ERIC MATHEW ROSAROSO
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TO HELP ME STUDY FOR THE NAT DAY

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ERIC MATHEW ROSAROSO
Created by ERIC MATHEW ROSAROSO over 1 year ago
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PH - NAT EXAM FOR GRADE 12

Question 1 of 200

1

the basic aim of physical education: dance.

Select one of the following:

  • A. to engage students in a collaborative process.

  • B. develops full potential as human being.

  • C. to love oneself.

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

the basic aim of physical education: physical fitness.

Select one of the following:

  • A. to love oneself.

  • B. develops full potential as human being.

  • C. to engage students in a collaborative process.

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

Dance as an Art.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Is a rhythmic and expressive movement of the body in
    successive movement usually accompanied by music. It has been said
    to be mother of the arts, for it’s the oldest of the art which actually
    reflects man’s age old need to communicate different emotions such
    as joy, grief, excitement and others.

  • B. To engage students in a collaborative process.

  • C. Develops full potential as human being.

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

Features of Dance.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Music, Sleeping, Theme, Techniques, Design, Properties and Costume

  • B. Music, Movement, Theme, Techniques, Design, Properties and Costume

  • C. Eating, Playing, Music, Netflix, Chilling

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

Kinds of Dance

Select one of the following:

  • A. Ethnologic, Social, Ballroom, Folk , Occupational

  • B. Hip-Hop, Social, Ballroom, Folk , Occupational

  • C. Ethnologic, Social, Ballroom, Folk , Classic

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

The Elements of Dance.

Select one of the following:

  • A. time, speed, rhythm, space, place, size, level, direction, pathway, energy, weight, body, movement concepts

  • B. netflix and chill

  • C. lazing, sleeping, playing, eating, nle

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

DANCE (CARIÑOSA)

Select one of the following:

  • A. a dance to look cool

  • B. a dance made for flirting

  • C. a dance to get grades

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which of the following statements describes the term “Dance”?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Dance is simply standing and kicking of feet.

  • B. Dance is a natural expression of united feelings and action.

  • C. Dance is a clapping of hands and stamping of feet.

  • D. Dance is shaking hips and shoulders.

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

This element of dance involves the dancers moving swiftly and smoothly in both space and time.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Energy

  • B. Action

  • C. Body

  • D. Space

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

What specific is considered if a dancer goes across space in every way possible, changing their level and direction?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Action

  • B. Space

  • C. Body

  • D. Time

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

As a dancer, one of the elements to consider is the relation of movements to rhythm and meter of the music, which of these elements corresponds to the consideration?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Action

  • B. Space

  • C. Body

  • D. Time

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

This is the primary instrument of dance where there is a need to train agility and strength.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Action

  • B. Space

  • C. Body

  • D. Time

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

The following are the benefits of dance, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • A. Improves the condition of the heart

  • B. Development of frequency

  • C. Weight management

  • D. Develop self-confidence

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

Following are reasons why people dance, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • A. It is a requirement of faith and worship

  • B. It is an expression of joy one feels

  • C. It gives beauty and inspiration to others

  • D. It serves to entertain others

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

How will you describe dance with dynamic element?

Select one of the following:

  • A. if it is utilizing variation of force and intensity of movements

  • B. if uses softness and loudness of movements

  • C. if applies movement elevation and equality

  • D. if employs force and energy

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

What will happen to a choreographed dance that didn't acknowledge the theme element's existence?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It could be boring

  • B. There is no variation of movements

  • C. There is no concept

  • D. It has no rhythm

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

Which of the following statements, best define "Dance” according to function?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Dance plays an important role in religious ritual in which performers work themselves to receive power.

  • B. Dance is used to convey war by performing skill like of the animal.

  • C. Dance displays vigor and attractiveness like courtship dance.

  • D. Dance is used for recreational purpose like that of hunting animals.

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

What is Folk Dancing?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It is a form of social dancing that has become part of the customs and tradition of the people.

  • B. It is an expressive dance that combines elements of several dance genres.

  • C. It is highly style of dance that challenges the structured dance technique.

  • D. It is a kind of dance that have a social function and context.

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Which of the following choices is NOT a Philippine Folkdance?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Tinikling

  • B. Maglalatik

  • C. Singkil

  • D. Karikázó

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Which of these dance genres where dancers perform “Saludo”?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Ballroom

  • B. Dance Sports

  • C. Folkdance

  • D. Contemporary

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

Which of these statements is TRUE to Folk Dancing?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Feet movements play an important part.

  • B. It is performed individually

  • C. Movements are more about skipping

  • D. Dancers stand apart

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

Which of these would you likely use if you were asked to choreograph a religious dance?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Creating movements that would show about fortune, peace and war.

  • B. Performing movements that provides pleasure in pair or group of people.

  • C. Presenting movements for entertainment purposes only

  • D. Executing movements with rhythm and coordination.

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Which of the following dances is a Religious Dance?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Hakyadan of Agusan del Sur which is to perform for the call of spirit.

  • B. Tinikling dance that imitates the movement of tikling bird.

  • C. Maglalatik that demonstrates occupation.

  • D. Itik-itik which imitates the movements of duck.

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

What is the difference between Folkdance and Ethnic?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Folkdance is participatory and traditional while ethnic is expressing the aesthetic movements of culture.

  • B. Folkdance is an expression of aesthetic movement of culture while ethnic is participatory.

  • C. Folkdance is a coded step and while ethnic is following rhythm and dynamic.

  • D. Folkdance is for dynamic and time while ethnic is coded.

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

When you try to explore and improve dance movements, which of these choices is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Creative Rhythms

  • B. Body Rhythms

  • C. Social Dance

  • D. Recreational Dance

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

How do you describe social dance?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It is during formal gatherings or atmosphere in which the recreational dances are the usual forms.

  • B. It communicates the customs, beliefs, rituals and occupations of the people of a region.

  • C. It is when using the body parts which serves as an instrument of expression.

  • D. This is composed of simple patterns and combination of steps and waltz.

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

The setting of this particular phase of dance is usually informal gatherings and parties, reunions, etc.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Creative Rhythms

  • B. Ethnic Dance

  • C. Social Dance

  • D. Recreational Dance

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

Which of the following tools is used to assess if you fall under HIGH-RISK, MODERATE-RISK or LOW-RISK Category.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Physical Exercise Readiness Tool

  • B. Physical Action Readiness Questionnaire

  • C. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire

  • D. Physical Exercise Readiness Questionnaire

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

Joana is a dancer who wants to start an intense workout regimen. She has recently been exhausted and experienced shortness of breath. Which danger category from the list below she possibly fall into?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Low Risk Category

  • B. High Risk Category

  • C. Moderate Risk Category

  • D. Low or Moderate Category

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

If Joana falls into Moderate Risk Category, which of the following risk stratification she must undergo?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Joana is safe to begin high intensity exercise.

  • B. Joana is safe to begin exercising without further assessment or need for supervision.

  • C. Joana is safe to begin light or moderate intensity exercise, but a medical clearance is required.

