolone by the owner at home, which of the following would NOT be a warning discussed with them?
Answer
  • keep away from cats due to toxicity risk
  • wear gloves during administration and wash hands after use
  • stop if the patient develops a corneal ulcer
  • do not stop the course suddenly, or without consulting the vet

Question 85

Question
How can the Safe Custody Regulations be met when storing controlled drugs in a practice car?
Answer
  • keep them in a locked glove
  • a locked container fixed within the boot of the car
  • a locked bag or box that is removed and constantyly attended when the vehicle is left unattended
  • all answers are correct

Question 86

Question
Unless specified differently on the data sheet, for how long can a medicine be used from a multi-dose vial once broached?
Answer
  • 7 days
  • 28 days
  • 14 days
  • 5 days

Question 87

Question
Which of the following patient factors are likely to reduce the onset and duration of action of a medication administered subcutaneously?
Answer
  • dehydration
  • shock
  • a poor regional blood supply
  • all of the above

Question 88

Question
What type of medicine should be dispensed into a fluted bottle?
Answer
  • medicines for external application
  • medicines for oral application
  • all liquid medicines
  • powders and granules

Question 89

Question
When did the VMD establish a joint bill with the department of health and social care?
Answer
  • 2020
  • 2013
  • 2018
  • 2015

Question 90

Question
In which part of the medicines and medical devices bill is veterinary medicine covered?
Answer
  • PART 1
  • PART 2
  • PART 4
  • PART 3

Question 91

Question
Powers in the medicines and medical devices bill do not allow creation of entirely new regulatory regimes. True or False?
Answer
  • true
  • false

Question 92

Question
What does TP stand for in regards to legislation (UK GOV)?
Answer
  • treatment plan
  • transition period
  • turning point
  • testing period

Question 93

Question
Which clause delegates the power to a specific body to make regulations about veterinary medicines?
Answer
  • clause 10
  • clause 8
  • clause 9
  • clause 7

Question 94

Question
Which clauses hold specific matters that may be amended and supply VMR appropriately?
Answer
  • clauses 8 and 9
  • clauses 9 and 10
  • clauses 7 and 8
  • clauses 8 and 10

Question 95

Question
What are the three top priorities when making regulations?
Answer
  • safety of veterinary medicines in relation to animals, humans and the environment, availablity of veterinary medicines, attractiveness of UK as a place in which to develop or supply veterinary medicines
  • safety and distribution of veterinary medicines, safety of the environment in relation to veterinary medicines, safety of animals and humans in the development of veterinary medicines

Question 96

Question
Who is the appropriate authority as set out in clause 8 of the MMD bill?
Answer
  • Secretary of State and/or Northern Ireland Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (‎DAERA)
  • Veterinary Medicines Directorate (VMD)
  • Animal Medicines Training and Regulatory Authority Medical (AMTRA)
  • Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DEFRA)

Question 97

Question
Clause 9 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
Answer
  • manufacture, marketing, supply and field trials
  • manufacture and supply
  • manufacture, testing and supplies
  • marketing and supply

Question 98

Question
Clause 10 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
Answer
  • fees, offences, powers of inspectors, costs
  • marketing and distrubution
  • fees, offences and testing
  • costing and distribution

Question 99

Question
Clause 11 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
Answer
  • interpretation and definitions of part 2 of the bill
  • bills, costs and supply
  • marketing and distribution
  • fees, offences and payable fees

Question 100

Question
Which of the following is NOT true?
Answer
  • any proposed changes to the VMR will be subject to formal, public consulation
  • interested stakeholders have opportunity to provide feedback
  • feedback considered before revised VMR go to parliament
  • any propsed changes to the VMR do not require public feedback and will only be assessed by the appropriate people/organisations

Question 101

Question
Which of the following is NOT a responsiblity of the VMD?
Answer
  • monitoring adverse reactions
  • authorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines
  • making and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines
  • responsible for representing the UK's royal veterinary surgeons community

Question 102

Question
A veterinary practice must first apply to the RCVS and then the VMD to register their practice.
Answer
  • true
  • false

Question 103

Question
Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
Answer
  • registering and storing CD's securely in line with the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001
  • a record of all POM-V and POM-VPS drugs bought, sold and administered within the practice
  • how medicines are stored in relation to conditions and temperature and daily minimum and maximum temperature recordings
  • a written record of every endo/ecto parasitic treatment and when it has been dispensed and to whom

Question 104

Question
Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
Answer
  • all prescriptions are completed with the correct information
  • the practice has a kit and PPE to deal with medicine spillages
  • that any medicine dispensed in a container, other than the original, needs to be correctly labelled and that the client is provided with safety guidelines
  • that all medicine is labelled with the date that it was recieved into practice

