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PH - NAT EXAM FOR GRADE 12

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TO HELP ME STUDY FOR THE NAT DAY
ERIC MATHEW ROSAROSO
Quiz by ERIC MATHEW ROSAROSO, updated more than 1 year ago
ERIC MATHEW ROSAROSO
Created by ERIC MATHEW ROSAROSO about 1 year ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
the basic aim of physical education: dance.
Answer
  • A. to engage students in a collaborative process.
  • B. develops full potential as human being.
  • C. to love oneself.

Question 2

Question
the basic aim of physical education: physical fitness.
Answer
  • A. to love oneself.
  • B. develops full potential as human being.
  • C. to engage students in a collaborative process.

Question 3

Question
Dance as an Art.
Answer
  • A. Is a rhythmic and expressive movement of the body in successive movement usually accompanied by music. It has been said to be mother of the arts, for it’s the oldest of the art which actually reflects man’s age old need to communicate different emotions such as joy, grief, excitement and others.
  • B. To engage students in a collaborative process.
  • C. Develops full potential as human being.

Question 4

Question
Features of Dance.
Answer
  • A. Music, Sleeping, Theme, Techniques, Design, Properties and Costume
  • B. Music, Movement, Theme, Techniques, Design, Properties and Costume
  • C. Eating, Playing, Music, Netflix, Chilling

Question 5

Question
Kinds of Dance
Answer
  • A. Ethnologic, Social, Ballroom, Folk , Occupational
  • B. Hip-Hop, Social, Ballroom, Folk , Occupational
  • C. Ethnologic, Social, Ballroom, Folk , Classic

Question 6

Question
The Elements of Dance.
Answer
  • A. time, speed, rhythm, space, place, size, level, direction, pathway, energy, weight, body, movement concepts
  • B. netflix and chill
  • C. lazing, sleeping, playing, eating, nle

Question 7

Question
DANCE (CARIÑOSA)
Answer
  • A. a dance to look cool
  • B. a dance made for flirting
  • C. a dance to get grades

Question 8

Question
Which of the following statements describes the term “Dance”?
Answer
  • A. Dance is simply standing and kicking of feet.
  • B. Dance is a natural expression of united feelings and action.
  • C. Dance is a clapping of hands and stamping of feet.
  • D. Dance is shaking hips and shoulders.

Question 9

Question
This element of dance involves the dancers moving swiftly and smoothly in both space and time.
Answer
  • A. Energy
  • B. Action
  • C. Body
  • D. Space

Question 10

Question
What specific is considered if a dancer goes across space in every way possible, changing their level and direction?
Answer
  • A. Action
  • B. Space
  • C. Body
  • D. Time

Question 11

Question
As a dancer, one of the elements to consider is the relation of movements to rhythm and meter of the music, which of these elements corresponds to the consideration?
Answer
  • A. Action
  • B. Space
  • C. Body
  • D. Time

Question 12

Question
This is the primary instrument of dance where there is a need to train agility and strength.
Answer
  • A. Action
  • B. Space
  • C. Body
  • D. Time

Question 13

Question
The following are the benefits of dance, EXCEPT:
Answer
  • A. Improves the condition of the heart
  • B. Development of frequency
  • C. Weight management
  • D. Develop self-confidence

Question 14

Question
Following are reasons why people dance, EXCEPT:
Answer
  • A. It is a requirement of faith and worship
  • B. It is an expression of joy one feels
  • C. It gives beauty and inspiration to others
  • D. It serves to entertain others

Question 15

Question
How will you describe dance with dynamic element?
Answer
  • A. if it is utilizing variation of force and intensity of movements
  • B. if uses softness and loudness of movements
  • C. if applies movement elevation and equality
  • D. if employs force and energy

Question 16

Question
What will happen to a choreographed dance that didn't acknowledge the theme element's existence?
Answer
  • A. It could be boring
  • B. There is no variation of movements
  • C. There is no concept
  • D. It has no rhythm

Question 17

Question
Which of the following statements, best define "Dance” according to function?
Answer
  • A. Dance plays an important role in religious ritual in which performers work themselves to receive power.
  • B. Dance is used to convey war by performing skill like of the animal.
  • C. Dance displays vigor and attractiveness like courtship dance.
  • D. Dance is used for recreational purpose like that of hunting animals.

Question 18

Question
What is Folk Dancing?
Answer
  • A. It is a form of social dancing that has become part of the customs and tradition of the people.
  • B. It is an expressive dance that combines elements of several dance genres.
  • C. It is highly style of dance that challenges the structured dance technique.
  • D. It is a kind of dance that have a social function and context.

Question 19

Question
Which of the following choices is NOT a Philippine Folkdance?
Answer
  • A. Tinikling
  • B. Maglalatik
  • C. Singkil
  • D. Karikázó

Question 20

Question
Which of these dance genres where dancers perform “Saludo”?
Answer
  • A. Ballroom
  • B. Dance Sports
  • C. Folkdance
  • D. Contemporary

Question 21

Question
Which of these statements is TRUE to Folk Dancing?
Answer
  • A. Feet movements play an important part.
  • B. It is performed individually
  • C. Movements are more about skipping
  • D. Dancers stand apart

Question 22

Question
Which of these would you likely use if you were asked to choreograph a religious dance?
Answer
  • A. Creating movements that would show about fortune, peace and war.
  • B. Performing movements that provides pleasure in pair or group of people.
  • C. Presenting movements for entertainment purposes only
  • D. Executing movements with rhythm and coordination.

Question 23

Question
Which of the following dances is a Religious Dance?
Answer
  • A. Hakyadan of Agusan del Sur which is to perform for the call of spirit.
  • B. Tinikling dance that imitates the movement of tikling bird.
  • C. Maglalatik that demonstrates occupation.
  • D. Itik-itik which imitates the movements of duck.

Question 24

Question
What is the difference between Folkdance and Ethnic?
Answer
  • A. Folkdance is participatory and traditional while ethnic is expressing the aesthetic movements of culture.
  • B. Folkdance is an expression of aesthetic movement of culture while ethnic is participatory.
  • C. Folkdance is a coded step and while ethnic is following rhythm and dynamic.
  • D. Folkdance is for dynamic and time while ethnic is coded.

Question 25

Question
When you try to explore and improve dance movements, which of these choices is CORRECT?
Answer
  • A. Creative Rhythms
  • B. Body Rhythms
  • C. Social Dance
  • D. Recreational Dance

Question 26

Question
How do you describe social dance?
Answer
  • A. It is during formal gatherings or atmosphere in which the recreational dances are the usual forms.
  • B. It communicates the customs, beliefs, rituals and occupations of the people of a region.
  • C. It is when using the body parts which serves as an instrument of expression.
  • D. This is composed of simple patterns and combination of steps and waltz.

Question 27

Question
The setting of this particular phase of dance is usually informal gatherings and parties, reunions, etc.
Answer
  • A. Creative Rhythms
  • B. Ethnic Dance
  • C. Social Dance
  • D. Recreational Dance

Question 28

Question
Which of the following tools is used to assess if you fall under HIGH-RISK, MODERATE-RISK or LOW-RISK Category.
Answer
  • A. Physical Exercise Readiness Tool
  • B. Physical Action Readiness Questionnaire
  • C. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
  • D. Physical Exercise Readiness Questionnaire

Question 29

Question
Joana is a dancer who wants to start an intense workout regimen. She has recently been exhausted and experienced shortness of breath. Which danger category from the list below she possibly fall into?
Answer
  • A. Low Risk Category
  • B. High Risk Category
  • C. Moderate Risk Category
  • D. Low or Moderate Category

Question 30

Question
If Joana falls into Moderate Risk Category, which of the following risk stratification she must undergo?
Answer
  • A. Joana is safe to begin high intensity exercise.
  • B. Joana is safe to begin exercising without further assessment or need for supervision.
  • C. Joana is safe to begin light or moderate intensity exercise, but a medical clearance is required.
  • D. Joana should undergo further medical testing and physician clearance before starting an exercise program.