  • D. Joana should undergo further medical testing and physician clearance before starting an exercise program.

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

Which of the following choices below is a reliable method of monitoring one’s heart rate?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Pulse Rate

  • B. Intensity Rat

  • C. Exercise Rate

  • D. Physical Activity Rate

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

Brenda, a 30-year-old inactive lady, wants to participate in vigorous dancing exercise since she is depressed. She appeared to have no other ailments and passed the PARQ. When she does straightforward dance moves, she still has some joint pain. Which of the following risk groups would Brenda potentially fall into?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Low Risk Category

  • B. High Risk Category

  • C. Moderate Risk Category

  • D. Low or Moderate Category

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

Aerobic dance is one of cardiorespiratory endurance exercises in which this component on health-related fitness is being determined by the VO2max. What is VO2max?

Select one of the following:

  • A. VO2max is the maximum amount of oxygen the human body can utilize per hour of physical activity.

  • B. VO2max is the minimum amount of oxygen the human body can utilize per hour of physical activity.

  • C. VO2max is the maximum amount of oxygen the human body can utilize per minute of physical activity.

  • D. VO2max is the minimum amount of oxygen the human body can utilize per minute of physical activity.

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Which of the following physical activities best represent for functionality of the body through muscular strength and flexibility?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Burpees and Jogging

  • B. Brisk walking and Running

  • C. Resistance training and Stretching

  • D. Kettle bell swing and Push ups position plank

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

A healthy dancer can perform physical activity for longer periods of time without tiring quickly. Which of the following health-related elements best exemplifies the statement?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Flexibility

  • B. Muscular Strength

  • C. Muscular Endurance

  • D. Cardiovascular Endurance

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

Which of these statements supports the concept about Muscular Endurance?

Select one of the following:

  • A. This is a component under health related fitness that could generate force repeatedly.

  • B. It is under the component of skill-related fitness that could generate force abruptly.

  • C. Muscular endurance is under health related component that could generate force abruptly.

  • D. Muscular endurance is under skill related component of fitness that could generate force repeatedly.

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

What is the difference between muscular strength and muscular endurance?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Muscular strength usually determined using two repetition maximum while muscular endurance requires no force against resistance.

  • B. Muscular strength requires no force against resistance while muscular endurance usually determined using two repetition maximum.

  • C. Muscular strength is simply to exert maximum force against a resistance while muscular endurance is the ability of the muscles to exert force repeatedly over a period.

  • D. Muscular strength is the ability of the muscles to exert force repeatedly over a period while muscular endurance is to exert maximum force against a resistance.

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

What is the training intensity of a 23-year-old dancer at 40% with a resting heart rate of 70 bpm?

Select one of the following:

  • A. 120.8 bpm

  • B. 127 bpm

  • C. 127.8 bpm

  • D. 128.7 bpm

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

What is the training intensity of Sylvia, a 20-year-old dancer, if she has a 50% resting heart rate of 70 bpm?

Select one of the following:

  • A. 143.6 bpm

  • B. 133.5 bpm

  • C. 153.7 bpm

  • D. 163.8 bpm

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

What is the training intensity of a 25-year-old dancer who is at 60% and has a resting heart rate of 70bpm?

Select one of the following:

  • A. 146.2 bpm

  • B. 156.3 bpm

  • C. 166.4 bpm

  • D. 176.5 bpm

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

What is the training intensity of a 23-year-old dancer at 85% with a resting heart rate of 70bpm?

Select one of the following:

  • A. 178.96 bpm

  • B. 177.95 bpm

  • C. 179.98 bpm

  • D. 176.94 bpm

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

Susan works harder than usual during her dancing training session in attempt to adjust.. She worked beyond her usual training time. What training exercise principle did Susan apply?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Principle of Progression

  • B. Principle of Specificity

  • C. Principle of Overload

  • D. Principle of Individuality

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

Earth is the planet we live on, and the only place in the universe known to support life. Which of the following statements accurately describes this characteristic?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It has soil where trees grow.

  • B. It has trees that provide oxygen.

  • C. It has liquid water in the surface.

  • D. It is a home to a variety of complex organisms.

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

Which of the following factors are required for an organism to survive on Earth?
I. Earth has an atmosphere and ozone layer.
II. Earth has both water cycle and nitrogen cycle.
III. Earth has natural activities to circulate nutrients.
IV. Earth can protect the organism from any possible threat.

Select one of the following:

  • A. I & II only

  • B. I & III only

  • C. I, II, III only

  • D. I, II, III, & IV

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

What makes human and other living organisms capable to live on Earth?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Earth can provide food for the organism.

  • B. Earth can protect the organism from any possible threat.

  • C. Earth’s temperature is mostly hot compared to other planets.

  • D. Earth has the right amount of temperature, water, good atmosphere, and favorable climate.

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

You observed an Earth-sized like planet in a distant galaxy. Based on the data, the planet is at the same distance from its star, like Earth to its star-the sun. It is also covered with a thick atmosphere which is composed of carbon dioxide and shows no volcanic activity. What can you infer from these data?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The Earth-like planet is hot and nutrient cycling occurs.

  • B. The Earth-like planet is cold and nutrient cycling occurs.

  • C. The Earth-like planet is hot and no nutrient cycling occurs.

  • D. The Earth-like planet is cold and no nutrient cycling occurs.

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

What subsystems are interacting when carbon dioxide dissolves from the air into the ocean?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Atmosphere and biosphere

  • B. Atmosphere and lithosphere

  • C. Atmosphere and hydrosphere

  • D. Atmosphere and lithosphere

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

During the 1800’s, miners can identify real gold from pyrite through biting the surface of the mineral. If a bite mark is exhibited, then the said mineral is considered real gold. What property is tested in this scenario?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Cleavage

  • B. Luster

  • C. Hardness

  • D. Streak color

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

While walking at the beach, Angela found a rock sample with shells and pebbles embedded. What type of rock did she find?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Igneous rock

  • B. Metamorphic rock

  • C. Sedimentary rock

  • D. Ore body rock

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

A mineral is inorganic. Which of the following supports this statement?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Minerals is uniform in appearance and is in solid state of matter

  • B. Any material that is formed in laboratories is not considered a mineral

  • C. Bones, shells, teeth and other hard parts of an organism are not minerals

  • D. Both graphite and diamond are made up of carbon but their carbon atoms are arranged differently.

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Imagine that you work at a jeweler's shop and someone brings in some "gold nuggets" that they want to sell. The person claims that an old prospector found the gold nuggets during the gold rush. You are not sure if the nuggets are real gold. Which identification tests would you do to help you decide the nuggets' identity?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Vinegar test

  • B. Hallmark test

  • C. Nitric acid test

  • D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

Fossil fuels are derived from which of the following sources?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Organic matter on the crust surface

  • B. Organic matter trapped in igneous rock

  • C. Organic matter trapped in sedimentary rock

  • D. Non-organic matter trapped in metamorphic rock

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Based from the Department of Energy 2017 power statistics, coal is the main source of energy in the Philippines. What do you think might happen if coal reserves run out?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It will result to decreasing number of air pollutants.

