Melissa Minei
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Melissa Minei
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AE MQF 10 Jan 2015

Question 1 of 100

1

OG/CC shall define local operating procedures to AFI11-2AEV3 in a unit supplement?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life define a ______________

Select one of the following:

  • Warning

  • Caution

  • Note

  • Suggestion

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2AE V3 is the ______

Select one of the following:

  • HQ AMC Stan/Eval

  • TACC

  • Air and Space Operations Center

  • MAJCOM/A3/DO with mission execution authority

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

During operational aeromedical evacuation missions no later than ___ hour prior to landing a crew member will make the following call to update arrival time and provide _____

Select one of the following:

  • 2 / DD Form 2852, Aeromedical Evacuation Event/Near Miss Report

  • 2 / request for fleet service

  • 1 / AF IMT 3858, Aeromedical Evacuation Mission Offload Message information

  • None fo the above

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

The MCD will coordinate with PIC to establish immediate communication with TACC/AOC and PMRC anytime:

Select one of the following:

  • A patient is removed from flight

  • A change is patient status

  • Mission irregularities or equipment/transportation requirements

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

A basic AE crew consists of ___/____ for AE missions IAW AFI 11-2AE V3 (EXCEPTION for C-21 missions)

Select one of the following:

  • 3 Flight Nurses and 2 Technicians

  • 5 total AECs

  • 1 FN/ 4 AETs

  • 2 FN/ 3 AET

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Once an aircrew begins a basic FDP, only MAJCOM/A3/DO may extend to augment day regardless of aircrew composition

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

The PIC with an augmented crew may accept an augmented FDP as long as:

Select one of the following:

  • The C2 agent or PIC discovers the extenuating circumstances before the first takeoff of the day

  • PIC verifies all augmenting aircrew members can get adequate rest en route

  • the PIC with a basic crew may seek MAJCOM/A3/DO (w/mission execution authority) approval to extend the FDP as much as 2 hours to complete a scheduled mission

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Which of the following does not describe a MCD

Select one of the following:

  • Advised pilot in command on patients' conditions and use of medical equipment that may affect aircraft operations

  • Directly responsible for the safety and medical well-being of patients on the aircraft

  • Final mission authority and will make decisions not assigned to higher authority

  • Qualified flight nurse

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

The Squadron's CN after reviewing the ORM worksheet, may change the crew compliment to consist of no less than 1 FN and 2 AETs, and will notify the controlling c2 agency of changes if different from the mission directive

Select one of the following:

  • This is not permissible, the CN can only increase the number of crew members, not decrease

  • This is permissible, the CN may increase or reduce the crew complement

  • This is not permissible, a basic AE crew of 2 FNs and 3 AETs must be taksed

  • Only if approved by A3VM

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

______ or designee will augment an aircrew when FDP exceeds 16 hours and the mission profile will allow augmenting members adequate time to rest en route

Select one of the following:

  • OG/CC

  • SQ/CC

  • CN

  • MCD

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

The _____ must designate who is going to be the MCD on a flight authorization, IAW AFI 11-401 prior to mission execution

Select one of the following:

  • OG/CC

  • SQ/CC

  • SQ/CNE

  • SARM

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

SQ/CC shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties

Select one of the following:

  • When the flight time will exceed maximum flying time limitations

  • Within 24 hours after compressed gas diving (scuba or surface supplied diving), a hyperbaric chamber mission, or aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes

  • Within 12 hours following a hypobaric chamber mission above 25,000 ft

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

What is the primary fatigue counter measure available to aircrew members?

Select one of the following:

  • Smart scheduling procedures aimed at managing those cycles, strategic inflight and/or ground napping techniques, and proper diet and exercise

  • No-Go pill

  • Appropriate management of sleep/rest cycles

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Aircrew members will limit use of Ambien (Zolpidem) and Restoril (Temazepam) to a maximum of seven consecutive days and no more than 20 days in a 60-day period.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

C2 agents shall not disturb an aircrew member in crew rest except __________.

Select one of the following:

  • When authorized by MAJCOM/A3/DO

  • During emergencies

  • If the MCD requires room changes to be in close proximity of the crew

  • A&B

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

What is the purpose of the assertive statement "Time Out"?

Select one of the following:

  • Provides a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of situational awareness.

  • Provides an opportunity to break the error chain before a mishap occurs

  • Notifies all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew departing from established guidelines, the briefed scenario, or that someone is simply uncomfortable with the developing conditions.