Question 31

Question
Which of the following choices below is a reliable method of monitoring one’s heart rate?
Answer
  • A. Pulse Rate
  • B. Intensity Rat
  • C. Exercise Rate
  • D. Physical Activity Rate

Question 32

Question
Brenda, a 30-year-old inactive lady, wants to participate in vigorous dancing exercise since she is depressed. She appeared to have no other ailments and passed the PARQ. When she does straightforward dance moves, she still has some joint pain. Which of the following risk groups would Brenda potentially fall into?
Answer
  • A. Low Risk Category
  • B. High Risk Category
  • C. Moderate Risk Category
  • D. Low or Moderate Category

Question 33

Question
Aerobic dance is one of cardiorespiratory endurance exercises in which this component on health-related fitness is being determined by the VO2max. What is VO2max?
Answer
  • A. VO2max is the maximum amount of oxygen the human body can utilize per hour of physical activity.
  • B. VO2max is the minimum amount of oxygen the human body can utilize per hour of physical activity.
  • C. VO2max is the maximum amount of oxygen the human body can utilize per minute of physical activity.
  • D. VO2max is the minimum amount of oxygen the human body can utilize per minute of physical activity.

Question 34

Question
Which of the following physical activities best represent for functionality of the body through muscular strength and flexibility?
Answer
  • A. Burpees and Jogging
  • B. Brisk walking and Running
  • C. Resistance training and Stretching
  • D. Kettle bell swing and Push ups position plank

Question 35

Question
A healthy dancer can perform physical activity for longer periods of time without tiring quickly. Which of the following health-related elements best exemplifies the statement?
Answer
  • A. Flexibility
  • B. Muscular Strength
  • C. Muscular Endurance
  • D. Cardiovascular Endurance

Question 36

Question
Which of these statements supports the concept about Muscular Endurance?
Answer
  • A. This is a component under health related fitness that could generate force repeatedly.
  • B. It is under the component of skill-related fitness that could generate force abruptly.
  • C. Muscular endurance is under health related component that could generate force abruptly.
  • D. Muscular endurance is under skill related component of fitness that could generate force repeatedly.

Question 37

Question
What is the difference between muscular strength and muscular endurance?
Answer
  • A. Muscular strength usually determined using two repetition maximum while muscular endurance requires no force against resistance.
  • B. Muscular strength requires no force against resistance while muscular endurance usually determined using two repetition maximum.
  • C. Muscular strength is simply to exert maximum force against a resistance while muscular endurance is the ability of the muscles to exert force repeatedly over a period.
  • D. Muscular strength is the ability of the muscles to exert force repeatedly over a period while muscular endurance is to exert maximum force against a resistance.

Question 38

Question
What is the training intensity of a 23-year-old dancer at 40% with a resting heart rate of 70 bpm?
Answer
  • A. 120.8 bpm
  • B. 127 bpm
  • C. 127.8 bpm
  • D. 128.7 bpm

Question 39

Question
What is the training intensity of Sylvia, a 20-year-old dancer, if she has a 50% resting heart rate of 70 bpm?
Answer
  • A. 143.6 bpm
  • B. 133.5 bpm
  • C. 153.7 bpm
  • D. 163.8 bpm

Question 40

Question
What is the training intensity of a 25-year-old dancer who is at 60% and has a resting heart rate of 70bpm?
Answer
  • A. 146.2 bpm
  • B. 156.3 bpm
  • C. 166.4 bpm
  • D. 176.5 bpm

Question 41

Question
What is the training intensity of a 23-year-old dancer at 85% with a resting heart rate of 70bpm?
Answer
  • A. 178.96 bpm
  • B. 177.95 bpm
  • C. 179.98 bpm
  • D. 176.94 bpm

Question 42

Question
Susan works harder than usual during her dancing training session in attempt to adjust.. She worked beyond her usual training time. What training exercise principle did Susan apply?
Answer
  • A. Principle of Progression
  • B. Principle of Specificity
  • C. Principle of Overload
  • D. Principle of Individuality

Question 43

Question
Earth is the planet we live on, and the only place in the universe known to support life. Which of the following statements accurately describes this characteristic?
Answer
  • A. It has soil where trees grow.
  • B. It has trees that provide oxygen.
  • C. It has liquid water in the surface.
  • D. It is a home to a variety of complex organisms.

Question 44

Question
Which of the following factors are required for an organism to survive on Earth? I. Earth has an atmosphere and ozone layer. II. Earth has both water cycle and nitrogen cycle. III. Earth has natural activities to circulate nutrients. IV. Earth can protect the organism from any possible threat.
Answer
  • A. I & II only
  • B. I & III only
  • C. I, II, III only
  • D. I, II, III, & IV

Question 45

Question
What makes human and other living organisms capable to live on Earth?
Answer
  • A. Earth can provide food for the organism.
  • B. Earth can protect the organism from any possible threat.
  • C. Earth’s temperature is mostly hot compared to other planets.
  • D. Earth has the right amount of temperature, water, good atmosphere, and favorable climate.

Question 46

Question
You observed an Earth-sized like planet in a distant galaxy. Based on the data, the planet is at the same distance from its star, like Earth to its star-the sun. It is also covered with a thick atmosphere which is composed of carbon dioxide and shows no volcanic activity. What can you infer from these data?
Answer
  • A. The Earth-like planet is hot and nutrient cycling occurs.
  • B. The Earth-like planet is cold and nutrient cycling occurs.
  • C. The Earth-like planet is hot and no nutrient cycling occurs.
  • D. The Earth-like planet is cold and no nutrient cycling occurs.

Question 47

Question
What subsystems are interacting when carbon dioxide dissolves from the air into the ocean?
Answer
  • A. Atmosphere and biosphere
  • B. Atmosphere and lithosphere
  • C. Atmosphere and hydrosphere
  • D. Atmosphere and lithosphere

Question 48

Question
During the 1800’s, miners can identify real gold from pyrite through biting the surface of the mineral. If a bite mark is exhibited, then the said mineral is considered real gold. What property is tested in this scenario?
Answer
  • A. Cleavage
  • B. Luster
  • C. Hardness
  • D. Streak color

Question 49

Question
While walking at the beach, Angela found a rock sample with shells and pebbles embedded. What type of rock did she find?
Answer
  • A. Igneous rock
  • B. Metamorphic rock
  • C. Sedimentary rock
  • D. Ore body rock

Question 50

Question
A mineral is inorganic. Which of the following supports this statement?
Answer
  • A. Minerals is uniform in appearance and is in solid state of matter
  • B. Any material that is formed in laboratories is not considered a mineral
  • C. Bones, shells, teeth and other hard parts of an organism are not minerals
  • D. Both graphite and diamond are made up of carbon but their carbon atoms are arranged differently.

Question 51

Question
Imagine that you work at a jeweler's shop and someone brings in some "gold nuggets" that they want to sell. The person claims that an old prospector found the gold nuggets during the gold rush. You are not sure if the nuggets are real gold. Which identification tests would you do to help you decide the nuggets' identity?
Answer
  • A. Vinegar test
  • B. Hallmark test
  • C. Nitric acid test
  • D. All of the above

Question 52

Question
Fossil fuels are derived from which of the following sources?
Answer
  • A. Organic matter on the crust surface
  • B. Organic matter trapped in igneous rock
  • C. Organic matter trapped in sedimentary rock
  • D. Non-organic matter trapped in metamorphic rock

Question 53

Question
Based from the Department of Energy 2017 power statistics, coal is the main source of energy in the Philippines. What do you think might happen if coal reserves run out?
Answer
  • A. It will result to decreasing number of air pollutants.
  • B. It will decrease the energy resources present in the Philippines.
  • C. It will not affect Philippines economy because it is an infinite resource.
  • D. It will decrease the number of air pollutants and energy resources in the country.