  • B. It will decrease the energy resources present in the Philippines.

  • C. It will not affect Philippines economy because it is an infinite resource.

  • D. It will decrease the number of air pollutants and energy resources in the country.

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

How does geothermal energy work?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Uses water from the earth

  • B. Uses potential energy

  • C. Uses heat from the core of earth

  • D. Uses heat from atmosphere

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

People have a long history of using the force of water flowing in streams and rivers to produce mechanical energy. Which of the following best describes the aforementioned statement?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Milling

  • B. Cutting

  • C. Sewing

  • D. Molding

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT true about the impact of geothermal energy resource to the environment?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The construction of geothermal power plants destroys natural habitat disrupting ecological niche.

  • B. Geothermal features in national parks, such as geysers and fumaroles, making the site promotes sustainability.

  • C. Geothermal power plants do not burn fuel to generate electricity, so the levels of air pollutants they emit are low.

  • D. Most geothermal power plants inject the geothermal steam and water that they use back into the earth for recycling purposes.

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from hot water geothermal source?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Drilling well hot water generator steam

  • B. Drilling well hot water steam generator

  • C. Generator hot water steam Drilling well

  • D. Generator steam hot water Drilling well

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

Hydropower, or hydroelectric power, is one of the oldest and largest sources of renewable energy, which uses the natural flow of moving water to generate electricity. Knowing this made you preferable to build hydropower plant over the other because which do you think are your reasons?
I. It does not generate greenhouse gases and other emissions.
II. It has an extremely long life and the technology is highly reliable III. It is extremely efficient, with 90% of the water’s energy converted into electricity.
IV. Dams can damage or otherwise impact the environment both upstream and downstream through their construction process

Select one of the following:

  • A. I, II, III only

  • B. I, II, IV only

  • C. I, III, IV only

  • D. I, II, III, IV

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Water covers about 71% of the earth's surface. Despite its abundance, we continue to lack water suitable for human consumption.
In relation to the circumstance, which of the following options is TRUE?
I. Most fresh water are stored in ice caps, glaciers, ponds, lakes, rivers, streams, and underground water.
II. Most Earth’s water is saline water
III. Surface water is more abundant than ground water.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only statement III is false.

  • B. Only statement I is true.

  • C. Statements I and III are true.

  • D. Statements I and II are false

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

What is the massive driver of pollution?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Population

  • B. Urbanization

  • C. Development

  • D. Climate change

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

Water conservation is the practice of using water efficiently to reduce unnecessary water usage. Which activity should you AVOID for us not to contribute WASTE the MOST per day at home?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Running the tap while washing dishes

  • B. Using a garbage disposal

  • C. Long showers

  • D. A leaky toilet

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Which of the following ways can protect and prevent depletion of the soil?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Fertilization

  • B. Afforestation

  • C. Monitor Growth

  • D. Control Storm Water

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

In what way you can help maintaining the soil moisture content?

Select one of the following:

  • A. by planting trees

  • B. by applying fertilizers

  • C. by applying pesticides

  • D. by planting crops and applying fertilizers

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

The Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004 known as Republic Act No. 9275 is an act providing for a comprehensive water quality management which aims to protect the country's water bodies from pollution. Which of the following activities and its purpose is falsely stated?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Use of water for domestic purposes - means the utilization of water for drinking, washing, bathing, cooking or other household needs, home gardens and watering of lawns or domestic animals;

  • B. Use of water for irrigation - means the utilization of water for producing agricultural crops;

  • C. Use of water for livestock raising - means the utilization of water for recreational purposes.

  • D. Use of water for municipal purposes - means the utilization of water for supplying water requirements of the community.

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

How do you assess the impact of soil cultivation?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It does have an impact, only positive.

  • B. It negatively impacts our soil due to putting fertilizer in the soil.

  • C. It positively impacts our soil due to putting fertilizer and herbicide in the soil.

  • D. It is positive in the sense that it provides needed resources. However, it negatively impacts our soil due to pollution and causes desertification.

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Which of the following agricultural techniques or farming practices below involves immediately depositing seeds into untilled soil that has retained previous crop residues?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Cover crops

  • B. Crop rotation

  • C. No-till farming

  • D. Contour plowing

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

Solid Waste Management (SWM) is considered to be one of the most serious environmental issues in the Philippines. What legal basis provide the necessary policy framework, institutional mechanisms and mandate to the local government unites (LGUs) to achieve 25% waste reduction through establishing an integrated solid waste management plans based on 3Rs (reduce, reuse and recycling)?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The Republic Act (RA) 9003, otherwise known as the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000

  • B. Integrated Waste management Plan of Environmental Protection Agency

  • C. Philippine Regulations on Sanitation and Wastewater Systems

  • D. The 2030 Sustainable Development Goal

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

In times of Covid-19 pandemic, many people used facemasks to protect themselves. As a responsible citizen, in which type of waste you are going to classify used facemasks?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Solid waste

  • B. Liquid waste

  • C. Organic waste

  • D. Hazardous waste

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

Sanitary and municipal fills and waste heaps are unavoidable hazardous due to the following factors.
1. Leachate
2. Emanating gases
3. Rodents and wandering animals
4. Automobile workshops that seem to have an affinity for such neighborhoods
Which of the above are correct

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1 and 4 only

  • B. 1 and 2 only

  • C. 2 and 3 only

  • D. 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

What do you call that process which exhibits the breaking down of rocks on the earth’s surface that may cause changes in its composition?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Erosion

  • B. Deposition

  • C. Mass wasting

  • D. Weathering

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

A marble statue of our national hero, Dr. Jose P. Rizal that is situated in your hometown Plaza is left exposed to the weather. Within a few years, the details on the statue have begun to weather away. What is the probable cause of this weathering?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Abrasion

  • B. Lichens

  • C. Oxygen in the air

  • D. Carbonic acid in rainwater

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Why do geologists call on convection, rather than conduction, in order for heat to transfer from the core to the crust?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Conduction of heat is far too fast and efficient relative to convection, so the Earth would have cooled completely by now.

  • B. Conduction of heat is far too slow, but efficient relative to convection, so the Earth would have cooled almost completely by now.

  • C. Conduction of heat is far too slow and inefficient relative to convection, so the Earth would not have produced much cooling thus far.

  • D. Conduction of heat is far too fast and inefficient relative to convection, so the Earth would heat up to a higher temperature than it is now.

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

Your father just got a promotion and his already high salary was even doubled but you family had to move to Camiguin island several kilometers away from Mount Hibok-hibok which is an active volcano. Having known that you live near an active volcano, what information should you know and preparations should you take in case the volcano will show signs of eruption?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Interview local community folks in the island about the past eruptions of the volcano and asked what they did.

  • B. Check out the website of PHILVOLCS and read on the past eruption history of Mt. Hibok-Hibok from your local library.

  • C. Search the internet or other resources for pertinint data about Mt. Hibok-Hibok, talk to long-time residents or officials in the area, and discuss with your family a possible volcanin disaster
    preparedness plan.