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

What is the goal of the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)?

Select one of the following:

  • To prevent mishaps by addressing unintentional errors, hazardous situations and events, or high-risk activities, not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through traditional safety reporting sources

  • To provide an anonymous means to complain about your commander

  • To ensure AECMs are punished for potentially unsafe behavior

  • the ASAP program is not intended for AECMs since we currently use a DD Form 2852 to report actual and near miss medical events

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

All AECMs will wear Nomex gloves during taxi, take-off, and landing

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

What will be accomplished prior to concurrent servicing (CS) on the C-17 or C-130?

Select one of the following:

  • Prior to starting concurrent servicing, the total number of patients, attendants, passengers, and crew on board the aircraft will be given to the fire department

  • The Passenger Compartment Monitor (PCM) will brief patients on emergency egress, exit prohibitions, and hazards. Ambulatory patients will remain seated but will not wear seatbelts during CS

  • Loading ramps/stairs are in place for immediate use and exits (excluding the overhead escape hatches) are opened for egress.

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

At what point during the PRICE check of the MA-1 portable walk-around bottle do you fit and adjust your harness?

Select one of the following:

  • P-Pressure

  • R-Regulator

  • I-Inspection

  • C-Connections

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Demonstration of onboard life sustaining equipment is required for all missions carrying passengers/patients.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

When AE crews are augmented for time, how is flight time documented on the AFTO Form 781?

Select one of the following:

  • All AECMs on the aircraft log primary time for the entire mission

  • The CN determines work/rest cycles

  • 5 crewmembers log primary time; 2 crewmembers are "resting" and log other time

  • All crewmembers will log primary and secondary time

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

If a Medical Emergency/Change in Patient Status in flight occurs, the MCD/AECMs will immediately notify the PIC regarding the gravity and nature of the situation and will also:

Select one of the following:

  • Coordinate to establish immediate radio communication with the Tactical Airlift Control Center/Air Mobility Operations Control Center/Air Operations Center/Patient Movement Requirements Center (TACC/AMOC/AOC/PMRC) for a physician and guidance for landing at an airfield capable of handling the situation, when indicated.

  • Notify the supporting TACC/AOC and PMRC regarding changes in patient status, mission irregularities, coordination of mission needs, and equipment/transportation requirements ASAP.

  • Be ready to communicate age, gender, diagnosis, subjective and objective data, including vital signs and pulse oximetry, known allergies, and for women of childbearing years, date of last menstrual cycle, if indicated. Also report treatment/interventions, date and time (if indicated) and the outcome

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Which of the following are effective CBRN Passive defense measures?

Select one of the following:

  • Up-to-date immunizations

  • Standard personal hygiene practices

  • The use of chemoprophylaxis

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

If the aircraft is configured with airline seats, the ______ will check the security of all patient/passenger seats by lifting upward on the front of the seat frame and gently pushing and pulling on the seat backs. Minimal movement is acceptable.

Select one of the following:

  • MCD

  • LM/BO

  • CMT

  • PIC

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

In the AE system, transfer of physical care is complete once:

Select one of the following:

  • The patient enters or exits the ground vehicle of transportation

  • The patient meets the representatives of the MTF

  • Patient report is completed

  • Patient records and medications are handed off

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

All of the following statements are correct except?

Select one of the following:

  • On missions with ventilator patients, AECM's will calculate pre-mission oxygen requirements using 14 LPM for all ventilators

  • Piror to enplaning ventilated CCATT patients, AEC and CCATT personnel will verify patient oxygen requirements

  • For C-17 mission, use the therapeutic oxygen as the primary source for ventilated patients

  • For KC-135 and C-130 missions, ventilated patients will have a dedicated PTLOX/NPTLOX

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

During Preflight Inspection, the interior inspection will be accomplished by using the abbreviated flight crew checklist; the _____________ is responsible for ensuring emergency passageways are clear.

Select one of the following:

  • Boom

  • MCD

  • CMT

  • None

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

When considering placement of an "H" sized compressed gas cylinder to a PSP for an AE mission, it should be secured:

Select one of the following:

  • To the floor, under the NTS with 2 cargo tie-down straps

  • On a litter and secured with 2 litter straps

  • Against the inner aspect of the stanchion with two cargo tie-down straps placed on the upper and lower portions of the H-tank.

  • At AECM duty station as a secondary emergency oxygen source

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed define a____________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Warning

  • Caution

  • Note

  • Suggestions

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) is the preferred _________________ oxygen, smoke, and fume protection.