Question 54

Question
How does geothermal energy work?
Answer
  • A. Uses water from the earth
  • B. Uses potential energy
  • C. Uses heat from the core of earth
  • D. Uses heat from atmosphere

Question 55

Question
People have a long history of using the force of water flowing in streams and rivers to produce mechanical energy. Which of the following best describes the aforementioned statement?
Answer
  • A. Milling
  • B. Cutting
  • C. Sewing
  • D. Molding

Question 56

Question
Which of the following is NOT true about the impact of geothermal energy resource to the environment?
Answer
  • A. The construction of geothermal power plants destroys natural habitat disrupting ecological niche.
  • B. Geothermal features in national parks, such as geysers and fumaroles, making the site promotes sustainability.
  • C. Geothermal power plants do not burn fuel to generate electricity, so the levels of air pollutants they emit are low.
  • D. Most geothermal power plants inject the geothermal steam and water that they use back into the earth for recycling purposes.

Question 57

Question
Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from hot water geothermal source?
Answer
  • A. Drilling well hot water generator steam
  • B. Drilling well hot water steam generator
  • C. Generator hot water steam Drilling well
  • D. Generator steam hot water Drilling well

Question 58

Question
Hydropower, or hydroelectric power, is one of the oldest and largest sources of renewable energy, which uses the natural flow of moving water to generate electricity. Knowing this made you preferable to build hydropower plant over the other because which do you think are your reasons? I. It does not generate greenhouse gases and other emissions. II. It has an extremely long life and the technology is highly reliable III. It is extremely efficient, with 90% of the water’s energy converted into electricity. IV. Dams can damage or otherwise impact the environment both upstream and downstream through their construction process
Answer
  • A. I, II, III only
  • B. I, II, IV only
  • C. I, III, IV only
  • D. I, II, III, IV

Question 59

Question
Water covers about 71% of the earth's surface. Despite its abundance, we continue to lack water suitable for human consumption. In relation to the circumstance, which of the following options is TRUE? I. Most fresh water are stored in ice caps, glaciers, ponds, lakes, rivers, streams, and underground water. II. Most Earth’s water is saline water III. Surface water is more abundant than ground water.
Answer
  • A. Only statement III is false.
  • B. Only statement I is true.
  • C. Statements I and III are true.
  • D. Statements I and II are false

Question 60

Question
What is the massive driver of pollution?
Answer
  • A. Population
  • B. Urbanization
  • C. Development
  • D. Climate change

Question 61

Question
Water conservation is the practice of using water efficiently to reduce unnecessary water usage. Which activity should you AVOID for us not to contribute WASTE the MOST per day at home?
Answer
  • A. Running the tap while washing dishes
  • B. Using a garbage disposal
  • C. Long showers
  • D. A leaky toilet

Question 62

Question
Which of the following ways can protect and prevent depletion of the soil?
Answer
  • A. Fertilization
  • B. Afforestation
  • C. Monitor Growth
  • D. Control Storm Water

Question 63

Question
In what way you can help maintaining the soil moisture content?
Answer
  • A. by planting trees
  • B. by applying fertilizers
  • C. by applying pesticides
  • D. by planting crops and applying fertilizers

Question 64

Question
The Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004 known as Republic Act No. 9275 is an act providing for a comprehensive water quality management which aims to protect the country's water bodies from pollution. Which of the following activities and its purpose is falsely stated?
Answer
  • A. Use of water for domestic purposes - means the utilization of water for drinking, washing, bathing, cooking or other household needs, home gardens and watering of lawns or domestic animals;
  • B. Use of water for irrigation - means the utilization of water for producing agricultural crops;
  • C. Use of water for livestock raising - means the utilization of water for recreational purposes.
  • D. Use of water for municipal purposes - means the utilization of water for supplying water requirements of the community.

Question 65

Question
How do you assess the impact of soil cultivation?
Answer
  • A. It does have an impact, only positive.
  • B. It negatively impacts our soil due to putting fertilizer in the soil.
  • C. It positively impacts our soil due to putting fertilizer and herbicide in the soil.
  • D. It is positive in the sense that it provides needed resources. However, it negatively impacts our soil due to pollution and causes desertification.

Question 66

Question
Which of the following agricultural techniques or farming practices below involves immediately depositing seeds into untilled soil that has retained previous crop residues?
Answer
  • A. Cover crops
  • B. Crop rotation
  • C. No-till farming
  • D. Contour plowing

Question 67

Question
Solid Waste Management (SWM) is considered to be one of the most serious environmental issues in the Philippines. What legal basis provide the necessary policy framework, institutional mechanisms and mandate to the local government unites (LGUs) to achieve 25% waste reduction through establishing an integrated solid waste management plans based on 3Rs (reduce, reuse and recycling)?
Answer
  • A. The Republic Act (RA) 9003, otherwise known as the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000
  • B. Integrated Waste management Plan of Environmental Protection Agency
  • C. Philippine Regulations on Sanitation and Wastewater Systems
  • D. The 2030 Sustainable Development Goal

Question 68

Question
In times of Covid-19 pandemic, many people used facemasks to protect themselves. As a responsible citizen, in which type of waste you are going to classify used facemasks?
Answer
  • A. Solid waste
  • B. Liquid waste
  • C. Organic waste
  • D. Hazardous waste

Question 69

Question
Sanitary and municipal fills and waste heaps are unavoidable hazardous due to the following factors. 1. Leachate 2. Emanating gases 3. Rodents and wandering animals 4. Automobile workshops that seem to have an affinity for such neighborhoods Which of the above are correct
Answer
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Question 70

Question
What do you call that process which exhibits the breaking down of rocks on the earth’s surface that may cause changes in its composition?
Answer
  • A. Erosion
  • B. Deposition
  • C. Mass wasting
  • D. Weathering

Question 71

Question
A marble statue of our national hero, Dr. Jose P. Rizal that is situated in your hometown Plaza is left exposed to the weather. Within a few years, the details on the statue have begun to weather away. What is the probable cause of this weathering?
Answer
  • A. Abrasion
  • B. Lichens
  • C. Oxygen in the air
  • D. Carbonic acid in rainwater

Question 72

Question
Why do geologists call on convection, rather than conduction, in order for heat to transfer from the core to the crust?
Answer
  • A. Conduction of heat is far too fast and efficient relative to convection, so the Earth would have cooled completely by now.
  • B. Conduction of heat is far too slow, but efficient relative to convection, so the Earth would have cooled almost completely by now.
  • C. Conduction of heat is far too slow and inefficient relative to convection, so the Earth would not have produced much cooling thus far.
  • D. Conduction of heat is far too fast and inefficient relative to convection, so the Earth would heat up to a higher temperature than it is now.

Question 73

Question
Your father just got a promotion and his already high salary was even doubled but you family had to move to Camiguin island several kilometers away from Mount Hibok-hibok which is an active volcano. Having known that you live near an active volcano, what information should you know and preparations should you take in case the volcano will show signs of eruption?
Answer
  • A. Interview local community folks in the island about the past eruptions of the volcano and asked what they did.
  • B. Check out the website of PHILVOLCS and read on the past eruption history of Mt. Hibok-Hibok from your local library.
  • C. Search the internet or other resources for pertinint data about Mt. Hibok-Hibok, talk to long-time residents or officials in the area, and discuss with your family a possible volcanin disaster preparedness plan.
  • D. Be prepared for a possible volcanic eruption by keeping and regularly maintaining a bag of clothes, footwear, non-perishable goods, bottled water, toiletries, flashlight, batteries, and cash which is always ready to carry anytime.