  • D. Be prepared for a possible volcanic eruption by keeping and regularly maintaining a bag of clothes, footwear, non-perishable goods, bottled water, toiletries, flashlight, batteries, and cash which is always ready to carry anytime.

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

What sequence of rock types will shale pass through with successively higher grades of metamorphism?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Shale, phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist, partial melting.

  • B. Shale, phyllite, slate, schist, gneiss, partial melting.

  • C. Shale, slate, phyllite, gneiss, schist, partial melting.

  • D. Shale, slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss, partial melting.

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

The picture below shows a rock with deformed structure and intergrown crystals. What rock was probably formed?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Sediments that were deposited on the ocean floor

  • B. Heat and pressure that changed a preexisting rock

  • C. Volcanic lava that cooled on Earth’s surface

  • D. A meteor impact on Earth’s surface

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

What happened to the rocks under shear stress?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The rocks are squeezed.

  • B. The rocks fold or fracture.

  • C. The rocks are pulled apart.

  • D. The rock walls slip to each other on opposite direction.

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Lino played a clay bar. He pushed the two sides of the clay bar using equal force from her hands on the same axis. What do you think is the type of stress did he exert on the clay bar?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Direct stress

  • B. Shear stress

  • C. Tensional stress

  • D. Compressional stress

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Which of the following statement supports the reason of shrinking of the Pacific Ocean?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The plates are converging

  • B. Water is evaporating quickly near the equator

  • C. It has less glaciers melting into it than the Atlantic

  • D. Ocean crust in the Pacific is getting recycled faster than it’s being created

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

The San Andreas Fault System is a continental transform fault that extends roughly 1,200 kilometers (750 mi) through California. It forms the tectonic boundary between the Pacific Plate and the North American Plate . How would you describe the geologic process on how it was formed?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It is a convergent plate boundary resulting from two tectonic plates moving toward each other

  • B. It is a transform-plate boundary resulting from two plates sliding past each other, horizontally

  • C. Divergent Plate Boundary resulting from two tectonic plates moving away from each other.

  • D. Hot Spot resulting from intensely hot area in the mantle below Earth's crust.

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

How can you infer the difference between a guyot and a seamount?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Seamounts at one point reached the surface and was eroded away by wind and waves but guyots kept its mountain like shape.

  • B. Guyots at one point reached the surface and was eroded away by wind and waves but seamount kept its mountain-like shape.

  • C. Seamounts are cone shaped volcanoes, and biologically, that would scientifically confirm that there is no difference from guyots

  • D. Seamount have been weathered by wave and becomes a guyot, a cone shaped volcano

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

Which of the following resulted to the formation of new crust from magma that rises to the earth’s surface between two plate boundaries?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Strike fault

  • B. Divergent boundary

  • C. Transform boundary

  • D. Convergent boundary

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

Which of the following is associated with the discovery of seafloor spreading?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Mountains and Volcanoes are denser than mantle

  • B. Rotational pole of the earth has migrated or moved.

  • C. The crust of the continents is denser than the crust of the ocean

  • D. The crust of the oceans is very young relative to the age of the crust of the continents.

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

The diagram below shows a drill core of sediment that was taken from the bottom of a lake
Which types of rock would most likely form from compaction and cementation of these sediments?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Shale and coal

  • B. Breccia and rock salt

  • C. Sandstone and limestone

  • D. Conglomerate and siltstone

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Which statement best describes the processes of weathering and erosion?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the amount of water in a river that transports sediments to the sea.

  • B. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the transportation, deposition and compaction of loose sediments on the seafloor

  • C. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for depositing loose sediments on the bottom of the ocean, forming layers of sediment

  • D. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the breakdown of any type of rock into smaller particles and the carrying away of the loose sediments

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

Radiometric dating, often called radioactive dating, is a technique used to determine the age of materials such as rocks. What is being measured in radiometric dating?

Select one of the following:

  • A. the amount of the parent isotope only

  • B. when the dated mineral became part of a sedimentary rock

  • C. the time of crystallization of a mineral containing an isotope

  • D. the time when the radioactive isotope formed, prior to being incorporated into a mineral.

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

If you are a geologist, how does the principle of faunal succession allow you to correlate rock strata in different geographic locations?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It states that layers of rock strata at different locations can be correlated according to the unique set of fossils they contain.

  • B. It states that the fossils in rock strata are older than the rock layers, allowing geologists to link younger and older layers across a region

  • C. It states that the evolution of fossils in one region should correlate with the evolution of fossils through different rock strata in another region

  • D. It states that fossils within rock strata are mostly homogeneous, suggesting that rock strata throughout a region should reveal similar sets of fossils.

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

The age of the Earth is based on the radioactive isotopic dating of meteorites. How old is the Earth based on its history?

Select one of the following:

  • A. 4.3 billion years old

  • B. 4.4 billion years old

  • C. 4.5 billion years old

  • D. 4.6 billion years old

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

You are having your vacation then suddenly while on the road trip you see this amazing rock formation shown in Figure 1 below. Which of the following principles of relative dating is NOT used in determining whether the rocks are of the same age?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Inclusion

  • B. Superposition

  • C. Lateral Continuity

  • D. Original Horizontality

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

Which conclusion can be made when observing fossils buried in a different layer of rock?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Shallow layers are older fossils than the deeper layers

  • B. The deeper layers are older fossils than the shallow layers

  • C. The deeper layers are younger fossils than the shallow layers

  • D. Shallow layers are the same age fossils with the deeper layers

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Index fossil is an abundant and easily identifiable fossil with a wide geographic distribution and a short geologic range. From figure 5 below, which animal fossils are considered index fossils?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Fern

  • B. Coral

  • C. Trilobite

  • D. Ammonite

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Which era were dinosaurs, small mammals, flowering plants, and birds found?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Cenozoic

  • B. Mesozoic

  • C. Paleozoic

  • D. Quaternary

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

A fossil of an ancient fish was dug up along with fossilized leaves of fern- like plants. In which environment was this fossil probably formed?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Hot jungle

  • B. Arctic sea

  • C. Hot dessert

  • D. Warm swamp

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Which refers to the only planet in the solar system that gave rise to complex life?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Earth

  • B. Mars

  • C. Mercury

  • D. Venus

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

Major human activities cause great destructions on Earth’s subsystems. Since energy and matter is cycled within the spheres and being part of the system, these harmful activities bring forth destruction to us in a boomerang effect. One example of this is the Global warming. As a student, what recommendation can you give to solve this problem?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Report the violators to the United Nations.

  • B. Just ignore and continue your daily routines.

  • C. Be active in advocating change by rallying outside government hall.

  • D. Start the change from yourself by not contributing pollution to the environment.

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

Which of the following inference can be made about the two minerals?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Olivine can scratch hematite.

  • B. Hematite can scratch olivine.

  • C. The two minerals can scratch each other.

  • D. Neither of the two could scratch the other.