Select one of the following:

  • AECM

  • Passenger

  • Crew member

  • CMT

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

Who is responsible for ensuring there are enough EPOS units for each AECM, patient, and attendants?

Select one of the following:

  • 3AET

  • CMT

  • AE Crew

  • MCD

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

The EPOS will not function without the removal of the________. If the red knob separates, grasp the lanyard to pull the __________ off the cylinder and then proceed to use the EPOS as directed.

Select one of the following:

  • Pin

  • Oxygen activator

  • metal tab

  • None

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

The PBE/EEBD is a _____minute self-contained, completely disposable breathing unit, with a solid state oxygen supply source.

Select one of the following:

  • 60

  • 30

  • 17

  • 15

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

AECMs are responsible for refilling and discharging the MA-1 oxygen issued by Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE). Prior to turn in the cylinder, the cylinder pressure will be reduced to between___ and ____ PSIG gage pressure.

Select one of the following:

  • 5/10

  • 8/30

  • 5/38

  • 5/28

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

The adult/child (A/C) LPU is the preferred LPU for AECMs and patient/passengers during ditching situations. The LPU can be used on children greater than _________ old.

Select one of the following:

  • 18 months

  • 14 years

  • 36 months

  • 7 years

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

PSP-S: Six PSP seats supporting up to six ambulatory patients, medical attendants or crewmembers. Each seat is rated to hold _______ LBS.

Select one of the following:

  • 320

  • 220

  • 160

  • 260

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

When three patients are transported on a PSP litter tower, each litter position is rated to hold____ LBS.

Select one of the following:

  • 350

  • 320

  • 300

  • 220

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

On the C-130 J aircraft, six 3-pin "household type" service outlets can be used with AE equipment that operates on 115 Volt/400 Hz. Each outlet will provide ___ amps for a total of ___ amps.

Select one of the following:

  • 20/60

  • 15/60

  • 30/90

  • 15/90

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

A primary 115V/60 Hz converter is installed on-board the C-17 which provides 60 Hz electrical power to the ____ aeromedical electrical outlet panels. There are two 115 VAC/60Hz outlets on each panel.

Select one of the following:

  • 12

  • 9

  • 6

  • 3

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

A minimum quantity of ____ liters of LOX is required for scheduled aeromedical evacuation missions on a C-17 originating from staged/home station.

Select one of the following:

  • 30

  • 45

  • 75

  • 100

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

To increase C-17 electrical amp capability, a Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter may be plugged directly into one of the 115-200V/400 Hz AC outlets located on the six aeromedical electrical outlet panels. Do not exceed 20 amps per aircraft left side and 20 amps per aircraft right side to the ______Hz system for a total of _____amps when using the Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter.

Select one of the following:

  • 200/20

  • 400/20

  • 400/40

  • 200/40

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

For the KC-135 the two primary egress points are the aft emergency escape hatch and the crew entry chute. The aft escape hatch is equipped with a slide; the crew entry chute is equipped with a ladder typically stored in the cargo compartment.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

The release of TCTO 1C-135-1806 provides three additional electrical outlets on the KC-135 R/T block, 40 aircraft. The three new outlets and the galley plug provide a total of ____ amps.

Select one of the following:

  • 180

  • 45

  • 135

  • 60

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

When connecting the pigtail adaptor to the galley plugs on the KC-135, ensure both circuit breakers marked ____________ and __________ are pulled.

Select one of the following:

  • Galley PWR/Station 445

  • circuit breaker/station 225

  • Frequency PWR/Galley PWR

  • Station 225/445

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

The KC-135 air conditioning system is not operated on the ground. AE crews will request ground air conditioning units when ambient air temperature is ___ degrees or greater.

Select one of the following:

  • 74

  • 84

  • 94

  • 104

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

Latrine capacity in the KC-135 is limited. If not equipped with the Improved Toilet Assembly (TCTO 1C-135-1596), the aircraft will depart home station with an operable latrine and a minimum of ___________________ and _________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Two rolls of toilet paper; two hand sanitizer dispensers

  • Two urine tubes; two latrine cartridges

  • Two extra flight suits; two sets of undergarments

  • Two urinals; two bed pans

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

A total of ___ litter patients can be floor-loaded on the C-130. An additional two pallet positions are available on the C-130J-30 model that can accommodate an additional___ litter patients.