Question 74

Question
What sequence of rock types will shale pass through with successively higher grades of metamorphism?
Answer
  • A. Shale, phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist, partial melting.
  • B. Shale, phyllite, slate, schist, gneiss, partial melting.
  • C. Shale, slate, phyllite, gneiss, schist, partial melting.
  • D. Shale, slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss, partial melting.

Question 75

Question
The picture below shows a rock with deformed structure and intergrown crystals. What rock was probably formed?
Answer
  • A. Sediments that were deposited on the ocean floor
  • B. Heat and pressure that changed a preexisting rock
  • C. Volcanic lava that cooled on Earth’s surface
  • D. A meteor impact on Earth’s surface

Question 76

Question
What happened to the rocks under shear stress?
Answer
  • A. The rocks are squeezed.
  • B. The rocks fold or fracture.
  • C. The rocks are pulled apart.
  • D. The rock walls slip to each other on opposite direction.

Question 77

Question
Lino played a clay bar. He pushed the two sides of the clay bar using equal force from her hands on the same axis. What do you think is the type of stress did he exert on the clay bar?
Answer
  • A. Direct stress
  • B. Shear stress
  • C. Tensional stress
  • D. Compressional stress

Question 78

Question
Which of the following statement supports the reason of shrinking of the Pacific Ocean?
Answer
  • A. The plates are converging
  • B. Water is evaporating quickly near the equator
  • C. It has less glaciers melting into it than the Atlantic
  • D. Ocean crust in the Pacific is getting recycled faster than it’s being created

Question 79

Question
The San Andreas Fault System is a continental transform fault that extends roughly 1,200 kilometers (750 mi) through California. It forms the tectonic boundary between the Pacific Plate and the North American Plate . How would you describe the geologic process on how it was formed?
Answer
  • A. It is a convergent plate boundary resulting from two tectonic plates moving toward each other
  • B. It is a transform-plate boundary resulting from two plates sliding past each other, horizontally
  • C. Divergent Plate Boundary resulting from two tectonic plates moving away from each other.
  • D. Hot Spot resulting from intensely hot area in the mantle below Earth's crust.

Question 80

Question
How can you infer the difference between a guyot and a seamount?
Answer
  • A. Seamounts at one point reached the surface and was eroded away by wind and waves but guyots kept its mountain like shape.
  • B. Guyots at one point reached the surface and was eroded away by wind and waves but seamount kept its mountain-like shape.
  • C. Seamounts are cone shaped volcanoes, and biologically, that would scientifically confirm that there is no difference from guyots
  • D. Seamount have been weathered by wave and becomes a guyot, a cone shaped volcano

Question 81

Question
Which of the following resulted to the formation of new crust from magma that rises to the earth’s surface between two plate boundaries?
Answer
  • A. Strike fault
  • B. Divergent boundary
  • C. Transform boundary
  • D. Convergent boundary

Question 82

Question
Which of the following is associated with the discovery of seafloor spreading?
Answer
  • A. Mountains and Volcanoes are denser than mantle
  • B. Rotational pole of the earth has migrated or moved.
  • C. The crust of the continents is denser than the crust of the ocean
  • D. The crust of the oceans is very young relative to the age of the crust of the continents.

Question 83

Question
The diagram below shows a drill core of sediment that was taken from the bottom of a lake Which types of rock would most likely form from compaction and cementation of these sediments?
Answer
  • A. Shale and coal
  • B. Breccia and rock salt
  • C. Sandstone and limestone
  • D. Conglomerate and siltstone

Question 84

Question
Which statement best describes the processes of weathering and erosion?
Answer
  • A. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the amount of water in a river that transports sediments to the sea.
  • B. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the transportation, deposition and compaction of loose sediments on the seafloor
  • C. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for depositing loose sediments on the bottom of the ocean, forming layers of sediment
  • D. Weathering and erosion are directly responsible for the breakdown of any type of rock into smaller particles and the carrying away of the loose sediments

Question 85

Question
Radiometric dating, often called radioactive dating, is a technique used to determine the age of materials such as rocks. What is being measured in radiometric dating?
Answer
  • A. the amount of the parent isotope only
  • B. when the dated mineral became part of a sedimentary rock
  • C. the time of crystallization of a mineral containing an isotope
  • D. the time when the radioactive isotope formed, prior to being incorporated into a mineral.

Question 86

Question
If you are a geologist, how does the principle of faunal succession allow you to correlate rock strata in different geographic locations?
Answer
  • A. It states that layers of rock strata at different locations can be correlated according to the unique set of fossils they contain.
  • B. It states that the fossils in rock strata are older than the rock layers, allowing geologists to link younger and older layers across a region
  • C. It states that the evolution of fossils in one region should correlate with the evolution of fossils through different rock strata in another region
  • D. It states that fossils within rock strata are mostly homogeneous, suggesting that rock strata throughout a region should reveal similar sets of fossils.

Question 87

Question
The age of the Earth is based on the radioactive isotopic dating of meteorites. How old is the Earth based on its history?
Answer
  • A. 4.3 billion years old
  • B. 4.4 billion years old
  • C. 4.5 billion years old
  • D. 4.6 billion years old

Question 88

Question
You are having your vacation then suddenly while on the road trip you see this amazing rock formation shown in Figure 1 below. Which of the following principles of relative dating is NOT used in determining whether the rocks are of the same age?
Answer
  • A. Inclusion
  • B. Superposition
  • C. Lateral Continuity
  • D. Original Horizontality

Question 89

Question
Which conclusion can be made when observing fossils buried in a different layer of rock?
Answer
  • A. Shallow layers are older fossils than the deeper layers
  • B. The deeper layers are older fossils than the shallow layers
  • C. The deeper layers are younger fossils than the shallow layers
  • D. Shallow layers are the same age fossils with the deeper layers

Question 90

Question
Index fossil is an abundant and easily identifiable fossil with a wide geographic distribution and a short geologic range. From figure 5 below, which animal fossils are considered index fossils?
Answer
  • A. Fern
  • B. Coral
  • C. Trilobite
  • D. Ammonite

Question 91

Question
Which era were dinosaurs, small mammals, flowering plants, and birds found?
Answer
  • A. Cenozoic
  • B. Mesozoic
  • C. Paleozoic
  • D. Quaternary

Question 92

Question
A fossil of an ancient fish was dug up along with fossilized leaves of fern- like plants. In which environment was this fossil probably formed?
Answer
  • A. Hot jungle
  • B. Arctic sea
  • C. Hot dessert
  • D. Warm swamp

Question 93

Question
Which refers to the only planet in the solar system that gave rise to complex life?
Answer
  • A. Earth
  • B. Mars
  • C. Mercury
  • D. Venus

Question 94

Question
Major human activities cause great destructions on Earth’s subsystems. Since energy and matter is cycled within the spheres and being part of the system, these harmful activities bring forth destruction to us in a boomerang effect. One example of this is the Global warming. As a student, what recommendation can you give to solve this problem?
Answer
  • A. Report the violators to the United Nations.
  • B. Just ignore and continue your daily routines.
  • C. Be active in advocating change by rallying outside government hall.
  • D. Start the change from yourself by not contributing pollution to the environment.

Question 95

Question
Which of the following inference can be made about the two minerals?
Answer
  • A. Olivine can scratch hematite.
  • B. Hematite can scratch olivine.
  • C. The two minerals can scratch each other.
  • D. Neither of the two could scratch the other.