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

Which chemical groups do these two minerals belong?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Olivine = oxide; hematite = sulfate

  • B. Olivine = silicate; hematite = oxide

  • C. Olivine = sulfate; hematite = oxide

  • D. Olivine = oxide; hematite = silicate

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

Which of these areas do most sedimentary rocks usually form?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Volcanoes

  • B. Mountains

  • C. Plain lands

  • D. Bodies of water

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

Which of the following correctly describes physical weathering?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Rust changes the color of the rock.

  • B. A carabao steps on and crushes a limestone.

  • C. A year of acid rain deforms a rock monument.

  • D. Running water transports rock to other places.

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Which of the following terms refers to the thickest layer, made mostly of iron, magnesium, and silicon, that is dense, hot, and semi-solid?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Core

  • B. Crust

  • C. Lithosphere

  • D. Mantle

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

Which of the following statements correctly describes inner core and outer core?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The inner core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot, while the outer core is the thickest layer, made mostly of magnesium and silicon.

  • B. The inner core is the thickest layer, made mostly of magnesium and silicon, while the outer core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay.

  • C. The inner core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot, while the outer core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay.

  • D. The inner core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay, while the outer core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot.

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

When the magma is formed, it rises toward the Earth’s surface. But not all magma behaves in the same way, just like granitic and basaltic magma. Based on the table, which of the following statements correctly differentiate granitic and basaltic magma?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Granitic magma is composed of 70% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 50% silica and 1-2% water.

  • B. Granitic magma is composed of 50% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 70% silica and 1-2% water.

  • C. Granitic magma is composed of 70% silica and 1-2% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 50% silica and 10-15% water.

  • D. Granitic magma is composed of 50% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 70% silica and 10-15% water.

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Which from the following statements below correctly conclude the movement of both basaltic and granitic magma toward the Earth’s surface?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Basaltic magma typically solidifies within the Earth’s crust, while granitic magma rises all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano.

  • B. Basaltic magma rises all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from
    a volcano, while granitic magma typically solidifies within the Earth’s crust.

  • C. Neither basaltic magma nor granitic magma rises all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano bringing great destruction to the environment.

  • D. Both basaltic magma and granitic magma rise all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano, and at the same time solidify within the Earth’s crust.

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

Which of the following combination of factors can change pre-existing rocks into new forms?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Color, shape, and texture

  • B. Minerals, color, and temperature

  • C. Texture, temperature and chemically- active fluids

  • D. Temperature, pressure and chemically- active fluids

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

You watched a video of a lava flow when suddenly you got curious about how crystal formation happens. You also observed that small and large crystals can be formed from a lava flow. Based on this observation, where would you expect to find the largest crystals in a lava flow?

Select one of the following:

  • A. At the center of the flow.

  • B. Near the bottom of the flow.

  • C. Near the top surface of the flow.

  • D. The crystals would have the same grain size throughout the flow.

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

You were given a granite sample and tasked to describe just by looking and touching it. Which of the following statements below will best describe a granite based on its physical appearance?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Light- colored, fine- grained igneous rock rich in silica

  • B. Light- colored, fine- grained igneous rock poor in silica

  • C. Light- colored, coarse- grained igneous rock rich in silica

  • D. Light- colored, coarse- grained igneous rock poor in silica

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

You are walking along a flat rock surface. You discover that as you walk further, the age of the rocks decreases until you reach the middle of the surface, then for some reason, they get older again. What structure have you just passed over?

Select one of the following:

  • A. syncline fold

  • B. anticline fold

  • C. monocline fold

  • D. overturned fold

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

A geologist was interested in the age of rock layers in a specific area, as shown in Figure 1 below. Which of the following set of rock layers is correctly arranged from oldest to youngest?

Select one of the following:

  • A. P – O – N – M – L – Q

  • B. P – Q – O – N – L – M

  • C. Q – O – N – M – L – P

  • D. Q – P – O – N – M – L

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

A geologist used relative dating methods to guess that an igneous rock sample is between 1 million and 5 million years old and was curious about its exact age. Will using carbon-14 in determining the age of the rock be helpful?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Yes, because the rock sample contains traces of carbon in it.

  • B. Yes, because carbon-14 is widely used by scientists in absolute dating.

  • C. No, because the half-life of carbon-14 is too short for the age of the rock sample.

  • D. No, because it is not sure whether dead bodies of organisms are present in the sample.

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

A geologist found a dinosaur fossil and wants to estimate what period that dinosaur existed in the past. The geologist measured the ages of the rocks beneath and above the fossil. What dating technique he/she is about to use?

Select one of the following:

  • A. cross dating

  • B. relative dating

  • C. geologic dating

  • D. absolute dating

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

What information is generally shown in the geologic time scale?

Select one of the following:

  • A. the branches of geology

  • B. the geologic history of the Earth

  • C. the geologic features of the Earth

  • D. the geologists with significant contributions

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

Which hazard may happen if loosely-packed and water-logged sediments at or near ground surface lose strength during earthquakes?

Select one of the following:

  • A. eruption

  • B. fire

  • C. liquefaction

  • D. tsunamis

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

A barangay located near the sea experienced a magnitude 8.0 earthquake. What hazard are the residents most exposed to after this?

Select one of the following:

  • A. eruption

  • B. fire

  • C. liquefaction

  • D. tsunami

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

What term refers to an extreme natural phenomenon in Earth’s crust, like earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, that may cause danger to life and property?

Select one of the following:

  • A. geologic hazard

  • B. biological hazard

  • C. technological hazard

  • D. hydrometeorological hazard

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

If you live on a hillside in a land-locked area with an active volcano nearby, which of the following phenomena does NOT bring you hazard?

Select one of the following:

  • A. tsunami

  • B. landslide

  • C. earthquake

  • D. volcanic eruption

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

Who among the following people is doing an activity that helps lessen the occurrence of landslides?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Person L constructs their home on a steep slope.

  • B. Person M puts as much vegetation as possible on the nearby slope.

  • C. Person N creates a water canal that cuts through some part of the hill.

  • D. Person O gathers topsoil from the mountain for their backyard garden.

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

During a typhoon, you noticed an abnormal rise of seawater level that caused flooding in the coastal area you are living in. What phenomenon had you just witnessed?

Select one of the following:

  • A. tornado

  • B. tsunami

  • C. spring tide

  • D. storm surge

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

Suppose you live in a coastal area and your primary source of drinking water has always been through a water pump. Over the years, you noticed that the water gets saltier and saltier. What coastal process could have occurred?

Select one of the following:

  • A. tidal wave

  • B. coastal erosion

  • C. saltwater intrusion

  • D. coastal submersion

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

A businessman wanted to build a five-story hotel a few meters away from the edge of a cliff on the shore. Should this plan be allowed by the authority?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Yes, it will boost tourism in the community.

  • B. Yes, it is the best spot to capture beautiful sceneries.

  • C. No, its construction could only worsen coastal erosion.

  • D. No, the businessman needs to have large amount of investment.