Select one of the following:

  • 8, 6

  • 8, 3

  • 15, 6

  • 15, 3

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

On the C-17, a total of ____ litters patients can be floor-loaded. An additional ____ litters patients can be placed on the ramp for a maximum utilization of the aircraft.

Select one of the following:

  • 30/15

  • 48/12

  • 48/15

  • 30/12

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

On the KC-135 the maximum floor-loaded litter capacity is _____ patients. Maximum altitude for floor-loaded patients is flight level ______.

Select one of the following:

  • 10, 300

  • 8, 300

  • 8, 350

  • 15, 350

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

If a waiver request for a piece of non-certified/non-standard medical equipment is approved, there is no need to complete a DD Form 2852.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

It is the responsibility of the ___________ to ensure each aeromedical evacuation crewmember (AECM) and/or other medical personnel supporting AE elements assigned to their unit receives training on the applicable equipment contained within this publication.

Select one of the following:

  • AES CN

  • Unit property custodian

  • AES Commander

  • Chief of Aircrew Training

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

If equipment malfunction/failure occurs during an AE mission the MCD will ensure the following paperwork/actions are accomplished:

Select one of the following:

  • Complete AFTO 350

  • Upon arrival to home station, immediately send tagged equipment and all accessories to host medical equipment maintenance activity/MTF

  • Complete DD Form 2852

  • All

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

After delivery of all medical equipment from HQ AMC/SGXM, receipt of the Initial Capabilities Document, and AMC/A3TM generated training plan, the implementation phase will be as follows?

Select one of the following:

  • 90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

  • 90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

  • 45 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

  • 120 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

The following statements about the Minilator are correct, except:

Select one of the following:

  • The oxygen flow control valve, from the PTLOX/MOST system accessory kit, may be used with the Minilator.

  • Connect standard low-pressure oxygen hose to the connector, and the connector to the minilator inlet valve

  • the minilator was not designed for and will not be used to support ventilatory devices

  • prior to connecting to an oxygen source, a flow meter with index set at zero must be attached to any oxygen hose connected to the minilator

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

The Next-Generation Portable Therapeutic Liquid Oxygen (NPTLOX) System when filled with liquid oxygen (LOX) will provide for an uninterrupted supply of therapeutic oxygen. The system has the capacity to store _____ of liquid oxygen (LOX) and convert the LOX to a gaseous state.

Select one of the following:

  • 15 L

  • 20 L

  • 30 L

  • 10 L

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

The NONIN 9550 Onyx II has a tricolor LED display provides a visual indication of the pulse signal quality. Which of the following is not true?

Select one of the following:

  • Green indicates a good pulse signal

  • Yellow indicates a marginal pulse sigmal

  • Red indicates an inadequate pulse signal

  • Red indicates no pulse

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

During all operational and Aeromedical Readiness Missions, the MCD will document on the AF Form 3829, or on the computer generated TRAC2ES cover sheet the following?

Select one of the following:

  • total patient oxygen requirement

  • total pre-mission, mi-mission, and post-mission PTLOX/therapeutic oxygen level

  • max cabin altitude

  • All

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Synchronized cardioversion is permitted by ACLS flight nurses without physician supervision utilizing which piece of equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • zoll

  • philips

  • a and b

  • none

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

_______ and __________ indicate a mandatory requirement.

Select one of the following:

  • Should/may

  • will/shall

  • will/may

  • should/shall

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

The Propaq Encore monitor is not interchangeable with other monitors. Use of the Propaq SpO2 with other monitors will cause inaccurate readings.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

The Turbo cuff function on the Propaq Encore monitor will automatically measure NIBP at what intervals?

Select one of the following:

  • every 5 minutes

  • at an interval initiated by the user

  • Automatically and continues to take as many measurements as possible within five minutes

  • turbo cuff is not used in flight

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System do not exceed 45 amps for the unit or 15 amps for any one duplex receptacle.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System and connecting to aircraft power:

Select one of the following:

  • Always check the aircraft outlet with the ECAS tester

  • Check Ecas cords with ecas tester if connected to 60 Hz outlets on the C-17

  • Turn off the unit when connecting to aircraft power

  • All

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

If the ______ lamp is illuminated (steady light) on the Unitron Portable Power System, move the unit control on/off switch breaker to the off position, voltage being applied to the input of the portable power system is improper for unit operation.

Select one of the following:

  • Green

  • Yellow

  • Red

  • None

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Which of the following is true regarding the IMPACT 326M Portable Suction Unit?