Question 96

Question
Which chemical groups do these two minerals belong?
Answer
  • A. Olivine = oxide; hematite = sulfate
  • B. Olivine = silicate; hematite = oxide
  • C. Olivine = sulfate; hematite = oxide
  • D. Olivine = oxide; hematite = silicate

Question 97

Question
Which of these areas do most sedimentary rocks usually form?
Answer
  • A. Volcanoes
  • B. Mountains
  • C. Plain lands
  • D. Bodies of water

Question 98

Question
Which of the following correctly describes physical weathering?
Answer
  • A. Rust changes the color of the rock.
  • B. A carabao steps on and crushes a limestone.
  • C. A year of acid rain deforms a rock monument.
  • D. Running water transports rock to other places.

Question 99

Question
Which of the following terms refers to the thickest layer, made mostly of iron, magnesium, and silicon, that is dense, hot, and semi-solid?
Answer
  • A. Core
  • B. Crust
  • C. Lithosphere
  • D. Mantle

Question 100

Question
Which of the following statements correctly describes inner core and outer core?
Answer
  • A. The inner core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot, while the outer core is the thickest layer, made mostly of magnesium and silicon.
  • B. The inner core is the thickest layer, made mostly of magnesium and silicon, while the outer core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay.
  • C. The inner core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot, while the outer core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay.
  • D. The inner core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by radioactive decay, while the outer core is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is intensely hot.

Question 101

Question
When the magma is formed, it rises toward the Earth’s surface. But not all magma behaves in the same way, just like granitic and basaltic magma. Based on the table, which of the following statements correctly differentiate granitic and basaltic magma?
Answer
  • A. Granitic magma is composed of 70% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 50% silica and 1-2% water.
  • B. Granitic magma is composed of 50% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 70% silica and 1-2% water.
  • C. Granitic magma is composed of 70% silica and 1-2% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 50% silica and 10-15% water.
  • D. Granitic magma is composed of 50% silica and 10-15% water, while basaltic magma is composed of 70% silica and 10-15% water.

Question 102

Question
Which from the following statements below correctly conclude the movement of both basaltic and granitic magma toward the Earth’s surface?
Answer
  • A. Basaltic magma typically solidifies within the Earth’s crust, while granitic magma rises all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano.
  • B. Basaltic magma rises all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano, while granitic magma typically solidifies within the Earth’s crust.
  • C. Neither basaltic magma nor granitic magma rises all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano bringing great destruction to the environment.
  • D. Both basaltic magma and granitic magma rise all the way to the Earth’s surface to erupt from a volcano, and at the same time solidify within the Earth’s crust.

Question 103

Question
Which of the following combination of factors can change pre-existing rocks into new forms?
Answer
  • A. Color, shape, and texture
  • B. Minerals, color, and temperature
  • C. Texture, temperature and chemically- active fluids
  • D. Temperature, pressure and chemically- active fluids

Question 104

Question
You watched a video of a lava flow when suddenly you got curious about how crystal formation happens. You also observed that small and large crystals can be formed from a lava flow. Based on this observation, where would you expect to find the largest crystals in a lava flow?
Answer
  • A. At the center of the flow.
  • B. Near the bottom of the flow.
  • C. Near the top surface of the flow.
  • D. The crystals would have the same grain size throughout the flow.

Question 105

Question
You were given a granite sample and tasked to describe just by looking and touching it. Which of the following statements below will best describe a granite based on its physical appearance?
Answer
  • A. Light- colored, fine- grained igneous rock rich in silica
  • B. Light- colored, fine- grained igneous rock poor in silica
  • C. Light- colored, coarse- grained igneous rock rich in silica
  • D. Light- colored, coarse- grained igneous rock poor in silica

Question 106

Question
You are walking along a flat rock surface. You discover that as you walk further, the age of the rocks decreases until you reach the middle of the surface, then for some reason, they get older again. What structure have you just passed over?
Answer
  • A. syncline fold
  • B. anticline fold
  • C. monocline fold
  • D. overturned fold

Question 107

Question
A geologist was interested in the age of rock layers in a specific area, as shown in Figure 1 below. Which of the following set of rock layers is correctly arranged from oldest to youngest?
Answer
  • A. P – O – N – M – L – Q
  • B. P – Q – O – N – L – M
  • C. Q – O – N – M – L – P
  • D. Q – P – O – N – M – L

Question 108

Question
A geologist used relative dating methods to guess that an igneous rock sample is between 1 million and 5 million years old and was curious about its exact age. Will using carbon-14 in determining the age of the rock be helpful?
Answer
  • A. Yes, because the rock sample contains traces of carbon in it.
  • B. Yes, because carbon-14 is widely used by scientists in absolute dating.
  • C. No, because the half-life of carbon-14 is too short for the age of the rock sample.
  • D. No, because it is not sure whether dead bodies of organisms are present in the sample.

Question 109

Question
A geologist found a dinosaur fossil and wants to estimate what period that dinosaur existed in the past. The geologist measured the ages of the rocks beneath and above the fossil. What dating technique he/she is about to use?
Answer
  • A. cross dating
  • B. relative dating
  • C. geologic dating
  • D. absolute dating

Question 110

Question
What information is generally shown in the geologic time scale?
Answer
  • A. the branches of geology
  • B. the geologic history of the Earth
  • C. the geologic features of the Earth
  • D. the geologists with significant contributions

Question 111

Question
Which hazard may happen if loosely-packed and water-logged sediments at or near ground surface lose strength during earthquakes?
Answer
  • A. eruption
  • B. fire
  • C. liquefaction
  • D. tsunamis

Question 112

Question
A barangay located near the sea experienced a magnitude 8.0 earthquake. What hazard are the residents most exposed to after this?
Answer
  • A. eruption
  • B. fire
  • C. liquefaction
  • D. tsunami

Question 113

Question
What term refers to an extreme natural phenomenon in Earth’s crust, like earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, that may cause danger to life and property?
Answer
  • A. geologic hazard
  • B. biological hazard
  • C. technological hazard
  • D. hydrometeorological hazard

Question 114

Question
If you live on a hillside in a land-locked area with an active volcano nearby, which of the following phenomena does NOT bring you hazard?
Answer
  • A. tsunami
  • B. landslide
  • C. earthquake
  • D. volcanic eruption

Question 115

Question
Who among the following people is doing an activity that helps lessen the occurrence of landslides?
Answer
  • A. Person L constructs their home on a steep slope.
  • B. Person M puts as much vegetation as possible on the nearby slope.
  • C. Person N creates a water canal that cuts through some part of the hill.
  • D. Person O gathers topsoil from the mountain for their backyard garden.

Question 116

Question
During a typhoon, you noticed an abnormal rise of seawater level that caused flooding in the coastal area you are living in. What phenomenon had you just witnessed?
Answer
  • A. tornado
  • B. tsunami
  • C. spring tide
  • D. storm surge

Question 117

Question
Suppose you live in a coastal area and your primary source of drinking water has always been through a water pump. Over the years, you noticed that the water gets saltier and saltier. What coastal process could have occurred?
Answer
  • A. tidal wave
  • B. coastal erosion
  • C. saltwater intrusion
  • D. coastal submersion

Question 118

Question
A businessman wanted to build a five-story hotel a few meters away from the edge of a cliff on the shore. Should this plan be allowed by the authority?
Answer
  • A. Yes, it will boost tourism in the community.
  • B. Yes, it is the best spot to capture beautiful sceneries.
  • C. No, its construction could only worsen coastal erosion.
  • D. No, the businessman needs to have large amount of investment.