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. What are the mixtures of gases they thought to be abundant in earth’s early atmosphere?
I. N2
II. H2O
III. H2
IV. NH3
V. O2
VI. CH4

Select one of the following:

  • A. I, II, III, IV

  • B. II, III, IV, V

  • C. II, III, IV, VI

  • D. III, IV, V, VI

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

Which of the following conditions will best fossilize an animal?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The animal is made up of bones.

  • B. The animal is soft-bodied like jellyfish.

  • C. The animal dies at sea and sinks deep.

  • D. The animal is left exposed to the elements.

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

Based on the Geologic Time Scale, which of the following is a correct pair of periods in the Earth’s history and the corresponding major event that took place?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Quaternary – age of mammals

  • B. Permian – extinction of trilobites

  • C. Cretaceous – appearance of first land plants

  • D. Cambrian – appearance of first amphibians

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

On a hot day, a man feels to go for a swim, drinks some cold water, or sits in the shade while on a cold day, he feels to put on a coat, sits in a corner, or eats a bowl of hot soup. Given the situation, how would you classify the interaction of the man to his environment?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It is an example of growth and development.

  • B. It shows man’s adaptation to his environment.

  • C. It is the ability of the man to regulate his internal condition.

  • D. It ensures the survival of man and in carrying out his functions.

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Communities make up species, which make up populations.

  • B. Populations make up species, which make up communities.

  • C. Species make up communities, which make up populations.

  • D. Species make up populations, which make up communities.

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

Which of the following is a correct pair of organ and organ system?

Select one of the following:

  • A. lungs-excretory

  • B. brain-circulatory

  • C. mouth-respiratory

  • D. skin – integumentary

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

Which of the following terms refers to the biological process of producing offspring that are biologically or genetically similar to the parents?

Select one of the following:

  • A. evolution

  • B. fertilization

  • C. development

  • D. reproduction

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

What term refers to the process of producing new organism by combining the genetic information of two individuals having different sexes?

Select one of the following:

  • A. external fertilization

  • B. internal fertilization

  • C. sexual reproduction

  • D. asexual reproduction

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

Which of the following statements correctly differentiate sexual reproduction from asexual reproduction?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Sexual reproduction is faster than asexual reproduction.

  • B. Sexual reproduction requires one parent while asexual requires two.

  • C. Sexual reproduction requires two parents while asexual requires one.

  • D. Sexual reproduction produces identical offspring while asexual produces offspring from two parents.

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT correct about recombinant DNA technology?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Plasmids and bacteriophages are examples of commonly used vectors.

  • B. Recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology helps produce better breeds of plants and animals.

  • C. The rDNA technology could also help in identifying criminals by studying a sample from a specific person.

  • D. The rDNA technology can be considered successful even if the foreign DNA inserted into the vector DNA is not expressing the desired trait in the host cells.

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Which of the following crop is not genetically modified?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Bt corn

  • B. golden rice

  • C. BT eggplant

  • D. conventional rice

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

Which of the following is considered a risk of GM food to people’s health?

Select one of the following:

  • A. GM food enhanced pathogenicity.

  • B. GM food production cost is reduced.

  • C. GM food increased weed or pest burden.

  • D. GM food contains higher amounts of vitamins and minerals.

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

What responses are generated by the nervous system when you run on a treadmill?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Dispose waste from the body

  • B. Get the oxygen into our body and get rid of carbon dioxide.

  • C. Food is broken down by to give energy to every cell in the body.

  • D. Once exercise begins, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, and the heart rate rises quickly

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

Pablo went out with his friends almost every day to have fun and takes whatever vices they want. One day he complains abdominal pain and notices that the appearance of his skin turns yellowish which are some symptoms of a liver problem. Which do you think among his vices caused him liver problem?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Smoking

  • B. Gambling

  • C. Social games

  • D. Alcohol Consumption

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

There is a couple who wish to have a child but cannot have it because the wife was diagnosed with Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). It is a condition in which the ovaries produce an abnormal number of androgens, male sex hormones that are usually present in women in small amounts that cause infertility of women having it. However, it can be treated by maintaining healthy weight, conducting regular exercise and balance diet. Based on the given situation, is it possible for the couple to bear a child?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Yes, PCOS will just go away on its own.

  • B. Yes if they will just follow the suggestions of their doctor.

  • C. No because there is no treatment for PCOS.

  • D. No because female ovaries with PCOS totally can’t release egg cells.

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

When you’re faced with a perceived threat, your brain thinks you’re in danger. That’s because it already considers the situation to be life threatening. As a result, your body automatically reacts to keep you safe. What hormone is responsible for this response?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Adrenalin

  • B. Melatonin

  • C. Vasopressin

  • D. Growth Hormones

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

Pedro who met an accident dislocated his two long bones in his hand. What do you think is the cause of such dislocation?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Tendon break

  • B. Ligament break

  • C. Areolar tissue break

  • D. Break of skeletal muscle

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

Covid 19 pandemic affects the immune system of individual who will be infected with this virus. As a student, which of the following campaign below is the best thing to promote to boost your immune system?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Drink alcohol in moderation.

  • B. Always observe health protocols.

  • C. Have an exercise at least once a week.

  • D. Eat a diet high in fruits and vegetables.

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Gregor Mendel was considered as the Father of Modern Genetics. Which of the following works was associated with him?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Study with pea plants

  • B. Expedition in the Galapagos Islands

  • C. Discovering the molecular structure of DNA

  • D. Determination of the double-helix structure of DNA

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

For certain organisms to survive, they need to learn the process of adaptation by which a species becomes fitted to its environment. Which of the following situations exhibits adaptation?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Birds with light bones of their wings for easy flying.

  • B. Giraffes having long necks for feeding in the top of trees

  • C. Animals staying in one place all the time to protect its home

  • D. Succulents which store water in their short, thick stems and leaves in preparation for dry season.

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Based on the figure below, what is common among human arm, cat’s leg, whale flipper and bat’s wing?
I. Have the same bones.
II. Share common ancestors.
III. Body parts have the same functions.

Select one of the following:

  • A. I only

  • B. II only

  • C. I & II only

  • D. II & III only

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

Someone gives you two black beetles: Carbonized Darkling Beetle (Eleodes carbonaria) and Armored Stink Beetle (Eleodes armata). What group they both belong in the biological classification of organisms?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Family

  • B. Genus

  • C. Order

  • D. Species

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

On 16 December 2021, Typhoon Rai (local name Odette) brought torrential rains, violent winds, landslides, and storm surges in the provinces of Surigao del Norte and Dinagat Islands in Mindanao, in five provinces of Visayas, and in the island of Palawan in Luzon before it exited the Philippine area of responsibility on 17 December 2021. If a natural disaster like Typhoon Odette devastates an ecosystem, what will this do to the carrying capacity of the population of a species within that ecosystem?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Increase it.

  • B. Decrease it

  • C. Always reduce it down to zero.

  • D. Will not affect it, so it will stay the same.