Select one of the following:

  • The unit simultaneously operates and recharges the battery when plugged into either 115/230 VAC, 50-400 Hz or 28 VDC power source

  • The internal battery operates for a minimum of two hours and takes a maximum of 16 hours to recharge

  • The charge light will not illuminate if the battery is fully charged

  • All

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

When inserting tubing into the IVAC Medsystem III infusion pump; with tubing ______, use a 45 degree _______, motion to insert cassette into channel.

Select one of the following:

  • up/upward

  • down/upward

  • up/downward

  • down/downward

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

The Atrium Express 4050 Dry Seal Chest Drain is a disposable, waterless operating system with 2100 ml collection volume, dry suction regulator, and dry one-say valve for seal protection. Since this medical piece of equipment is approved for flight, ensure a Heimlich valve is in place

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Placement of the Atrium Express Dry Seal Chest Drain include:

Select one of the following:

  • Always place the chest drain below the patient's chest in an upright position

  • To avoid knocking over the chest drain, you may hang the system from the litter

  • The system is sealed and can be placed on its side

  • both a and b

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

When transporting an infant in the ALSS, take the temperature of the infant every ________unless directed otherwise by the medical attendant. Document temperature on Patient Evacuation Record (IMT 3899, Patient Movement Record).

Select one of the following:

  • 15 minutes

  • 30 minutes

  • hour

  • 2 hours

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

The NATO Litter Backrest is used to provide elevation for patient's head. The 90 degree position on the NATO litter backrest will not be used during __________.

Select one of the following:

  • Take off

  • Landing

  • Enplaning/Deplaning

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Use a minimum of ______ litter bearers to enplane The North American Rescue Over Sized Litter (OSL). However, there are four attached carrying straps on each side of the litter to accommodate up to ____ personnel.

Select one of the following:

  • 4/8

  • 6/8

  • 4/6

  • none

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

Ensure there are compatible/operable restraint keys available and caregivers know placement for leather restraints prior to flight.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

It is acceptable to use K-Y jelly or EKG gel with the Ultrasound Stethoscope Fetal Monitor-Medasonics Model FP3A if Ultrasound Coupling Agent is not available.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

The Aircraft Wireless Intercom System (AWIS) is approved for use on the following:

Select one of the following:

  • c-17 and c-130

  • c-21

  • kc-135

  • a and c

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

The primary goal of AE medical transport is to meet the perceived, actual, or potential health needs of the patient, while maintaining the continuum of care. _______________ are responsible for assuring the clinical currency of assigned personnel.

Select one of the following:

  • MAJCOM Functionals

  • CN

  • Superintendents

  • Commanders

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Matching an individual's ongoing needs with the appropriate level and type of medical, psychological, health, or social service within an organization and across multiple organizations is ________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Standards of Practice

  • Continuum of Care

  • Standards of Care

  • Standards of Performance

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

The MCD may assign a lower classification if the patient's condition warrants a downgrade.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

DNR orders will not be more than _______ hours before the originating flight.

Select one of the following:

  • 36

  • 24

  • 72

  • 96

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Documentation of double-checks will be reflected by two signatures on required forms/flow sheets or on the AF Form 3899A. This is applicable to___________________.

Select one of the following:

  • ASFs/CASFs, CCATTs and AECMs

  • AECM

  • ASF and CASF only

  • CCATT and AECM

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

_____________are required and recorded on patients with elevated temperatures, suspected or known infections, or abnormal pulse rates.

Select one of the following:

  • Temperature, respiration, and blood pressure

  • Respiration, pulse, blood pressure

  • Temperature, pulse, and respiration

  • Temperature pulse, blood pressure

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

At altitude, the treatment for hyperventilation and hypoxia of the AE patient is identical. Administer high flow O2 and encourage slow deep breathing.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

Pulse oximetry reading may not be accurate in carbon monoxide poisoning.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

__________________ and ______________ are signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax.

Select one of the following:

  • Tracheal shift to affected side of hypertension

  • Absent breath sounds on unaffected side and hypertension

  • Distended neck veins and hypotension

  • Hypertension and diminished breath sounds on affected side

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

In normal situations, patients with recently removed chest tubes will not be airlifted until the following conditions are met, which of the following is not correct:

Select one of the following:

  • A minimum of 24 hours post chest tube removal

  • Expiratory and lordotic chest x-ray at least 24 hours post chest tube removal with the interpretation documented in the patients medical records

  • Occlusive dressing is applied to the site where the chest tube was removed

  • A backup chest tube is inserted.