Question 119

Question
Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. What are the mixtures of gases they thought to be abundant in earth’s early atmosphere? I. N2 II. H2O III. H2 IV. NH3 V. O2 VI. CH4
Answer
  • A. I, II, III, IV
  • B. II, III, IV, V
  • C. II, III, IV, VI
  • D. III, IV, V, VI

Question 120

Question
Which of the following conditions will best fossilize an animal?
Answer
  • A. The animal is made up of bones.
  • B. The animal is soft-bodied like jellyfish.
  • C. The animal dies at sea and sinks deep.
  • D. The animal is left exposed to the elements.

Question 121

Question
Based on the Geologic Time Scale, which of the following is a correct pair of periods in the Earth’s history and the corresponding major event that took place?
Answer
  • A. Quaternary – age of mammals
  • B. Permian – extinction of trilobites
  • C. Cretaceous – appearance of first land plants
  • D. Cambrian – appearance of first amphibians

Question 122

Question
On a hot day, a man feels to go for a swim, drinks some cold water, or sits in the shade while on a cold day, he feels to put on a coat, sits in a corner, or eats a bowl of hot soup. Given the situation, how would you classify the interaction of the man to his environment?
Answer
  • A. It is an example of growth and development.
  • B. It shows man’s adaptation to his environment.
  • C. It is the ability of the man to regulate his internal condition.
  • D. It ensures the survival of man and in carrying out his functions.

Question 123

Question
Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?
Answer
  • A. Communities make up species, which make up populations.
  • B. Populations make up species, which make up communities.
  • C. Species make up communities, which make up populations.
  • D. Species make up populations, which make up communities.

Question 124

Question
Which of the following is a correct pair of organ and organ system?
Answer
  • A. lungs-excretory
  • B. brain-circulatory
  • C. mouth-respiratory
  • D. skin – integumentary

Question 125

Question
Which of the following terms refers to the biological process of producing offspring that are biologically or genetically similar to the parents?
Answer
  • A. evolution
  • B. fertilization
  • C. development
  • D. reproduction

Question 126

Question
What term refers to the process of producing new organism by combining the genetic information of two individuals having different sexes?
Answer
  • A. external fertilization
  • B. internal fertilization
  • C. sexual reproduction
  • D. asexual reproduction

Question 127

Question
Which of the following statements correctly differentiate sexual reproduction from asexual reproduction?
Answer
  • A. Sexual reproduction is faster than asexual reproduction.
  • B. Sexual reproduction requires one parent while asexual requires two.
  • C. Sexual reproduction requires two parents while asexual requires one.
  • D. Sexual reproduction produces identical offspring while asexual produces offspring from two parents.

Question 128

Question
Which of the following is NOT correct about recombinant DNA technology?
Answer
  • A. Plasmids and bacteriophages are examples of commonly used vectors.
  • B. Recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology helps produce better breeds of plants and animals.
  • C. The rDNA technology could also help in identifying criminals by studying a sample from a specific person.
  • D. The rDNA technology can be considered successful even if the foreign DNA inserted into the vector DNA is not expressing the desired trait in the host cells.

Question 129

Question
Which of the following crop is not genetically modified?
Answer
  • A. Bt corn
  • B. golden rice
  • C. BT eggplant
  • D. conventional rice

Question 130

Question
Which of the following is considered a risk of GM food to people’s health?
Answer
  • A. GM food enhanced pathogenicity.
  • B. GM food production cost is reduced.
  • C. GM food increased weed or pest burden.
  • D. GM food contains higher amounts of vitamins and minerals.

Question 131

Question
What responses are generated by the nervous system when you run on a treadmill?
Answer
  • A. Dispose waste from the body
  • B. Get the oxygen into our body and get rid of carbon dioxide.
  • C. Food is broken down by to give energy to every cell in the body.
  • D. Once exercise begins, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, and the heart rate rises quickly

Question 132

Question
Pablo went out with his friends almost every day to have fun and takes whatever vices they want. One day he complains abdominal pain and notices that the appearance of his skin turns yellowish which are some symptoms of a liver problem. Which do you think among his vices caused him liver problem?
Answer
  • A. Smoking
  • B. Gambling
  • C. Social games
  • D. Alcohol Consumption

Question 133

Question
There is a couple who wish to have a child but cannot have it because the wife was diagnosed with Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). It is a condition in which the ovaries produce an abnormal number of androgens, male sex hormones that are usually present in women in small amounts that cause infertility of women having it. However, it can be treated by maintaining healthy weight, conducting regular exercise and balance diet. Based on the given situation, is it possible for the couple to bear a child?
Answer
  • A. Yes, PCOS will just go away on its own.
  • B. Yes if they will just follow the suggestions of their doctor.
  • C. No because there is no treatment for PCOS.
  • D. No because female ovaries with PCOS totally can’t release egg cells.

Question 134

Question
When you’re faced with a perceived threat, your brain thinks you’re in danger. That’s because it already considers the situation to be life threatening. As a result, your body automatically reacts to keep you safe. What hormone is responsible for this response?
Answer
  • A. Adrenalin
  • B. Melatonin
  • C. Vasopressin
  • D. Growth Hormones

Question 135

Question
Pedro who met an accident dislocated his two long bones in his hand. What do you think is the cause of such dislocation?
Answer
  • A. Tendon break
  • B. Ligament break
  • C. Areolar tissue break
  • D. Break of skeletal muscle

Question 136

Question
Covid 19 pandemic affects the immune system of individual who will be infected with this virus. As a student, which of the following campaign below is the best thing to promote to boost your immune system?
Answer
  • A. Drink alcohol in moderation.
  • B. Always observe health protocols.
  • C. Have an exercise at least once a week.
  • D. Eat a diet high in fruits and vegetables.

Question 137

Question
Gregor Mendel was considered as the Father of Modern Genetics. Which of the following works was associated with him?
Answer
  • A. Study with pea plants
  • B. Expedition in the Galapagos Islands
  • C. Discovering the molecular structure of DNA
  • D. Determination of the double-helix structure of DNA

Question 138

Question
For certain organisms to survive, they need to learn the process of adaptation by which a species becomes fitted to its environment. Which of the following situations exhibits adaptation?
Answer
  • A. Birds with light bones of their wings for easy flying.
  • B. Giraffes having long necks for feeding in the top of trees
  • C. Animals staying in one place all the time to protect its home
  • D. Succulents which store water in their short, thick stems and leaves in preparation for dry season.

Question 139

Question
Based on the figure below, what is common among human arm, cat’s leg, whale flipper and bat’s wing? I. Have the same bones. II. Share common ancestors. III. Body parts have the same functions.
Answer
  • A. I only
  • B. II only
  • C. I & II only
  • D. II & III only

Question 140

Question
Someone gives you two black beetles: Carbonized Darkling Beetle (Eleodes carbonaria) and Armored Stink Beetle (Eleodes armata). What group they both belong in the biological classification of organisms?
Answer
  • A. Family
  • B. Genus
  • C. Order
  • D. Species

Question 141

Question
On 16 December 2021, Typhoon Rai (local name Odette) brought torrential rains, violent winds, landslides, and storm surges in the provinces of Surigao del Norte and Dinagat Islands in Mindanao, in five provinces of Visayas, and in the island of Palawan in Luzon before it exited the Philippine area of responsibility on 17 December 2021. If a natural disaster like Typhoon Odette devastates an ecosystem, what will this do to the carrying capacity of the population of a species within that ecosystem?
Answer
  • A. Increase it.
  • B. Decrease it
  • C. Always reduce it down to zero.
  • D. Will not affect it, so it will stay the same.