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

The family of Amelia lives in a “sitio” where most of her relatives are also living there because it’s where their farm located which is the source of their foods. Cora, friend of Amelia lives in another sitio, 5 kilometers away from Amelia’s place. The family of Cora is living in another sitio because it is where their farm
located. How will you classify the household-population distribution pattern with Amelia’s & Cora’s place?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Clumped Distribution

  • B. Random Distribution

  • C. Uniform Distribution

  • D. Vertical Distributions

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT an element of a healthy relationship?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Trust one another

  • B. One person makes all the decisions

  • C. Respect one another

  • D. Open and honest communication

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

What skills do you need to make healthy decisions in a relationship?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Intelligence, memory, ability to do public speaking

  • B. Assertive communication, active listening, and negotiation skills

  • C. Ability to persuade others, love,

  • D. passive communication

  • E. None of the above

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

Which of the following are signs that you may be in an abusive relationship?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Bruises, scratches and other signs of injuries

  • B. Avoiding friends

  • C. Apologizing for your partner`s behavior

  • D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Jane has ability to stay calm and deal with her emotion during stressful and difficult times.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Emotional Stability

  • B. Agreeableness

  • C. Conscientiousness

  • D. Extraversion

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

In a healthy relationship, both partners:
Statement 1: Are treated with kindness and respect
Statement 2: Are honest with each other

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only statement 1 is correct

  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct

  • C. Both Statements are correct

  • D. Both statements are in correct

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

Which of the following is a characteristic of a healthy relationship?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Feel pressure

  • B. Good communication

  • C. Have a lack of privacy

  • D. Neglecting others

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

It can be thought of as a close tie between two people that is often built upon mutual experiences, shared interests, proximity, and emotional bonding.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Family

  • B. Friends

  • C. Lovers

  • D. Partnership

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

In a healthy relationship, both partners:
Statement 1: Don’t like to spend time together
Statement 2: Take an interest in things that are important to each other

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only statement 1 is correct

  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct

  • C. Both Statements are correct

  • D. Both statements are in correct

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

In a healthy relationship, both partners:
Statement 1: Respect one another’s emotional, physical and sexual limits
Statement 2: Can speak dishonestly about their feelings

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only statement 1 is correct

  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct

  • C. Both Statements are correct

  • D. Both statements are in correct

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Which statement shows being responsible in a relationship?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Practice gratitude

  • B. Learn to forgive only with friends.

  • C. Be compassionate when you are only in a good mood.

  • D. Connect with your family that are close to you.

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

How would you define a personal relationship?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Personal relationships refer to the development of positive and healthy relations.

  • B. Personal relationships refer to interaction between two or more people, groups or organizations.

  • C. Personal relationships refer to the connection that exists between people who have interactions.

  • D. Personal relationships, refers to a close connection between adolescents, formed by emotional bonds and interactions.

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

What should you consider when making decisions around sex and sexual limits?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Your values

  • B. Your friends

  • C. Your family

  • D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

What is the best style of communication to use when making decisions about sexual limits and boundaries?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Assertive

  • B. Passive

  • C. Aggressive

  • D. Possessive

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

Social Influence is:

Select one of the following:

  • A. The efforts on the part of one person to alter the behavior or attitudes of one or more others

  • B. Influencing how society operates and determining how it will operate in the future

  • C. The influence of society on us

  • D. Being influenced by others

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

Conformity occurs when:

Select one of the following:

  • A. Individuals change their behavior in order to fit that of other persons in their group

  • B. Individuals adhere to conventions of a society, such as wearing clothes

  • C. Individuals influence each other

  • D. Individuals mimic each other

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

What stage does peer group start to play an important role in helping to define the adolescent's identity, independent of the family; including the development of the sex role identity?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Adolescence

  • B. Childhood

  • C. Middle Adolescence

  • D. Pre-Adolescence

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

Refer to the connections that exist between people who have recurring interactions that are perceived by the participants to have personal meaning.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Social Influence

  • B. Social Deviance

  • C. Social Pressure

  • D. Social Relationship

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Is a process by which a person influences other to accomplish an objective and directs the organization in a way that makes it more cohesive and coherent.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Followership

  • B. Leadership

  • C. Process Leadership

  • D. Trait Leadership

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Landy hates to attend concerts but goes because his wife wants to. After three years Landy comes to genuinely enjoy concerts. This is an example of

Select one of the following:

  • A. How psychological reactance can lead to acceptance

  • B. How acceptance can lead to compliance

  • C. How compliance can lead to acceptance

  • D. The boomerang effect

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Which is TRUE about followership?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Contributes in leading his team towards a positive direction where they learn the value of hard work, importance of time and establishing goals.

  • B. A follower not only follows the footsteps of his leader, but also supports and encourages him for doing better.

  • C. One who influences people through motivation and ideas for betterment

  • D. Follower is the ultimate epitome of inspiration

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

The ability to work being a part of a group is what makes the job of a leader easier and is the most vital characteristics of a good follower.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Appreciative

  • B. Collaboration

  • C. Diligence

  • D. Honesty

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Some of the qualities of a good leader includes the following, except

Select one of the following:

  • A. Ambitious

  • B. Appreciative

  • C. Building Good Relation

  • D. Inspiring others

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

Leaders carry out this process by applying their leadership knowledge and skills.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Trait Leadership

  • B. Process leadership

  • C. Controlled leadership

  • D. none of the above

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

How social pressure may lead us to perform immoral acts is best illustrated by studies of?

Select one of the following:

  • A. informational influence

  • B. obedience to authority

  • C. psychological reactance

  • D. spontaneous self-concept

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

Leaders have traits that can influence their actions.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Trait Leadership

  • B. Process leadership

  • C. Controlled leadership

  • D. none of the above

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Statement 1: Social influence is the change in behavior that one person causes in another, intentionally or unintentionally, as a result of the way the changed person perceives themselves in relationship to the influencer, other people and society in general.
Statement 2: Social relationship can be defined as a relationship that is primarily initiated with the purpose of friendship, socialization, enjoyment or accomplishing a task

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct

  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct

  • C. Both Statements are correct

  • D. Both Statements are incorrect

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

Statement 1: The Opportunists are the one who secretly hate their leaders and are disloyal. They cannot easily be identified. They have a strong dislike for the leader and conspire against him.
Statement 2: Traitors are the ones who can be bought. They always go with the one who is already on the top. They are not loyal to the leader.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct

  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct

  • C. Both Statements are correct

  • D. Both Statements are incorrect

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Statement 1: Critics are such kind of followers who tend to question and oppose every move of the leader. They are usually passive. Critical types of followers are often the ones who have not been recognized for their work or have been denied appreciation.
Statement 2: Royalists are the ones who always stand by the leader. They are the true supporters of the leader. They always listen carefully to the leader and give true feedback.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct

  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct

  • C. Both Statements are correct

  • D. Both Statements are incorrect

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Statement 1: Collaboration is the most vital characteristics of a good follower. The ability to work being a part of a group is what makes the job of a leader easier.
Statement 2: Ambitious - Ambition is one such thing that boosts the chances of growth and success. A leader shows the path, whereas the followers walk on it keeping their ambitions in mind.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct

  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct

  • C. Both Statements are correct

  • D. Both Statements are incorrect

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

The following are the Qualities of a Good Leadership, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • A. Honesty

  • B. Traits of Inspiring Others

  • C. Ability to Build a Good Relation

  • D. Loyalty and obedience

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

It refers to a family member is separated from the rest of the family. This may be due to employment far away; military service; incarceration; hospitalization. They remain significant members of the family.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial

  • B. Conditionally Separated

  • C. Foster

  • D. Immigrant

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

A family where one or more of the children is legally a temporary member of the household. This “temporary” period may be as short as a few days or as long as the child’s entire childhood.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial

  • B. Conditionally Separated

  • C. Foster

  • D. Immigrant

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

Where one or both of the parents’ sexual orientation is gay or lesbian. This may be a two-parent family, an adoptive family, a single parent family or an extended family.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Foster

  • B. Gay/Lesbian

  • C. Single parent

  • D. Trans-racial Adoptive

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

The parents of the family are members of different racial identity groups.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial

  • B. Conditionally Separated

  • C. Foster

  • D. Immigrant

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

Which of the following refers to a family where the adopted child is of a different racial identity group than the parents?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Adoptive

  • B. Blended

  • C. Extended

  • D. Nuclear

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

A family unit consisting of at most a father, mother and dependent children. It is considered the “traditional” family.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Adoptive

  • B. Blended

  • C. Extended

  • D. Nuclear

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Which of the following refers to a family consisting of parents and children, along with grandparents, grandchildren, aunts or uncles, cousins etc. In some circumstances, the extended family comes to live either with or in place of a member of the nuclear family?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Adoptive

  • B. Blended

  • C. Extended

  • D. Nuclear

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

What refers to a family that consists of members from two (or more) previous families?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Adoptive

  • B. Blended

  • C. Extended

  • D. Nuclear

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

This can be either a father or a mother who is singly responsible for the raising of a child. The child can be by birth or adoption. They may be a single parent by choice or by life circumstances.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Foster

  • B. Gay/Lesbian

  • C. Single parent

  • D. Trans-racial adoptive

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

Family where one or more of the children has been adopted. Any structure of family may also be an adoptive family.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Foster

  • B. Gay/Lesbian

  • C. Single parent

  • D. Trans-racial adoptive

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

How do you define a career?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Career refers to a setting of deadlines in achieving the goals on a specific time.

  • B. Career refers to a major plan that considers the situations among families especially in going college, or are about to enter college.

  • C. Career defined as a work that challenges someone to manage and pursue a scholarship to aid in pursuing a dream.

  • D. Career is defined as an occupation undertaken for a significant period of a person's life and with opportunities for progress.

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

Which one is an external factor influencing a Filipino adolescent’s in choosing a career?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Parental preferences

  • B. Career choice of friends

  • C. Family considerations, financial constraints, job market preference (Immediate Employment), school location

  • D. Both A and B

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

What do you call the external influencing factors that parents have some idea of what course you should take up in college?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Parental preferences

  • B. Family considerations

  • C. Financial constraints

  • D. Job market preference

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

What do you call the external influencing factors that might happen associated with a particular gender?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Gender bias

  • B. Parental preferences

  • C. Family considerations

  • D. Financial constraints

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

What do you call a career development theory that is based on observations that people possess traits, behaviors and interests?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The Realistic type

  • B. The Artistic type

  • C. The Investigative type

  • D. Holland’s Theory of Vocational Types

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

What do you call the term that will help you sort out your priorities and how you want to live your life? It may include short-term and long-term goals, or life-long aspirations?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Aspirations

  • B. Life goals

  • C. Life priority

  • D. Personal mission statement

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT included in personal development career plan personal mission?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Career

  • B. Career Plan

  • C. Education

  • D. Personal attributes, such as honesty, loyalty and dedication

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

Angel needs to appear more composed during the interview because she needs to get the teaching job. What key factors does she need?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Education

  • B. Empathy

  • C. Motivation

  • D. Self-awareness

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

Statement 1: An honest assessment and evaluation of a teenager’s work style will help them decide a career to consider. A serious thought about certain career should be prepared by an adolescent.
Statement 2: Real life experience in the work environment where teenagers may think they want to work can help them make up their minds on the career they will pursue.

Select one of the following:

  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct

  • B. Only statement 2 is correct

  • C. Both statements are correct

  • D. Both statements are incorrect

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

Which of the following refers to the characteristics that make us unique or different from others?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Career development

  • B. Career Growth

  • C. Personal Development

  • D. Personality trait

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

What is the meaning of the word Philosophy?

Select one of the following:

  • A. The study of religion and beliefs

  • B. The study of natural science

  • C. The love of wisdom

  • D. The study of art

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

What is the method of philosophical inquiry that emphasizes the importance of direct observation and experience?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Empiricism

  • B. Rationalism

  • C. Dialectic

  • D. Phenomenology

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

In what way can the understanding of the embodied spirit help individuals to live a more fulfilling life?

Select one of the following:

  • By promoting the idea of physical self-care

  • By promoting the idea of separation of the body and soul

  • By promoting a holistic approach to self-care

  • By promoting the idea of a spiritual self-care

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

How can an understanding of the relationship between humans and the natural world be applied to improve environmental sustainability?

Select one of the following:

  • A. By implementing technological solutions

  • B. By ignoring the relationship

  • C. By understanding and addressing the impact of human actions on the natural world

  • D. By focusing solely on economic growth

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

A person argues that freedom is the ability to do whatever one wants, regardless of the consequences. How would you evaluate this statement?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It is a valid perspective on freedom

  • B. It is not a valid perspective on freedom as it disregards the rights and freedoms of others and the consequences of one's actions

  • C. It is not a valid perspective on freedom as it disregards laws and social norms

  • D. It is a valid perspective on freedom as long as it does not harm others

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

You are in charge of organizing a team building activity for your company. Which of the following options do you think would be the most effective in promoting teamwork and creativity among team members?

Select one of the following:

  • A. A scavenger hunt

  • B. A lecture on the importance of communication

  • C. A cooking competition where each team has to come up with a unique recipe using a set of ingredients provided.

  • D. A game of paintball

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

A person argues that the individual should always prioritize their own interests over those of society. How would you evaluate this statement?

Select one of the following:

  • A. It is a valid perspective on the relationship between the individual and society

  • B. It is not a valid perspective on the relationship between the individual and society as it disregards the importance of social cohesion and the interdependence of individuals within society

  • C. It is a valid perspective as long as it does not harm others

  • D. It is not a valid perspective as it goes against the principles of fairness and justice

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

How is the awareness of death different from the fear of death?

Select one of the following:

  • A. Awareness of death is cognitive while fear of death is emotional

  • B. Fear of death is rational and the awareness of death is irrational

  • C. Fear of death is a natural response to the awareness of death

  • D. None of the above

Explanation

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