Question 105

Question
Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
Answer
  • if a small practice treats chickens, a record of the withdrawal period required before the eggs are safe to eat
  • that open medicines are used within the recommended time frame
  • that cytotoxic, cytostatic and certain hormonal medicines are stored, handled and disposed of correctly
  • the record of every cytotoxic waste in and out of the building

Question 106

Question
Which of the following is concerned with controlling the prescription and dispension procedures in veterinary practices in the UK?
Answer
  • the VMD
  • the veterinary medicines regulations 2013
  • the misuse of drugs act 2001
  • AMTRA

Question 107

Question
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
Answer
  • Monitoring adverse reactions
  • classification of veterinary medicines
  • supply of veterinary medicines - whether they can be supplied by a veterinary surgeon or a suitably qualified person
  • requirements for the suitably qualified person

Question 108

Question
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
Answer
  • Authorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines
  • precription requirements
  • prescribing cascade
  • registraton of premises

Question 109

Question
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
Answer
  • making and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines
  • storage and disposal requirements
  • prescribing cascade
  • classification of veterinary medicines

Question 110

Question
Which of following is true as of 2003 following a report by the competitions commission?
Answer
  • veterinary surgeons are obliged to offer prescriptions to allow clients to buy medicines from another practice/pharmacy
  • veterinary surgeons do not have to offer prescriptions
  • if a veterinary surgeon supplies a prescription for a veterinary brand of a medication then the pharmacist or SQP dispensing can supply any brand name or generic name of that drug
  • veterinary surgeons have to supply a client with the cheapest possible option of a medication

Question 111

Question
If a veterinary surgeon wishes to put an animal on a particular medication, what is the first step...
Answer
  • if a medication for the condition exists then they must use the medication licensed for that animal or condition
  • they can use any medication outside of that animals species as long as it is for animal use only
  • they can use any licensed medication in the UK as they see fit (inc. for humans)
  • they can use any licensed medication in the EU as they see fit (inc. for humans)

Question 112

Question
In the circumstance that there is no authorised medication for a specific condition in a specific species what is the first step the veterinary surgeon can take in prescribing under the cascade?
Answer
  • a medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
  • a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
  • a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used
  • the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration

Question 113

Question
In the circumstance that there is no licensed medication in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
Answer
  • a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
  • a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used.
  • the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration

Question 114

Question
In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
Answer
  • a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used
  • the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
  • medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species

Question 115

Question
In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product authorised by another EU state use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
Answer
  • the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
  • a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
  • medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species

Question 116

Question
When using a medication that is licensed elsewhere in the EU, an import license must be obtained from the secretary of state.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 117

Question
The administration of medication prescribed under the cascade is carried out under the authorisation of the veterinary surgeon, but who is responsible overall for this?
Answer
  • the SQP
  • the person supplying
  • the veterinary surgeon
  • the veterinary nurse

Question 118

Question
Which category of drugs contain narcotic substances?
Answer
  • POM-V
  • POM-VPS
  • NFA-VPS
  • AVM-GSL

Question 119

Question
Which of the following can be supplied by any retailer?
Answer
  • POM-V
  • POM-VPS
  • AVM-GSL
  • NFA-VPS

Question 120

Question
How long is the WITHDRAWAL PERIOD?
Answer
  • 28 days
  • 2 weeks
  • 1 month
  • 6 months

Question 121

Question
When treating equines as non-food animals the veterinary surgeon must obtain a declaration from the owner and this must be recorded in the equine passport.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 122

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
Answer
  • pethidine
  • bupremorphine
  • pentobarbitone
  • phenobarbitone

Question 123

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
Answer
  • fentanyl
  • bupremorphine
  • phenobarbitone
  • pentobarbitone

Question 124

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
Answer
  • morphine
  • bupremorphine
  • diazepam
  • midazolam

Question 125

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Answer
  • phenobarbitone
  • diazepam
  • anabolic steroids
  • fentanyl

Question 126

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Answer
  • pentobarbitone
  • diazepam
  • pethidine
  • midazolam

Question 127

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
Answer
  • diazepam
  • bupremorphine
  • morphine
  • ketamine

Question 128

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
Answer
  • midazolam
  • bupremorphine
  • pethidine
  • phenobarbitone

Question 129

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
Answer
  • anabolic steroids
  • morphine
  • ketamine
  • pentobarbitone

Question 130

Question
How long are prescriptions for drugs in schedules 2 and 3 valid for?
Answer
  • 28 days
  • 30 days
  • 6 months
  • 2 weeks

Question 131

Question
Are repeat prescriptions allowed for schedule 2 and 3 drugs?
Answer
  • yes
  • no