Question 142

Question
The family of Amelia lives in a “sitio” where most of her relatives are also living there because it’s where their farm located which is the source of their foods. Cora, friend of Amelia lives in another sitio, 5 kilometers away from Amelia’s place. The family of Cora is living in another sitio because it is where their farm located. How will you classify the household-population distribution pattern with Amelia’s & Cora’s place?
Answer
  • A. Clumped Distribution
  • B. Random Distribution
  • C. Uniform Distribution
  • D. Vertical Distributions

Question 143

Question
Which of the following is NOT an element of a healthy relationship?
Answer
  • A. Trust one another
  • B. One person makes all the decisions
  • C. Respect one another
  • D. Open and honest communication

Question 144

Question
What skills do you need to make healthy decisions in a relationship?
Answer
  • A. Intelligence, memory, ability to do public speaking
  • B. Assertive communication, active listening, and negotiation skills
  • C. Ability to persuade others, love,
  • D. passive communication
  • E. None of the above

Question 145

Question
Which of the following are signs that you may be in an abusive relationship?
Answer
  • A. Bruises, scratches and other signs of injuries
  • B. Avoiding friends
  • C. Apologizing for your partner`s behavior
  • D. All of the above

Question 146

Question
Jane has ability to stay calm and deal with her emotion during stressful and difficult times.
Answer
  • A. Emotional Stability
  • B. Agreeableness
  • C. Conscientiousness
  • D. Extraversion

Question 147

Question
In a healthy relationship, both partners: Statement 1: Are treated with kindness and respect Statement 2: Are honest with each other
Answer
  • A. Only statement 1 is correct
  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct
  • C. Both Statements are correct
  • D. Both statements are in correct

Question 148

Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of a healthy relationship?
Answer
  • A. Feel pressure
  • B. Good communication
  • C. Have a lack of privacy
  • D. Neglecting others

Question 149

Question
It can be thought of as a close tie between two people that is often built upon mutual experiences, shared interests, proximity, and emotional bonding.
Answer
  • A. Family
  • B. Friends
  • C. Lovers
  • D. Partnership

Question 150

Question
In a healthy relationship, both partners: Statement 1: Don’t like to spend time together Statement 2: Take an interest in things that are important to each other
Answer
  • A. Only statement 1 is correct
  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct
  • C. Both Statements are correct
  • D. Both statements are in correct

Question 151

Question
In a healthy relationship, both partners: Statement 1: Respect one another’s emotional, physical and sexual limits Statement 2: Can speak dishonestly about their feelings
Answer
  • A. Only statement 1 is correct
  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct
  • C. Both Statements are correct
  • D. Both statements are in correct

Question 152

Question
Which statement shows being responsible in a relationship?
Answer
  • A. Practice gratitude
  • B. Learn to forgive only with friends.
  • C. Be compassionate when you are only in a good mood.
  • D. Connect with your family that are close to you.

Question 153

Question
How would you define a personal relationship?
Answer
  • A. Personal relationships refer to the development of positive and healthy relations.
  • B. Personal relationships refer to interaction between two or more people, groups or organizations.
  • C. Personal relationships refer to the connection that exists between people who have interactions.
  • D. Personal relationships, refers to a close connection between adolescents, formed by emotional bonds and interactions.

Question 154

Question
What should you consider when making decisions around sex and sexual limits?
Answer
  • A. Your values
  • B. Your friends
  • C. Your family
  • D. All of the above

Question 155

Question
What is the best style of communication to use when making decisions about sexual limits and boundaries?
Answer
  • A. Assertive
  • B. Passive
  • C. Aggressive
  • D. Possessive

Question 156

Question
Social Influence is:
Answer
  • A. The efforts on the part of one person to alter the behavior or attitudes of one or more others
  • B. Influencing how society operates and determining how it will operate in the future
  • C. The influence of society on us
  • D. Being influenced by others

Question 157

Question
Conformity occurs when:
Answer
  • A. Individuals change their behavior in order to fit that of other persons in their group
  • B. Individuals adhere to conventions of a society, such as wearing clothes
  • C. Individuals influence each other
  • D. Individuals mimic each other

Question 158

Question
What stage does peer group start to play an important role in helping to define the adolescent's identity, independent of the family; including the development of the sex role identity?
Answer
  • A. Adolescence
  • B. Childhood
  • C. Middle Adolescence
  • D. Pre-Adolescence

Question 159

Question
Refer to the connections that exist between people who have recurring interactions that are perceived by the participants to have personal meaning.
Answer
  • A. Social Influence
  • B. Social Deviance
  • C. Social Pressure
  • D. Social Relationship

Question 160

Question
Is a process by which a person influences other to accomplish an objective and directs the organization in a way that makes it more cohesive and coherent.
Answer
  • A. Followership
  • B. Leadership
  • C. Process Leadership
  • D. Trait Leadership

Question 161

Question
Landy hates to attend concerts but goes because his wife wants to. After three years Landy comes to genuinely enjoy concerts. This is an example of
Answer
  • A. How psychological reactance can lead to acceptance
  • B. How acceptance can lead to compliance
  • C. How compliance can lead to acceptance
  • D. The boomerang effect

Question 162

Question
Which is TRUE about followership?
Answer
  • A. Contributes in leading his team towards a positive direction where they learn the value of hard work, importance of time and establishing goals.
  • B. A follower not only follows the footsteps of his leader, but also supports and encourages him for doing better.
  • C. One who influences people through motivation and ideas for betterment
  • D. Follower is the ultimate epitome of inspiration

Question 163

Question
The ability to work being a part of a group is what makes the job of a leader easier and is the most vital characteristics of a good follower.
Answer
  • A. Appreciative
  • B. Collaboration
  • C. Diligence
  • D. Honesty

Question 164

Question
Some of the qualities of a good leader includes the following, except
Answer
  • A. Ambitious
  • B. Appreciative
  • C. Building Good Relation
  • D. Inspiring others

Question 165

Question
Leaders carry out this process by applying their leadership knowledge and skills.
Answer
  • A. Trait Leadership
  • B. Process leadership
  • C. Controlled leadership
  • D. none of the above

Question 166

Question
How social pressure may lead us to perform immoral acts is best illustrated by studies of?
Answer
  • A. informational influence
  • B. obedience to authority
  • C. psychological reactance
  • D. spontaneous self-concept

Question 167

Question
Leaders have traits that can influence their actions.
Answer
  • A. Trait Leadership
  • B. Process leadership
  • C. Controlled leadership
  • D. none of the above

Question 168

Question
Statement 1: Social influence is the change in behavior that one person causes in another, intentionally or unintentionally, as a result of the way the changed person perceives themselves in relationship to the influencer, other people and society in general. Statement 2: Social relationship can be defined as a relationship that is primarily initiated with the purpose of friendship, socialization, enjoyment or accomplishing a task
Answer
  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct
  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct
  • C. Both Statements are correct
  • D. Both Statements are incorrect

Question 169

Question
Statement 1: The Opportunists are the one who secretly hate their leaders and are disloyal. They cannot easily be identified. They have a strong dislike for the leader and conspire against him. Statement 2: Traitors are the ones who can be bought. They always go with the one who is already on the top. They are not loyal to the leader.
Answer
  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct
  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct
  • C. Both Statements are correct
  • D. Both Statements are incorrect

Question 170

Question
Statement 1: Critics are such kind of followers who tend to question and oppose every move of the leader. They are usually passive. Critical types of followers are often the ones who have not been recognized for their work or have been denied appreciation. Statement 2: Royalists are the ones who always stand by the leader. They are the true supporters of the leader. They always listen carefully to the leader and give true feedback.
Answer
  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct
  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct
  • C. Both Statements are correct
  • D. Both Statements are incorrect

Question 171

Question
Statement 1: Collaboration is the most vital characteristics of a good follower. The ability to work being a part of a group is what makes the job of a leader easier. Statement 2: Ambitious - Ambition is one such thing that boosts the chances of growth and success. A leader shows the path, whereas the followers walk on it keeping their ambitions in mind.
Answer
  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct
  • B. Only Statement 2 is Correct
  • C. Both Statements are correct
  • D. Both Statements are incorrect