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

What conditions require immediate transport and contact with the burn team, if the situation allows.

Select one of the following:

  • -Burns involving >10% total body surface (TBS) in children and adults over 50 years old.

  • -3rd degree burns >5% TBS.

  • -Significant electrical injury (including lighting).

  • (All of the above)

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

For burn patients, fluid resuscitation calls for one-half of the total amount to be infused over the first ____ hours from the time of injury, and the second half infused over the following ____ hours.

Select one of the following:

  • 16 / 8

  • 8 / 16

  • 4 / 20

  • 20 / 4

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Accurate administration of IV therapy poses one of the greatest concerns in-flight. IV drip rates will be reevaluated____________.

Select one of the following:

  • -After descent

  • -After a rapid decompression

  • -Once cruise altitude is reached

  • (All of the above)

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

____________ in head injured patients can be catastrophic because cerebral blood vessels cannot auto regulate and therefore cannot constrict to preserve cerebral blood flow during hypotension. When auto regulation is lost, massive cerebral vasodilation occurs, and secondarily _______ ICP.

Select one of the following:

  • Hypotension / Increase

  • Hypertension / Decrease

  • Hypotension / Decrease

  • Hypertension / Increase

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Prior to initiating transcutaneous pacing (TCP) with an approved AE cardiac monitor/defibrillator, the flight nurse will contact Command and Control (C2) for_______________

Select one of the following:

  • - Pain medication

  • - Sedation orders

  • - Mission diversion

  • (All of the above)

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

Casualties displaying any of the Military Acute Concussion Evaluation (MACE) "red flags" which include ______________ should be referred for additional medical evaluation as soon as operationally possible.

Select one of the following:

  • Diarrhea

  • Seizures

  • Double vision

  • b and c

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

When caring for a Patient with a Negative-Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT) system complete the following:

Select one of the following:

  • Assess patient comfort and system function every 2 hours inflight.

  • Should not interrupt therapy for greater than two hours within a twenty-four hour period due to the potential for infection.

  • -For non-correctable system failures inflight, if the patient's destination is > than 2 hours away, the overlying occlusive film should be opened by making 2-3 slits into the film to allow for wound drainage. DO NOT remove the occlusive film or the sponge inside the wound for risk of bleeding or wound contamination. A dry dressing should then be applied over the site and reinforced as needed. Report system failure and actions taken to receiving facility during handoff for follow-on care.

  • All

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Ideally, plaster casts should be at least ______ hours old to allow for possible soft tissue expansion after an acute injury.

Select one of the following:

  • 12

  • 24

  • 48

  • 36

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Patients who are beyond the 20th week of pregnancy are not routinely accepted for AE, but will be moved if determined necessary by a physician.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

______________ is the single most important method for preventing the spread of infection.

Select one of the following:

  • PPE

  • Standard Precaution

  • Hand Washing

  • Isolation

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

If a patient is exhibiting aggressive and uncontrollable behavior, is extremely agitated and violent, and/or is determined to be a danger to flight safety, self or others on the aircraft, give PRN medication as ordered. If no PRN medication is ordered, give __________________ IAW established guidance.

Select one of the following:

  • Haldol and valium

  • Valium or versed

  • Haldol or valium

  • Haldol and versed

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

When utilizing leather restraints, perform observation/documentation every ____ minutes. Use AF IMT 3899G, Patient Movement Restraint Observation Flowsheet.

Select one of the following:

  • 5

  • 15

  • 30

  • 60

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Hand off of epidural analgesia/peripheral nerve block infusions include:

Select one of the following:

  • -An independent double-check is two medical persons familiar with the process/equipment/medication (at least one being a registered nurse), independently verifying the practitioner's/provider's orders, medication hanging, and the correct set up of PCA or IV pump in use (rate, dose, volume to infuse, medication concentration, basal rate, bolus lockout, etc.).

  • - A patient hand-off will be completed and documented each time a different clinician accepts care of the patient.

  • - Documentation of double-checks will be reflected by two signatures on required forms/flow sheets or on the AF Form 3899A.

  • (All the above)

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

When treating a patient for known or suspected narcotic overdose, if the patient is unresponsive to Narcan, what should be administered next?

Select one of the following:

  • Dextrose 50% IVP, repeat as needed

  • Dextrose 50% IVP one time only

  • Epinephrine 1mg IVP one time only

  • Epinephrine, 1mg

Explanation

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