Question 132

Question
How long are prescriptions in schedule 4 valid for?
Answer
  • 6 months
  • 2 weeks
  • 58 days
  • 28 days

Question 133

Question
Are schedule 4 repeat prescriptions allowed?
Answer
  • yes
  • no

Question 134

Question
Which schedule includes preperations that contain a low concentration of a controlled drug such as codeine or morphine?
Answer
  • schedule 4
  • schedule 5
  • schedule 1
  • schedule 3

Question 135

Question
Who regulates controlled drugs are defined in the misuse of drugs regulations 2001?
Answer
  • home office
  • VMD
  • AMTRA
  • DEFRA

Question 136

Question
Which of the following schedule 2 drugs does not have to be locked in the CD's cabinet?
Answer
  • quinalbarbitone
  • ketamine
  • morphine
  • fentanyl

Question 137

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Answer
  • diethylpropion
  • ketamine
  • diazepam
  • morphine

Question 138

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Answer
  • flunitrazepam
  • diazepam
  • morphine
  • fentanyl

Question 139

Question
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Answer
  • temazepam
  • diazepam
  • ketamine
  • methadone

Question 140

Question
What is the correct temperature in which refridgerated drugs must be kept?
Answer
  • 2-8 degrees celcius
  • 2-10 degrees celcius
  • -2-4 degrees celcius
  • -2-6 degrees celcius

Question 141

Question
At which temperature should drugs be kept at room temperature?
Answer
  • 15-25 degrees
  • 18-15 degrees
  • 5-10 degrees
  • 10-17 degrees

Question 142

Question
At which humidity should the room be in order to keep tablets and capsules in correct conditions?
Answer
  • 60%
  • 70%
  • 20%
  • 50%

Question 143

Question
How many members of staff are needed to record and witness the withdrawal of a schedule 2 controlled drug?
Answer
  • one
  • three
  • two
  • four

Question 144

Question
How often should a check of all records and the current level of pharmaceutical preparations/stock take be performed?
Answer
  • yearly
  • every 2 years
  • every 2 weeks
  • every 6 months

Question 145

Question
The controlled drugs register must be out of sight of the general public.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 146

Question
The species and identity of the animal must be included on a prescription.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 147

Question
How long should a copy of a written prescription be kept in the practice?
Answer
  • 5 years
  • 2 years
  • 3 years
  • 28 days

Question 148

Question
A record of the batch number and expiry date of the product prescribed must be kept.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 149

Question
Analgesic drugs are either opioid or non-opioid.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 150

Question
Which of the following drugs is a partial opioid agonist?
Answer
  • Buprenorphine
  • Methadone
  • Morphine
  • Pethidine

Question 151

Question
Which of the following is a natural agent?
Answer
  • Morphine
  • Methadone
  • Ketamine
  • Fentanyl

Question 152

Question
What are the names of the three receptors/peripheral sites that opioids bind to?
Answer
  • Mu delta and kappa
  • OP1 OP2 OP3
  • MOP DOP KOP
  • all of the above

Question 153

Question
Morphine , Methadone, Codeine , Pethidine , Fentanyl , Buprenorphine and Butorphanol are all…
Answer
  • Non opioid analgesics
  • Opioid analgesics

Question 154

Question
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
Answer
  • Methadone
  • buprenorphine
  • Codeine
  • Diazepam

Question 155

Question
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
Answer
  • Morphine
  • Butorphanol
  • Diazepam
  • Buprenorphine

Question 156

Question
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
Answer
  • Pethidine
  • Buprenorphine
  • Diazepam
  • Cannabis

Question 157

Question
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
Answer
  • Fentanyl
  • Buprenorphine
  • Diazepam
  • Carprofen

Question 158

Question
Which of the following is a mixed agonist/antagonist?
Answer
  • Butorphanol
  • Codeine
  • Methadone
  • Buprenorphine

Question 159

Question
What is a mixed agonist/antagonist?
Answer
  • bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
  • bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
  • possess both properties

Question 160

Question
What is a Partial opioid agonists?
Answer
  • bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
  • bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
  • possess both properties

Question 161

Question
What is a Full opioid agonists?
Answer
  • bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
  • bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
  • Possesses both properties

Question 162

Question
Where are opioids metabolised?
Answer
  • Liver
  • Kidneys
  • Small intestine
  • Stomach

Question 163

Question
Where are opioids excreted from?
Answer
  • Kidneys
  • Liver
  • Bile
  • Kidneys or bile

Question 164

Question
Which of following antagonises the effects of opioids?
Answer
  • Naloxone
  • Antisedan
  • Codeine
  • Diazepam
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