Question 172

Question
The following are the Qualities of a Good Leadership, EXCEPT:
Answer
  • A. Honesty
  • B. Traits of Inspiring Others
  • C. Ability to Build a Good Relation
  • D. Loyalty and obedience

Question 173

Question
It refers to a family member is separated from the rest of the family. This may be due to employment far away; military service; incarceration; hospitalization. They remain significant members of the family.
Answer
  • A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial
  • B. Conditionally Separated
  • C. Foster
  • D. Immigrant

Question 174

Question
A family where one or more of the children is legally a temporary member of the household. This “temporary” period may be as short as a few days or as long as the child’s entire childhood.
Answer
  • A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial
  • B. Conditionally Separated
  • C. Foster
  • D. Immigrant

Question 175

Question
Where one or both of the parents’ sexual orientation is gay or lesbian. This may be a two-parent family, an adoptive family, a single parent family or an extended family.
Answer
  • A. Foster
  • B. Gay/Lesbian
  • C. Single parent
  • D. Trans-racial Adoptive

Question 176

Question
The parents of the family are members of different racial identity groups.
Answer
  • A. Bi-racial/Multi-racial
  • B. Conditionally Separated
  • C. Foster
  • D. Immigrant

Question 177

Question
Which of the following refers to a family where the adopted child is of a different racial identity group than the parents?
Answer
  • A. Adoptive
  • B. Blended
  • C. Extended
  • D. Nuclear

Question 178

Question
A family unit consisting of at most a father, mother and dependent children. It is considered the “traditional” family.
Answer
  • A. Adoptive
  • B. Blended
  • C. Extended
  • D. Nuclear

Question 179

Question
Which of the following refers to a family consisting of parents and children, along with grandparents, grandchildren, aunts or uncles, cousins etc. In some circumstances, the extended family comes to live either with or in place of a member of the nuclear family?
Answer
  • A. Adoptive
  • B. Blended
  • C. Extended
  • D. Nuclear

Question 180

Question
What refers to a family that consists of members from two (or more) previous families?
Answer
  • A. Adoptive
  • B. Blended
  • C. Extended
  • D. Nuclear

Question 181

Question
This can be either a father or a mother who is singly responsible for the raising of a child. The child can be by birth or adoption. They may be a single parent by choice or by life circumstances.
Answer
  • A. Foster
  • B. Gay/Lesbian
  • C. Single parent
  • D. Trans-racial adoptive

Question 182

Question
Family where one or more of the children has been adopted. Any structure of family may also be an adoptive family.
Answer
  • A. Foster
  • B. Gay/Lesbian
  • C. Single parent
  • D. Trans-racial adoptive

Question 183

Question
How do you define a career?
Answer
  • A. Career refers to a setting of deadlines in achieving the goals on a specific time.
  • B. Career refers to a major plan that considers the situations among families especially in going college, or are about to enter college.
  • C. Career defined as a work that challenges someone to manage and pursue a scholarship to aid in pursuing a dream.
  • D. Career is defined as an occupation undertaken for a significant period of a person's life and with opportunities for progress.

Question 184

Question
Which one is an external factor influencing a Filipino adolescent’s in choosing a career?
Answer
  • A. Parental preferences
  • B. Career choice of friends
  • C. Family considerations, financial constraints, job market preference (Immediate Employment), school location
  • D. Both A and B

Question 185

Question
What do you call the external influencing factors that parents have some idea of what course you should take up in college?
Answer
  • A. Parental preferences
  • B. Family considerations
  • C. Financial constraints
  • D. Job market preference

Question 186

Question
What do you call the external influencing factors that might happen associated with a particular gender?
Answer
  • A. Gender bias
  • B. Parental preferences
  • C. Family considerations
  • D. Financial constraints

Question 187

Question
What do you call a career development theory that is based on observations that people possess traits, behaviors and interests?
Answer
  • A. The Realistic type
  • B. The Artistic type
  • C. The Investigative type
  • D. Holland’s Theory of Vocational Types

Question 188

Question
What do you call the term that will help you sort out your priorities and how you want to live your life? It may include short-term and long-term goals, or life-long aspirations?
Answer
  • A. Aspirations
  • B. Life goals
  • C. Life priority
  • D. Personal mission statement

Question 189

Question
Which of the following is NOT included in personal development career plan personal mission?
Answer
  • A. Career
  • B. Career Plan
  • C. Education
  • D. Personal attributes, such as honesty, loyalty and dedication

Question 190

Question
Angel needs to appear more composed during the interview because she needs to get the teaching job. What key factors does she need?
Answer
  • A. Education
  • B. Empathy
  • C. Motivation
  • D. Self-awareness

Question 191

Question
Statement 1: An honest assessment and evaluation of a teenager’s work style will help them decide a career to consider. A serious thought about certain career should be prepared by an adolescent. Statement 2: Real life experience in the work environment where teenagers may think they want to work can help them make up their minds on the career they will pursue.
Answer
  • A. Only Statement 1 is correct
  • B. Only statement 2 is correct
  • C. Both statements are correct
  • D. Both statements are incorrect

Question 192

Question
Which of the following refers to the characteristics that make us unique or different from others?
Answer
  • A. Career development
  • B. Career Growth
  • C. Personal Development
  • D. Personality trait

Question 193

Question
What is the meaning of the word Philosophy?
Answer
  • A. The study of religion and beliefs
  • B. The study of natural science
  • C. The love of wisdom
  • D. The study of art

Question 194

Question
What is the method of philosophical inquiry that emphasizes the importance of direct observation and experience?
Answer
  • A. Empiricism
  • B. Rationalism
  • C. Dialectic
  • D. Phenomenology

Question 195

Question
In what way can the understanding of the embodied spirit help individuals to live a more fulfilling life?
Answer
  • By promoting the idea of physical self-care
  • By promoting the idea of separation of the body and soul
  • By promoting a holistic approach to self-care
  • By promoting the idea of a spiritual self-care

Question 196

Question
How can an understanding of the relationship between humans and the natural world be applied to improve environmental sustainability?
Answer
  • A. By implementing technological solutions
  • B. By ignoring the relationship
  • C. By understanding and addressing the impact of human actions on the natural world
  • D. By focusing solely on economic growth

Question 197

Question
A person argues that freedom is the ability to do whatever one wants, regardless of the consequences. How would you evaluate this statement?
Answer
  • A. It is a valid perspective on freedom
  • B. It is not a valid perspective on freedom as it disregards the rights and freedoms of others and the consequences of one's actions
  • C. It is not a valid perspective on freedom as it disregards laws and social norms
  • D. It is a valid perspective on freedom as long as it does not harm others

Question 198

Question
You are in charge of organizing a team building activity for your company. Which of the following options do you think would be the most effective in promoting teamwork and creativity among team members?
Answer
  • A. A scavenger hunt
  • B. A lecture on the importance of communication
  • C. A cooking competition where each team has to come up with a unique recipe using a set of ingredients provided.
  • D. A game of paintball

Question 199

Question
A person argues that the individual should always prioritize their own interests over those of society. How would you evaluate this statement?
Answer
  • A. It is a valid perspective on the relationship between the individual and society
  • B. It is not a valid perspective on the relationship between the individual and society as it disregards the importance of social cohesion and the interdependence of individuals within society
  • C. It is a valid perspective as long as it does not harm others
  • D. It is not a valid perspective as it goes against the principles of fairness and justice

Question 200

Question
How is the awareness of death different from the fear of death?
Answer
  • A. Awareness of death is cognitive while fear of death is emotional
  • B. Fear of death is rational and the awareness of death is irrational
  • C. Fear of death is a natural response to the awareness of death
  • D. None of the above
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